UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 16 March 2026

Solution: C

• Statement I is correct: Section 9(2) of the Act states that if any question arises as to whether, when, or how any person has acquired the citizenship of another country, it shall be determined by such authority as may be prescribed by the Central Government. The Supreme Court has clarified that the Central Government has exclusive jurisdiction here, not the courts in the first instance.
• Statement II is incorrect: Section 9 deals with “Termination” which happens by operation of law (automatically) upon the voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship. It is not a penal provision or a punishment for disloyalty. Disloyalty is a ground for Deprivation (Section 10), which is a different legal mechanism applicable to naturalized/registered citizens. Section 9 applies to all, and is based on the logic that the Constitution does not permit dual citizenship.

Solution: C

• Assertion (A) is true: The Preamble is non-justiciable, meaning its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law. One cannot file a suit solely on the ground that a government action violates the “noble ideals” of the Preamble (e.g., Fraternity) without a violation of a specific substantive article.
• Reason (R) is false: The Supreme Court (in Kesavananda Bharati and LIC of India cases) has explicitly held that while the Preamble is not a source of power or prohibition, it plays a vital role in interpretation. Where the language of a constitutional article is ambiguous or capable of two meanings, the interpretation that aligns with the Preamble is preferred. Thus, it is used as a guiding light for interpretation.

Solution: C

• Due Process of Law — American Constitution
  This pairing is correct. The concept of Due Process of Law originates from the United States Constitution. It ensures that the government must respect all legal rights owed to a person and that laws themselves must be fair, just, and reasonable. Although the phrase itself is not explicitly used in the Constitution of India, the idea later influenced judicial interpretation, particularly after the Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, where the Supreme Court expanded the meaning of “procedure established by law” to include fairness and reasonableness.
• Procedure Established by Law — Japanese Constitution
  This pairing is correct. The framers of the Constitution of India adopted the phrase “Procedure Established by Law” from the Constitution of Japan. It implies that a person’s life or personal liberty can be deprived only according to a procedure prescribed by law enacted by the legislature. Initially it meant that courts could not examine the fairness of the law itself, only whether the procedure existed.
• Liberty, Equality, Fraternity — French Revolution
  This pairing is correct. The ideals Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity originated from the French Revolution and deeply influenced the Preamble of the Constitution of India. These principles shaped the democratic and social philosophy of the Indian constitutional framework.
• Justice (Social, Economic, Political) — Russian Revolution
  This pairing is incorrect. While socialist ideas influenced Indian constitutional thinking, the phrase “Justice: social, economic and political” in the Preamble is not directly borrowed from the Russian Revolution. Instead, it reflects the broader ideals of social democracy and was strongly influenced by nationalist movements and the Objectives Resolution, which later became the philosophical foundation of the Constitution.

Solution: B

• Statement I is Correct:The President’s pardoning power (Article 72) is a constitutional duty and sovereign power. The Governor’s power (Article 161) is distinct. The Supreme Court has held that the President can entertain a petition even if the Governor has rejected one, particularly in death sentence cases where the President has exclusive power to grant a full pardon. However, this is not a “discretionary” power in the sense of acting without advice; it is exercised on the advice of the Home Ministry.
• Statement II is Incorrect:The Indian Constitution does not prescribe any time limit for the President to give assent, withhold assent, or return a bill (Pocket Veto). This is a deliberate silence compared to the US Constitution (10 days). The “six months” limit applies to the gap between parliamentary sessions, not veto powers.
• Statement III is Correct:The President has no Constitutional Discretion (unlike the Governor under Art 163). However, Situational Discretion arises in specific political circumstances, such as a hung Parliament, where the President must use their own judgment to appoint a PM who can form a stable government. This is a discretionary act.

Solution: D

Statement I is incorrect. Under Constitution of India, the Governor may reserve certain Bills for the consideration of the President under Article 200. However, violation of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is not a specified ground for reserving a Bill. DPSPs under Part IV of the Constitution of India are non-justiciable, meaning courts cannot enforce them. Therefore, the Governor does not reserve a Bill simply because it allegedly violates DPSPs.

Statement II is correct. Article 200 provides the Governor with certain discretionary powers to reserve a Bill for the President. In practice and constitutional convention, this may occur in situations such as:

• When the Bill may conflict with Union laws on the Concurrent List.
• When the Bill may affect national interest or the powers of the Union.
• When the Bill may undermine the authority of the High Court (which is actually a mandatory ground for reservation).

Once reserved, the President acts under Article 201, where assent may be given, withheld, or the Bill may be returned (if it is not a Money Bill).

Thus, Statement I is incorrect, while Statement II reflects the discretionary context in which a Governor may reserve a Bill.