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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Northern Mountains of India, consider the following statements:
- The Himalayas were formed primarily due to the collision between the Indo-Australian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
- The Trans-Himalayan ranges lie to the south of the Great Himalayas and include ranges such as the Zanskar and Pir Panjal.
- The Siwalik ranges are mainly composed of unconsolidated sediments deposited during the later phases of Himalayan uplift.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I – Correct:
The Himalayas originated due to the continental collision between the Indian Plate (often referred to in textbooks as part of the Indo-Australian Plate) and the Eurasian Plate around 50 million years ago during the Cenozoic Era. The northward movement of the Indian Plate compressed the Tethys Sea sediments, leading to intense folding, faulting and uplift, which produced the Himalayan mountain system. This collision continues today, making the Himalayas geologically young and tectonically active.Statement II – Incorrect:
The Trans-Himalayan ranges lie to the north of the Great Himalayas, not to the south. These ranges developed along the Indus–Tsangpo suture zone, which marks the zone of collision between the Indian and Eurasian plates. Important ranges of this region include the Karakoram, Ladakh and Zanskar ranges. In contrast, the Pir Panjal range belongs to the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal Himalaya) and lies south of the Great Himalayas, not in the Trans-Himalayan system.Statement III – Correct:
The Siwalik (Outer Himalayas) represent the youngest Himalayan ranges and are mainly composed of unconsolidated or weakly consolidated sediments such as sandstone, shale, gravel and conglomerates. These deposits were formed from erosional debris carried by Himalayan rivers and accumulated in foreland basins during the later stages of Himalayan uplift, particularly in the Miocene–Pleistocene period.Therefore, only two statements are correct.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I – Correct:
The Himalayas originated due to the continental collision between the Indian Plate (often referred to in textbooks as part of the Indo-Australian Plate) and the Eurasian Plate around 50 million years ago during the Cenozoic Era. The northward movement of the Indian Plate compressed the Tethys Sea sediments, leading to intense folding, faulting and uplift, which produced the Himalayan mountain system. This collision continues today, making the Himalayas geologically young and tectonically active.Statement II – Incorrect:
The Trans-Himalayan ranges lie to the north of the Great Himalayas, not to the south. These ranges developed along the Indus–Tsangpo suture zone, which marks the zone of collision between the Indian and Eurasian plates. Important ranges of this region include the Karakoram, Ladakh and Zanskar ranges. In contrast, the Pir Panjal range belongs to the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal Himalaya) and lies south of the Great Himalayas, not in the Trans-Himalayan system.Statement III – Correct:
The Siwalik (Outer Himalayas) represent the youngest Himalayan ranges and are mainly composed of unconsolidated or weakly consolidated sediments such as sandstone, shale, gravel and conglomerates. These deposits were formed from erosional debris carried by Himalayan rivers and accumulated in foreland basins during the later stages of Himalayan uplift, particularly in the Miocene–Pleistocene period.Therefore, only two statements are correct.
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Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following mountain ranges and hill systems of the Peninsular Plateau:
I. Satpura Range
II. Mahadeo Hills
III. Nilgiri Hills
IV. Aravalli RangeArrange the above in the correct order from north to south:
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation
- Aravalli Range is the northernmost, extending from Delhi–Haryana to Gujarat and representing one of the oldest fold mountains of the Peninsular block.
- Satpura Range lies south of the Vindhyan system in central India and runs east–west between the Narmada and Tapti valleys.
- Mahadeo Hills are part of the Satpura system, located mainly in Madhya Pradesh around Pachmarhi, and lie south of the main Satpura ridge in the regional physiographic arrangement.
- Nilgiri Hills occur much further south, at the junction of the Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats in Tamil Nadu–Karnataka–Kerala.
Thus the correct sequence is: Aravalli → Satpura → Mahadeo Hills → Nilgiri Hills.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation
- Aravalli Range is the northernmost, extending from Delhi–Haryana to Gujarat and representing one of the oldest fold mountains of the Peninsular block.
- Satpura Range lies south of the Vindhyan system in central India and runs east–west between the Narmada and Tapti valleys.
- Mahadeo Hills are part of the Satpura system, located mainly in Madhya Pradesh around Pachmarhi, and lie south of the main Satpura ridge in the regional physiographic arrangement.
- Nilgiri Hills occur much further south, at the junction of the Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats in Tamil Nadu–Karnataka–Kerala.
Thus the correct sequence is: Aravalli → Satpura → Mahadeo Hills → Nilgiri Hills.
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Physiographic Feature Characteristic I. Duns Longitudinal valleys lying between the Lesser Himalayas and the Siwaliks II. Karewa Fluvio-glacial terraces formed along the Indus valley III. Patlands Flat-topped lateritic uplands of the Chotanagpur Plateau IV. Intermontane Basin Enclosed depression situated between mountain ranges How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Pair I – Correct:
Duns are structural valleys situated between the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal Himalaya) and the Siwalik ranges. They are formed due to tectonic subsidence and subsequent sediment deposition along the Himalayan foothills. These valleys are elongated and longitudinal in orientation. Well-known examples include Dehradun, Kotli Dun and Patli Dun.Pair II – Incorrect:
Karewas are lacustrine deposits found in the Kashmir Valley, formed from sediments deposited in an ancient lake that once occupied the valley during the Pleistocene period. They consist mainly of clays, silts and sands and form elevated table-land like terraces. Karewas are agriculturally important and are particularly known for saffron cultivation near Pampore. They are not fluvio-glacial terraces associated with the Indus valley.Pair III – Correct:
Patlands refer to flat-topped upland surfaces of the Chotanagpur Plateau, especially in Jharkhand. These surfaces represent old erosion surfaces formed due to prolonged denudation, and they are often covered with lateritic soils. Patlands represent remnants of the ancient plateau surface preserved at higher elevations.Pair IV – Correct:
An intermontane basin is a basin or depression located between mountain ranges. Such basins typically form due to tectonic movements such as faulting or folding, and they may accumulate thick sedimentary deposits over time. These basins are characteristic of mountain systems formed through active tectonic processes.Therefore, three pairs are correctly matched.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Pair I – Correct:
Duns are structural valleys situated between the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal Himalaya) and the Siwalik ranges. They are formed due to tectonic subsidence and subsequent sediment deposition along the Himalayan foothills. These valleys are elongated and longitudinal in orientation. Well-known examples include Dehradun, Kotli Dun and Patli Dun.Pair II – Incorrect:
Karewas are lacustrine deposits found in the Kashmir Valley, formed from sediments deposited in an ancient lake that once occupied the valley during the Pleistocene period. They consist mainly of clays, silts and sands and form elevated table-land like terraces. Karewas are agriculturally important and are particularly known for saffron cultivation near Pampore. They are not fluvio-glacial terraces associated with the Indus valley.Pair III – Correct:
Patlands refer to flat-topped upland surfaces of the Chotanagpur Plateau, especially in Jharkhand. These surfaces represent old erosion surfaces formed due to prolonged denudation, and they are often covered with lateritic soils. Patlands represent remnants of the ancient plateau surface preserved at higher elevations.Pair IV – Correct:
An intermontane basin is a basin or depression located between mountain ranges. Such basins typically form due to tectonic movements such as faulting or folding, and they may accumulate thick sedimentary deposits over time. These basins are characteristic of mountain systems formed through active tectonic processes.Therefore, three pairs are correctly matched.
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Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Coastal Plains of India:
- They are broader than the Western Coastal Plains mainly due to delta formation by major east-flowing rivers.
- Chilika Lake on the Odisha coast is the largest saltwater lake in India and formed due to marine transgression.
- The Eastern Coast is largely submergent and therefore has many natural deep-water harbors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Statement I – Correct:
The Eastern Coastal Plains are wider than the Western Coastal Plains. Major east-flowing rivers such as the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery carry large sediment loads. Continuous delta formation and alluvial deposition along the Bay of Bengal have broadened the coastal plains.Statement II – Incorrect:
Chilika Lake on the Odisha coast is the largest brackish water lagoon in India, not a saltwater lake. It formed due to deposition of sandbars that separated part of the Bay of Bengal from the mainland, creating a shallow lagoon system.Statement III – Incorrect:
The Eastern Coast is mainly an emergent coast. Large rivers deposit huge quantities of silt and sediments, forming deltas and shallow coastal waters. Because of this heavy siltation, natural deep-water harbors are rare. In contrast, the Western Coast is more submergent, allowing natural harbors such as Mumbai and Kochi to develop.Therefore, only Statement I is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Statement I – Correct:
The Eastern Coastal Plains are wider than the Western Coastal Plains. Major east-flowing rivers such as the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery carry large sediment loads. Continuous delta formation and alluvial deposition along the Bay of Bengal have broadened the coastal plains.Statement II – Incorrect:
Chilika Lake on the Odisha coast is the largest brackish water lagoon in India, not a saltwater lake. It formed due to deposition of sandbars that separated part of the Bay of Bengal from the mainland, creating a shallow lagoon system.Statement III – Incorrect:
The Eastern Coast is mainly an emergent coast. Large rivers deposit huge quantities of silt and sediments, forming deltas and shallow coastal waters. Because of this heavy siltation, natural deep-water harbors are rare. In contrast, the Western Coast is more submergent, allowing natural harbors such as Mumbai and Kochi to develop.Therefore, only Statement I is correct.
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Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian soils:
I. Black soils have high moisture retention capacity due to the presence of montmorillonite clay minerals.
II. Laterite soils are formed primarily due to intense leaching under conditions of high rainfall and temperature.
III. Alluvial soils of the Indo-Gangetic plains are generally rich in nitrogen and humus.How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Statement I is correct: Black soils contain montmorillonite clay minerals, which have strong swelling and shrinking properties. These clay minerals enable the soil to retain moisture for long periods, making black soils suitable for crops like cotton.
Statement II is correct: Laterite soils develop under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall. Intense leaching removes silica and soluble bases, while iron and aluminium oxides accumulate, giving the soil its characteristic reddish colour.
Statement III is incorrect: Alluvial soils are generally deficient in nitrogen and humus, though they are relatively rich in potash and lime. Their fertility is maintained mainly through periodic deposition of fresh sediments by rivers, rather than inherent nutrient richness.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Statement I is correct: Black soils contain montmorillonite clay minerals, which have strong swelling and shrinking properties. These clay minerals enable the soil to retain moisture for long periods, making black soils suitable for crops like cotton.
Statement II is correct: Laterite soils develop under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall. Intense leaching removes silica and soluble bases, while iron and aluminium oxides accumulate, giving the soil its characteristic reddish colour.
Statement III is incorrect: Alluvial soils are generally deficient in nitrogen and humus, though they are relatively rich in potash and lime. Their fertility is maintained mainly through periodic deposition of fresh sediments by rivers, rather than inherent nutrient richness.
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Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Western Disturbances:
Statement I: Western Disturbances originate in the Mediterranean region and travel eastward towards the Indian subcontinent.
Statement II: They are embedded within the subtropical westerly jet stream and bring winter rainfall to north-western India.
Statement III: Western Disturbances primarily influence the northeast monsoon over peninsular India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Statement I is correct: Western Disturbances are mid-latitude (extratropical) cyclonic systems that originate in the Mediterranean–West Asian region. They move eastward towards the Indian subcontinent under the influence of prevailing westerly winds.
Statement II is correct and explains Statement I: These systems are embedded in the subtropical westerly jet stream, which carries them eastward. As they reach the Indian region during winter, they cause rainfall over north-western plains and snowfall in the western Himalayas, influencing states such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir.
Statement III is incorrect: Western Disturbances mainly affect north-western India during winter. The northeast monsoon rainfall over peninsular India is primarily associated with tropical cyclones and depressions forming over the Bay of Bengal, rather than with Western Disturbances.
Therefore, only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Statement I is correct: Western Disturbances are mid-latitude (extratropical) cyclonic systems that originate in the Mediterranean–West Asian region. They move eastward towards the Indian subcontinent under the influence of prevailing westerly winds.
Statement II is correct and explains Statement I: These systems are embedded in the subtropical westerly jet stream, which carries them eastward. As they reach the Indian region during winter, they cause rainfall over north-western plains and snowfall in the western Himalayas, influencing states such as Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir.
Statement III is incorrect: Western Disturbances mainly affect north-western India during winter. The northeast monsoon rainfall over peninsular India is primarily associated with tropical cyclones and depressions forming over the Bay of Bengal, rather than with Western Disturbances.
Therefore, only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I.
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Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following rivers:
I. Ken
II. Tons
III. Banas
IV. Sharda
V. Subarnarekha
VI. VamsadharaWhich of the above are tributaries of the Ganga River system?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Ken – Correct
Ken is a right-bank tributary of the Yamuna River. Since the Yamuna is the largest tributary of the Ganga, the Ken ultimately forms part of the Ganga River system. It originates near Ahirgawan in Madhya Pradesh and joins the Yamuna near Chilla (UP).Tons – Correct
The Tons River originates from the Garhwal Himalayas (Uttarakhand) and joins the Yamuna near Dehradun/Kalsi region. As a tributary of the Yamuna, it is also part of the Ganga river basin.Banas – Correct
The Banas River rises in the Aravalli Range (Rajasthan) and flows into the Chambal River. The Chambal is a major tributary of the Yamuna, which ultimately drains into the Ganga, making Banas part of the Ganga river system.Sharda – Correct
The Sharda (Mahakali) River originates in the Himalayas near the India–Nepal border and later joins the Ghaghara River, which is a major left-bank tributary of the Ganga.Subarnarekha – Incorrect
The Subarnarekha River originates near Ranchi Plateau (Jharkhand) and drains directly into the Bay of Bengal near Odisha, forming an independent east-flowing river system, not part of the Ganga basin.Vamsadhara – Incorrect
The Vamsadhara River rises in the Eastern Ghats (Odisha) and flows through Odisha and Andhra Pradesh before draining directly into the Bay of Bengal, independent of the Ganga system.Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Ken – Correct
Ken is a right-bank tributary of the Yamuna River. Since the Yamuna is the largest tributary of the Ganga, the Ken ultimately forms part of the Ganga River system. It originates near Ahirgawan in Madhya Pradesh and joins the Yamuna near Chilla (UP).Tons – Correct
The Tons River originates from the Garhwal Himalayas (Uttarakhand) and joins the Yamuna near Dehradun/Kalsi region. As a tributary of the Yamuna, it is also part of the Ganga river basin.Banas – Correct
The Banas River rises in the Aravalli Range (Rajasthan) and flows into the Chambal River. The Chambal is a major tributary of the Yamuna, which ultimately drains into the Ganga, making Banas part of the Ganga river system.Sharda – Correct
The Sharda (Mahakali) River originates in the Himalayas near the India–Nepal border and later joins the Ghaghara River, which is a major left-bank tributary of the Ganga.Subarnarekha – Incorrect
The Subarnarekha River originates near Ranchi Plateau (Jharkhand) and drains directly into the Bay of Bengal near Odisha, forming an independent east-flowing river system, not part of the Ganga basin.Vamsadhara – Incorrect
The Vamsadhara River rises in the Eastern Ghats (Odisha) and flows through Odisha and Andhra Pradesh before draining directly into the Bay of Bengal, independent of the Ganga system. -
Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to National Waterways (NW), consider the following statements:
I. NW-1, connecting Prayagraj to Haldia, is the longest functional waterway in India and passes through four states.
II. NW-2 on the Brahmaputra River extends from Dhubri to Pasighat in Arunachal Pradesh.
III. NW-3 forms a continuous inland navigation corridor from Mangaluru to Kanyakumari along the west coast.Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Statement I is correct: National Waterway-1 (NW-1) runs along the Ganga–Bhagirathi–Hooghly river system from Prayagraj to Haldia, covering about 1620 km. It passes through Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, making it the longest operational national waterway in India and an important inland transport corridor in the Ganga basin.
Statement II is incorrect: National Waterway-2 (NW-2) is located on the Brahmaputra river and extends from Dhubri to Sadiya in Assam. It does not extend up to Pasighat in Arunachal Pradesh, as mentioned in the statement.
Statement III is incorrect: National Waterway-3 (NW-3) lies entirely in Kerala. It consists of the West Coast Canal along with the Champakara and Udyogmandal canals, connecting Kollam and Kottapuram through the Kerala backwaters. It does not form a navigation corridor from Mangaluru to Kanyakumari.
Therefore, only Statement I is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Statement I is correct: National Waterway-1 (NW-1) runs along the Ganga–Bhagirathi–Hooghly river system from Prayagraj to Haldia, covering about 1620 km. It passes through Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, making it the longest operational national waterway in India and an important inland transport corridor in the Ganga basin.
Statement II is incorrect: National Waterway-2 (NW-2) is located on the Brahmaputra river and extends from Dhubri to Sadiya in Assam. It does not extend up to Pasighat in Arunachal Pradesh, as mentioned in the statement.
Statement III is incorrect: National Waterway-3 (NW-3) lies entirely in Kerala. It consists of the West Coast Canal along with the Champakara and Udyogmandal canals, connecting Kollam and Kottapuram through the Kerala backwaters. It does not form a navigation corridor from Mangaluru to Kanyakumari.
Therefore, only Statement I is correct.
-
Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsUnder the Environment Protection (Management of Contaminated Sites) Rules, 2025, consider the following provisions:
I. District authorities must submit periodic reports identifying suspected contaminated sites.
II. State Pollution Control Boards must conduct a preliminary assessment within a specified time frame.
III. A national inventory of contaminated sites must be created and maintained.How many of the above provisions are part of the Rules?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
I is correct: The rules require district authorities to submit biannual reports identifying suspected contaminated sites. This helps establish a systematic monitoring framework for early identification.
II is correct: Once a site is reported, the State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) or designated authority must conduct a preliminary assessment within 90 days to determine the level and nature of contamination.
III is correct: The rules mandate the creation of a national inventory of contaminated sites, which will track the status of identification, assessment, and remediation across the country.
This inventory improves transparency and helps guide policy decisions related to environmental risk management.
Thus, all three provisions are included in the Rules.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
I is correct: The rules require district authorities to submit biannual reports identifying suspected contaminated sites. This helps establish a systematic monitoring framework for early identification.
II is correct: Once a site is reported, the State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) or designated authority must conduct a preliminary assessment within 90 days to determine the level and nature of contamination.
III is correct: The rules mandate the creation of a national inventory of contaminated sites, which will track the status of identification, assessment, and remediation across the country.
This inventory improves transparency and helps guide policy decisions related to environmental risk management.
Thus, all three provisions are included in the Rules.
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Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Biostimulants used in agriculture, which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Biostimulants are substances or microorganisms applied to plants or soil to stimulate natural plant processes. They improve nutrient uptake, growth, yield, and tolerance to environmental stresses such as drought or salinity.
They do not act as fertilisers, because they do not primarily supply essential nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus or potassium. They also do not control pests or diseases, which distinguishes them from pesticides.
Most biostimulants are derived from natural sources such as seaweed extracts, plant residues, amino acids, or beneficial microorganisms.
In India, bio stimulants are regulated under the Fertiliser Control Order (FCO), 1985, following an amendment introduced in 2021, which requires toxicity tests, eco-safety studies and bio-efficacy trials before approval.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Biostimulants are substances or microorganisms applied to plants or soil to stimulate natural plant processes. They improve nutrient uptake, growth, yield, and tolerance to environmental stresses such as drought or salinity.
They do not act as fertilisers, because they do not primarily supply essential nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus or potassium. They also do not control pests or diseases, which distinguishes them from pesticides.
Most biostimulants are derived from natural sources such as seaweed extracts, plant residues, amino acids, or beneficial microorganisms.
In India, bio stimulants are regulated under the Fertiliser Control Order (FCO), 1985, following an amendment introduced in 2021, which requires toxicity tests, eco-safety studies and bio-efficacy trials before approval.
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Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsThe ratio of the present ages of A and B is 5 : 7. Five years ago, the ratio of their ages was 2 : 3. What is the present age of B?
Correct
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Let the present ages be:
A = 5x
B = 7xFive years ago:
A = 5x − 5
B = 7x − 5According to the question:
(5x − 5) / (7x − 5) = 2 / 3
Cross multiplying:
3(5x − 5) = 2(7x − 5)
15x − 15 = 14x − 10
15x − 14x = 15 − 10
x = 5
Present age of B:
7x = 7 × 5 = 35
Incorrect
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Let the present ages be:
A = 5x
B = 7xFive years ago:
A = 5x − 5
B = 7x − 5According to the question:
(5x − 5) / (7x − 5) = 2 / 3
Cross multiplying:
3(5x − 5) = 2(7x − 5)
15x − 15 = 14x − 10
15x − 14x = 15 − 10
x = 5
Present age of B:
7x = 7 × 5 = 35
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Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsThe incomes of A, B and C are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5, while their expenditures are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. If each of them saves ₹2,000, what is the income of C?
Correct
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Let the incomes be:
A = 3x
B = 4x
C = 5xLet the expenditures be:
A = 2y
B = 3y
C = 4ySavings = Income − Expenditure
For A:
3x − 2y = 2000
For B:
4x − 3y = 2000
Subtracting the first equation from the second:
(4x − 3y) − (3x − 2y) = 0
x − y = 0
x = y
Substitute in the first equation:
3x − 2x = 2000
x = 2000
Income of C:
5x = 5 × 2000 = ₹10,000
Incorrect
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Let the incomes be:
A = 3x
B = 4x
C = 5xLet the expenditures be:
A = 2y
B = 3y
C = 4ySavings = Income − Expenditure
For A:
3x − 2y = 2000
For B:
4x − 3y = 2000
Subtracting the first equation from the second:
(4x − 3y) − (3x − 2y) = 0
x − y = 0
x = y
Substitute in the first equation:
3x − 2x = 2000
x = 2000
Income of C:
5x = 5 × 2000 = ₹10,000
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Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsA container has 40 litres of milk. From it, 10 litres of the mixture is removed and replaced with water. This process is repeated two more times. How much milk remains in the container?
Correct
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Initial quantity = 40 L
Quantity removed each time = 10 LRemaining fraction after each operation:
(40 − 10) / 40 = 30 / 40 = 3 / 4
Number of operations = 3
Milk remaining:
40 × (3/4) × (3/4) × (3/4)
= 40 × 27 / 64
= 1080 / 64
= 16.875 litres
Incorrect
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Initial quantity = 40 L
Quantity removed each time = 10 LRemaining fraction after each operation:
(40 − 10) / 40 = 30 / 40 = 3 / 4
Number of operations = 3
Milk remaining:
40 × (3/4) × (3/4) × (3/4)
= 40 × 27 / 64
= 1080 / 64
= 16.875 litres
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Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsA grocer mixes two varieties of rice costing ₹40 per kg and ₹60 per kg. In what ratio must they be mixed so that the mixture costs ₹48 per kg?
Correct
Answer: (B)
Solution:
Cost of cheaper rice = 40
Cost of dearer rice = 60
Mean price = 48Difference between dearer price and mean price:
60 − 48 = 12
Difference between mean price and cheaper price:
48 − 40 = 8
Ratio of cheaper to dearer rice:
12 : 8
Simplified ratio:
3 : 2
Incorrect
Answer: (B)
Solution:
Cost of cheaper rice = 40
Cost of dearer rice = 60
Mean price = 48Difference between dearer price and mean price:
60 − 48 = 12
Difference between mean price and cheaper price:
48 − 40 = 8
Ratio of cheaper to dearer rice:
12 : 8
Simplified ratio:
3 : 2
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Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsRead the following passage and answer the question that follows.
Passage
In democratic societies, dissent is often misunderstood as a threat to national unity. However, the strength of a democracy lies not in the absence of disagreement but in its capacity to accommodate diverse viewpoints. Constructive criticism encourages governments to re-examine policies and correct mistakes. When dissent is suppressed, societies risk stagnation because innovation and reform often emerge from questioning existing systems. Therefore, rather than weakening democracy, responsible dissent can deepen democratic values.
Question
Which one of the following best expresses the central idea of the passage?
Correct
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The passage emphasizes that dissent plays a crucial role in strengthening democratic systems. It explains that democracy does not rely on the absence of disagreement but on the ability to accommodate diverse viewpoints. Constructive criticism allows governments to review policies, identify mistakes, and implement necessary reforms. Suppressing dissent can hinder progress because innovation and societal improvement often emerge from questioning established ideas and practices.
Therefore, dissent should not be viewed as a threat to national unity but as an essential mechanism that promotes accountability, reform, and democratic growth. Among the given options, only option (C) accurately captures this central idea.
Incorrect
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
The passage emphasizes that dissent plays a crucial role in strengthening democratic systems. It explains that democracy does not rely on the absence of disagreement but on the ability to accommodate diverse viewpoints. Constructive criticism allows governments to review policies, identify mistakes, and implement necessary reforms. Suppressing dissent can hinder progress because innovation and societal improvement often emerge from questioning established ideas and practices.
Therefore, dissent should not be viewed as a threat to national unity but as an essential mechanism that promotes accountability, reform, and democratic growth. Among the given options, only option (C) accurately captures this central idea.
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