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Question 1 of 15
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the internal structure of the Earth, consider the following statements:
I. The Mohorovičić discontinuity marks the boundary between the mantle and the outer core.
II. The asthenosphere lies below the lithosphere and behaves as a mechanically weak and ductile layer.
III. The Gutenberg discontinuity represents the boundary between the mantle and the outer core.
IV. The inner core of the Earth is predominantly composed of solid iron–nickel due to extremely high pressure.How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (c) Only three
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect: The Mohorovičić Discontinuity (Moho) represents the boundary between the Earth’s crust and the mantle, typically located at a depth of about 5–10 km beneath oceans and 30–70 km beneath continents. It does not mark the boundary between the mantle and the outer core.
Statement II is correct: The Asthenosphere lies just below the lithosphere within the upper mantle. It is a relatively weak, ductile, and partially molten layer, allowing the rigid tectonic plates of the lithosphere to move over it. This mechanical behaviour makes it crucial for plate tectonics and mantle convection.
Statement III is correct: The Gutenberg Discontinuity marks the boundary between the solid mantle and the liquid outer core, located at a depth of roughly 2900 km. Across this boundary, there is a sharp change in material composition and density, indicating the transition from silicate mantle rocks to a metallic iron–nickel outer core.
Statement IV is correct: The Inner Core forms the central part of the Earth and is composed mainly of iron and nickel. Despite extremely high temperatures (around 5000–6000°C), it remains solid due to immense pressure at the Earth’s centre.
Incorrect
Answer: (c) Only three
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect: The Mohorovičić Discontinuity (Moho) represents the boundary between the Earth’s crust and the mantle, typically located at a depth of about 5–10 km beneath oceans and 30–70 km beneath continents. It does not mark the boundary between the mantle and the outer core.
Statement II is correct: The Asthenosphere lies just below the lithosphere within the upper mantle. It is a relatively weak, ductile, and partially molten layer, allowing the rigid tectonic plates of the lithosphere to move over it. This mechanical behaviour makes it crucial for plate tectonics and mantle convection.
Statement III is correct: The Gutenberg Discontinuity marks the boundary between the solid mantle and the liquid outer core, located at a depth of roughly 2900 km. Across this boundary, there is a sharp change in material composition and density, indicating the transition from silicate mantle rocks to a metallic iron–nickel outer core.
Statement IV is correct: The Inner Core forms the central part of the Earth and is composed mainly of iron and nickel. Despite extremely high temperatures (around 5000–6000°C), it remains solid due to immense pressure at the Earth’s centre.
-
Question 2 of 15
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Plate Tectonics theory, consider the following statements:
I. Lithospheric plates include both continental and oceanic crust.
II. Transform plate boundaries are associated with the creation of new oceanic crust.
III. Subduction zones are typically associated with deep ocean trenches and volcanic arcs.How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I is correct:
The lithosphere is the rigid outer layer of the Earth consisting of the crust and the uppermost mantle. It is divided into several lithospheric plates that move over the ductile asthenosphere. A single plate may contain both continental crust and oceanic crust, such as the Eurasian Plate or Indo-Australian Plate, while some plates may consist largely of oceanic crust, like the Pacific Plate.Statement II is incorrect:
Transform plate boundaries occur where two plates slide past each other horizontally along strike-slip faults. At these boundaries, no lithosphere is created or destroyed, and therefore no new oceanic crust forms. The creation of new oceanic crust takes place at divergent boundaries, particularly along mid-oceanic ridges, through the process of seafloor spreading. A classic example of a transform boundary is the San Andreas Fault in California.Statement III is correct:
Subduction zones form at convergent plate boundaries where a denser oceanic plate sinks beneath another plate (either oceanic or continental). This process produces several characteristic landforms, including deep-sea trenches (such as the Mariana Trench) and volcanic arcs (for example, the Andes volcanic arc or Japan island arc). The subducting plate undergoes partial melting, generating magma that rises to the surface and forms volcanic chains.Thus, two statements are correct.
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Statement I is correct:
The lithosphere is the rigid outer layer of the Earth consisting of the crust and the uppermost mantle. It is divided into several lithospheric plates that move over the ductile asthenosphere. A single plate may contain both continental crust and oceanic crust, such as the Eurasian Plate or Indo-Australian Plate, while some plates may consist largely of oceanic crust, like the Pacific Plate.Statement II is incorrect:
Transform plate boundaries occur where two plates slide past each other horizontally along strike-slip faults. At these boundaries, no lithosphere is created or destroyed, and therefore no new oceanic crust forms. The creation of new oceanic crust takes place at divergent boundaries, particularly along mid-oceanic ridges, through the process of seafloor spreading. A classic example of a transform boundary is the San Andreas Fault in California.Statement III is correct:
Subduction zones form at convergent plate boundaries where a denser oceanic plate sinks beneath another plate (either oceanic or continental). This process produces several characteristic landforms, including deep-sea trenches (such as the Mariana Trench) and volcanic arcs (for example, the Andes volcanic arc or Japan island arc). The subducting plate undergoes partial melting, generating magma that rises to the surface and forms volcanic chains.Thus, two statements are correct.
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Question 3 of 15
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to coastal geomorphology, consider the following statements:
I. Wave refraction concentrates erosional energy in bays while promoting deposition on headlands.
II. Spits and bars are primarily erosional landforms produced by the direct action of waves on coastal cliffs.
III. Sea arches are formed when sea stacks are uplifted due to tectonic activity along the coastline.How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect:
Wave refraction causes incoming waves to bend as they approach the coast. This process concentrates wave energy on protruding headlands, resulting in intense erosion, while wave energy is dispersed in bays, encouraging sediment deposition. Hence, erosion occurs mainly on headlands, not in bays.Statement II is incorrect:
Spits and bars are depositional coastal landforms formed by the accumulation of sediments transported by longshore drift. Longshore currents move sand and shingle parallel to the shoreline, gradually depositing them to form elongated features such as spits and offshore bars. They are therefore products of deposition, not erosion.Statement III is incorrect:
Sea arches develop when marine erosion enlarges cracks and caves in coastal headlands through processes such as hydraulic action and abrasion. When erosion cuts through the headland, an arch-shaped opening forms. With continued erosion, the arch eventually collapses, leaving an isolated pillar called a sea stack. Thus, stacks form after arches collapse, not the other way around.Thus, none of the statements are correct.
Incorrect
Answer: (d)
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect:
Wave refraction causes incoming waves to bend as they approach the coast. This process concentrates wave energy on protruding headlands, resulting in intense erosion, while wave energy is dispersed in bays, encouraging sediment deposition. Hence, erosion occurs mainly on headlands, not in bays.Statement II is incorrect:
Spits and bars are depositional coastal landforms formed by the accumulation of sediments transported by longshore drift. Longshore currents move sand and shingle parallel to the shoreline, gradually depositing them to form elongated features such as spits and offshore bars. They are therefore products of deposition, not erosion.Statement III is incorrect:
Sea arches develop when marine erosion enlarges cracks and caves in coastal headlands through processes such as hydraulic action and abrasion. When erosion cuts through the headland, an arch-shaped opening forms. With continued erosion, the arch eventually collapses, leaving an isolated pillar called a sea stack. Thus, stacks form after arches collapse, not the other way around.Thus, none of the statements are correct.
-
Question 4 of 15
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements in respect of seismic surface waves:
I. Love waves produce horizontal ground motion perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation and require a rigid medium for transmission.
II. Rayleigh waves involve retrograde elliptical motion of particles near the Earth’s surface.
III. Love waves generally travel slower than Rayleigh waves along the Earth’s surface.
IV. Rayleigh waves can propagate through the Earth’s liquid outer core because they are surface waves.Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Statement I is correct:
Love waves (LQ waves) are a type of surface seismic wave that cause the ground to move horizontally from side to side, perpendicular to the direction in which the wave travels. This motion involves shear deformation, which requires a rigid medium. Hence, Love waves cannot propagate through fluids such as the liquid outer core.Statement II is correct:
Rayleigh waves (LR waves) generate a rolling motion in which particles move in retrograde elliptical paths in a vertical plane parallel to the direction of propagation. This motion resembles ocean waves, producing both vertical and horizontal displacement near the Earth’s surface and contributing significantly to earthquake damage.Statement III is incorrect:
Among the two main types of surface waves, Love waves generally travel slightly faster than Rayleigh waves. Although both are slower than body waves (P and S waves), the relative speed of Love waves is typically greater than that of Rayleigh waves.Statement IV is incorrect:
Rayleigh waves propagate only along solid surfaces or interfaces between layers of the Earth. Since they depend on the presence of a solid boundary, they cannot travel through liquid layers such as the Earth’s outer core.Thus, only statements I and II are correct.
Incorrect
Answer: (a)
Explanation
Statement I is correct:
Love waves (LQ waves) are a type of surface seismic wave that cause the ground to move horizontally from side to side, perpendicular to the direction in which the wave travels. This motion involves shear deformation, which requires a rigid medium. Hence, Love waves cannot propagate through fluids such as the liquid outer core.Statement II is correct:
Rayleigh waves (LR waves) generate a rolling motion in which particles move in retrograde elliptical paths in a vertical plane parallel to the direction of propagation. This motion resembles ocean waves, producing both vertical and horizontal displacement near the Earth’s surface and contributing significantly to earthquake damage.Statement III is incorrect:
Among the two main types of surface waves, Love waves generally travel slightly faster than Rayleigh waves. Although both are slower than body waves (P and S waves), the relative speed of Love waves is typically greater than that of Rayleigh waves.Statement IV is incorrect:
Rayleigh waves propagate only along solid surfaces or interfaces between layers of the Earth. Since they depend on the presence of a solid boundary, they cannot travel through liquid layers such as the Earth’s outer core.Thus, only statements I and II are correct.
-
Question 5 of 15
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to volcanic activity, consider the following statements:
I. Basaltic lava generally produces steep-sided composite volcanoes.
II. Andesitic lava is typically associated with quiet and effusive volcanic eruptions.
III. Volcanic hotspots occur exclusively along plate boundaries.How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect:
Basaltic lava has low viscosity and high fluidity, allowing it to spread widely before solidifying. This typically forms broad, gently sloping shield volcanoes, not steep composite volcanoes, which are usually associated with more viscous lava types.Statement II is incorrect:
Andesitic lava has moderate to high viscosity and often contains significant dissolved gases. These characteristics favour explosive volcanic eruptions, commonly producing stratovolcanoes. Quiet and effusive eruptions are more typical of basaltic lava flows.Statement III is incorrect:
Volcanic hotspots are generally linked to mantle plumes rising from deep within the Earth and frequently occur within tectonic plates rather than at plate boundaries. Examples include the Hawaiian hotspot in the Pacific Plate and the Yellowstone hotspot in North America.Thus, all three statements are incorrect.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect:
Basaltic lava has low viscosity and high fluidity, allowing it to spread widely before solidifying. This typically forms broad, gently sloping shield volcanoes, not steep composite volcanoes, which are usually associated with more viscous lava types.Statement II is incorrect:
Andesitic lava has moderate to high viscosity and often contains significant dissolved gases. These characteristics favour explosive volcanic eruptions, commonly producing stratovolcanoes. Quiet and effusive eruptions are more typical of basaltic lava flows.Statement III is incorrect:
Volcanic hotspots are generally linked to mantle plumes rising from deep within the Earth and frequently occur within tectonic plates rather than at plate boundaries. Examples include the Hawaiian hotspot in the Pacific Plate and the Yellowstone hotspot in North America.Thus, all three statements are incorrect.
-
Question 6 of 15
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ocean salinity, consider the following statements:
I. Regions with the highest evaporation rates are generally located in the equatorial belt and therefore record the highest salinity values in the world oceans.
II. The global mean salinity of ocean water is about 3.5 per cent by weight.
III. Surface salinity in the open oceans increases from the equator toward the poles.Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation
Statement I – Incorrect:
This statement is wrong as it incorrectly locates the highest evaporation belt in the equatorial region. In reality, the equatorial belt receives heavy rainfall and persistent cloudiness, which reduce net evaporation and dilute surface waters. The highest evaporation rates and highest open-ocean salinity are usually found in the subtropical belts around 20°–30° north and south latitude, where descending dry air, clear skies and high temperatures promote strong evaporation. Thus, the equatorial belt does not record the highest salinity values in the world oceans.Statement II – Correct:
The average salinity of ocean water is about 35 parts per thousand (35‰), which is equivalent to 3.5 per cent by weight. This is the accepted global mean value, though actual salinity varies from place to place depending on evaporation, precipitation, river discharge, freezing and melting of ice, and ocean circulation.Statement III – Incorrect:
Surface salinity in the open oceans does not increase continuously from the equator to the poles. The actual pattern is more complex:
At the equator, salinity is relatively lower because of heavy rainfall.
In the subtropical belts, salinity becomes highest due to high evaporation and comparatively low precipitation.
Toward the polar regions, salinity decreases again because of low evaporation, melting ice, and weaker concentration of salts.
The increase is not equator-to-pole in a steady manner; rather, salinity peaks in the subtropics and then declines poleward.Therefore, only Statement II is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: (b) II only
Explanation
Statement I – Incorrect:
This statement is wrong as it incorrectly locates the highest evaporation belt in the equatorial region. In reality, the equatorial belt receives heavy rainfall and persistent cloudiness, which reduce net evaporation and dilute surface waters. The highest evaporation rates and highest open-ocean salinity are usually found in the subtropical belts around 20°–30° north and south latitude, where descending dry air, clear skies and high temperatures promote strong evaporation. Thus, the equatorial belt does not record the highest salinity values in the world oceans.Statement II – Correct:
The average salinity of ocean water is about 35 parts per thousand (35‰), which is equivalent to 3.5 per cent by weight. This is the accepted global mean value, though actual salinity varies from place to place depending on evaporation, precipitation, river discharge, freezing and melting of ice, and ocean circulation.Statement III – Incorrect:
Surface salinity in the open oceans does not increase continuously from the equator to the poles. The actual pattern is more complex:
At the equator, salinity is relatively lower because of heavy rainfall.
In the subtropical belts, salinity becomes highest due to high evaporation and comparatively low precipitation.
Toward the polar regions, salinity decreases again because of low evaporation, melting ice, and weaker concentration of salts.
The increase is not equator-to-pole in a steady manner; rather, salinity peaks in the subtropics and then declines poleward.Therefore, only Statement II is correct.
-
Question 7 of 15
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to tides:
Statement I:
Spring tides occur when the tide-generating forces of the Moon and the Sun act along the same axis relative to the Earth.Statement II:
Such a configuration occurs during the new moon and full moon phases of the lunar cycle.Statement III:
Spring tides occur because the Earth is closest to the Moon during these phases of the lunar cycle.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Statement I is correct:
Spring tides occur when the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun act along the same line relative to the Earth, reinforcing one another. This alignment increases the tide-generating force, resulting in a larger tidal range (higher high tides and lower low tides).Statement II is correct:
This configuration occurs during the new moon and full moon phases, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie nearly in a straight line (syzygy). Because the lunar and solar tidal forces act in the same direction during these phases, spring tides are produced.Statement III is incorrect:
Spring tides are primarily caused by the alignment of the Sun, Moon and Earth, not by the distance between the Earth and the Moon. Although the Earth–Moon distance varies slightly during the lunar orbit (perigee and apogee), this variation mainly influences the magnitude of tides, not the occurrence of spring tides.Thus, only Statements I and II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
Statement I is correct:
Spring tides occur when the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun act along the same line relative to the Earth, reinforcing one another. This alignment increases the tide-generating force, resulting in a larger tidal range (higher high tides and lower low tides).Statement II is correct:
This configuration occurs during the new moon and full moon phases, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie nearly in a straight line (syzygy). Because the lunar and solar tidal forces act in the same direction during these phases, spring tides are produced.Statement III is incorrect:
Spring tides are primarily caused by the alignment of the Sun, Moon and Earth, not by the distance between the Earth and the Moon. Although the Earth–Moon distance varies slightly during the lunar orbit (perigee and apogee), this variation mainly influences the magnitude of tides, not the occurrence of spring tides.Thus, only Statements I and II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
-
Question 8 of 15
8. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following marine resources is most commonly associated with hydrothermal vents along mid-ocean ridges?
Correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Correct Answer – (b) Massive sulphide deposits containing copper and zinc
Hydrothermal vents occur mainly along mid-ocean ridges, which are divergent plate boundaries where magma rises from the mantle. Seawater penetrates deep into the oceanic crust, becomes superheated by underlying magma, and dissolves various metals from surrounding rocks.
When this metal-rich hydrothermal fluid rises back to the seafloor and mixes with cold seawater, the dissolved metals precipitate rapidly, forming seafloor massive sulphide (SMS) deposits. These deposits commonly contain copper, zinc, lead, iron, silver, and gold and often accumulate around structures known as “black smokers.”
Incorrect
Answer: (b)
Explanation
Correct Answer – (b) Massive sulphide deposits containing copper and zinc
Hydrothermal vents occur mainly along mid-ocean ridges, which are divergent plate boundaries where magma rises from the mantle. Seawater penetrates deep into the oceanic crust, becomes superheated by underlying magma, and dissolves various metals from surrounding rocks.
When this metal-rich hydrothermal fluid rises back to the seafloor and mixes with cold seawater, the dissolved metals precipitate rapidly, forming seafloor massive sulphide (SMS) deposits. These deposits commonly contain copper, zinc, lead, iron, silver, and gold and often accumulate around structures known as “black smokers.”
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Question 9 of 15
9. Question
1 pointsThe Guryul Ravine fossil site reported in news is geologically associated with which one of the following mountain systems?
Correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation
The Guryul Ravine fossil site, located near Khonmoh on the outskirts of Srinagar in Jammu & Kashmir, lies within the Himalayan geological province. Geologically, the sediments exposed at the site belong to the Zewan Formation of the Kashmir Basin, which forms part of the Tethyan Himalayan sedimentary sequence.
These rock layers were originally deposited in the ancient Tethys Sea during the Late Permian to Early Triassic period (around 252 million years ago). At that time, the Indian plate was located much farther south, and marine sediments accumulated in shallow seas. During the later collision of the Indian Plate with the Eurasian Plate, these sedimentary rocks were uplifted and incorporated into the Himalayan mountain system.
Thus, although the fossils record ancient marine environments predating the Himalayas, the geological strata in which they occur are now structurally part of the Himalayan orogenic belt, making Himalaya the correct answer.
Incorrect
Answer: (c)
Explanation
The Guryul Ravine fossil site, located near Khonmoh on the outskirts of Srinagar in Jammu & Kashmir, lies within the Himalayan geological province. Geologically, the sediments exposed at the site belong to the Zewan Formation of the Kashmir Basin, which forms part of the Tethyan Himalayan sedimentary sequence.
These rock layers were originally deposited in the ancient Tethys Sea during the Late Permian to Early Triassic period (around 252 million years ago). At that time, the Indian plate was located much farther south, and marine sediments accumulated in shallow seas. During the later collision of the Indian Plate with the Eurasian Plate, these sedimentary rocks were uplifted and incorporated into the Himalayan mountain system.
Thus, although the fossils record ancient marine environments predating the Himalayas, the geological strata in which they occur are now structurally part of the Himalayan orogenic belt, making Himalaya the correct answer.
-
Question 10 of 15
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to roll clouds, consider the following statements:
I. They are detached, horizontal tube-shaped clouds formed by atmospheric gravity waves (undular bores) propagating along a low-level temperature inversion.
II. They are typically attached to cumulonimbus thunderstorm systems.
III. They often form along coastal boundaries influenced by sea-breeze fronts.How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation
Statement I – Correct:
Roll clouds are long, horizontal, tube-shaped clouds that form when a solitary atmospheric wave (undular bore) travels along a stable layer or temperature inversion near the surface. As the wave lifts moist air, condensation occurs along the crest, producing the characteristic rolling cloud structure.Statement II – Incorrect:
Roll clouds are detached clouds and are not attached to cumulonimbus thunderstorm systems. Clouds attached to the leading edge of thunderstorm outflows are known as shelf clouds, which are a different phenomenon.Statement III – Correct:
Roll clouds often form along coastal boundaries influenced by sea-breeze fronts, where advancing cool marine air generates atmospheric waves in the lower atmosphere.Thus, two statements are correct.
Incorrect
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation
Statement I – Correct:
Roll clouds are long, horizontal, tube-shaped clouds that form when a solitary atmospheric wave (undular bore) travels along a stable layer or temperature inversion near the surface. As the wave lifts moist air, condensation occurs along the crest, producing the characteristic rolling cloud structure.Statement II – Incorrect:
Roll clouds are detached clouds and are not attached to cumulonimbus thunderstorm systems. Clouds attached to the leading edge of thunderstorm outflows are known as shelf clouds, which are a different phenomenon.Statement III – Correct:
Roll clouds often form along coastal boundaries influenced by sea-breeze fronts, where advancing cool marine air generates atmospheric waves in the lower atmosphere.Thus, two statements are correct.
-
Question 11 of 15
11. Question
1 pointsTwo cyclists start from the same point and travel in opposite directions at speeds of 12 km/h and 15 km/h. After how much time will they be 54 km apart?
Correct
Solution: B
Explanation:
Since they move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their speeds.
Relative speed
= 12 + 15
= 27 km/hDistance between them = 54 km
Time = Distance ÷ Relative speed
= 54 ÷ 27
= 2 hoursIncorrect
Solution: B
Explanation:
Since they move in opposite directions, their relative speed is the sum of their speeds.
Relative speed
= 12 + 15
= 27 km/hDistance between them = 54 km
Time = Distance ÷ Relative speed
= 54 ÷ 27
= 2 hours -
Question 12 of 15
12. Question
1 pointsA person travels 120 km by car. For the first 60 km, he drives at 40 km/h, and for the remaining 60 km, he drives at 60 km/h. What is the average speed for the entire journey?
Correct
Solution: A
Explanation:
Time for first part
Time₁ = Distance / Speed
= 60 / 40
= 1.5 hoursTime for second part
Time₂ = 60 / 60
= 1 hourTotal distance = 120 km
Total time
= 1.5 + 1
= 2.5 hoursAverage speed
Average speed = Total distance / Total time
= 120 / 2.5
= 48 km/h
Incorrect
Solution: A
Explanation:
Time for first part
Time₁ = Distance / Speed
= 60 / 40
= 1.5 hoursTime for second part
Time₂ = 60 / 60
= 1 hourTotal distance = 120 km
Total time
= 1.5 + 1
= 2.5 hoursAverage speed
Average speed = Total distance / Total time
= 120 / 2.5
= 48 km/h
-
Question 13 of 15
13. Question
1 pointsThe speed of a boat in still water is 10 km/h and the speed of the stream is 2 km/h. What is the time required to travel 48 km downstream?
Correct
Solution: B
Explanation:
Downstream speed
= Boat speed + Stream speed
= 10 + 2
= 12 km/h
Time = Distance / Speed
= 48 / 12
= 4 hours
Incorrect
Solution: B
Explanation:
Downstream speed
= Boat speed + Stream speed
= 10 + 2
= 12 km/h
Time = Distance / Speed
= 48 / 12
= 4 hours
-
Question 14 of 15
14. Question
1 pointsA boat takes 6 hours to go upstream and 4 hours to come downstream for the same distance. What is the ratio of speed of the boat in still water to the speed of the stream?
Correct
Solution: B
Explanation:
Let the distance be D.
Upstream speed
= D / 6
Downstream speed
= D / 4
Boat speed in still water
Boat speed = (Downstream speed + Upstream speed) / 2
= (D/4 + D/6) / 2
= (3D/12 + 2D/12) / 2
= (5D/12) / 2
= 5D/24
Stream speed
Stream speed = (Downstream speed − Upstream speed) / 2
= (D/4 − D/6) / 2
= (3D/12 − 2D/12) / 2
= (D/12) / 2
= D/24
Ratio
Boat: Stream
= (5D/24): (D/24)
= 5: 1
Incorrect
Solution: B
Explanation:
Let the distance be D.
Upstream speed
= D / 6
Downstream speed
= D / 4
Boat speed in still water
Boat speed = (Downstream speed + Upstream speed) / 2
= (D/4 + D/6) / 2
= (3D/12 + 2D/12) / 2
= (5D/12) / 2
= 5D/24
Stream speed
Stream speed = (Downstream speed − Upstream speed) / 2
= (D/4 − D/6) / 2
= (3D/12 − 2D/12) / 2
= (D/12) / 2
= D/24
Ratio
Boat: Stream
= (5D/24): (D/24)
= 5: 1
-
Question 15 of 15
15. Question
1 pointsRead the following passage and answer the question that follows.
Passage
Economic growth is often seen as the primary indicator of a nation’s progress. However, growth by itself does not automatically lead to improvements in the quality of life of all citizens. If the benefits of economic expansion are concentrated in the hands of a few, large sections of the population may continue to face poverty, unemployment, and poor living conditions. Sustainable development therefore requires not only economic growth but also fair distribution of resources and equal access to essential services such as education, healthcare, and social security. Only when growth is inclusive and supported by strong public institutions can it lead to broad-based human development.
Question: Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage?
Correct
Solution: B
Explanation
The passage explores the relationship between economic growth (the increase in production/income) and human development (quality of life).
The author acknowledges growth as an indicator of progress but immediately introduces a “but.” The core argument is that growth is insufficient on its own. It requires “inclusive” mechanisms and “strong public institutions” to translate into “broad-based human development.” This implies that growth is the tool (the means) used to achieve the goal (the end) of improved human life.
Option (b) perfectly captures this nuance. It suggests that growth is not the final objective but a vehicle to reach the objective of human well-being.
-
- Option (a) is a “reversal” fallacy. The passage says growth doesn’t guarantee distribution; it doesn’t state that high growth is a prerequisite for starting distribution.
- Option (c) is too extreme. The passage says growth must be supported by institutions, but it does not claim one is “more important” than the other; they are presented as complementary.
- Option (d) is factually incorrect based on the text. The passage suggests expansion can happen even if benefits are concentrated (implying growth can occur without these services, though it won’t be “inclusive”).
Incorrect
Solution: B
Explanation
The passage explores the relationship between economic growth (the increase in production/income) and human development (quality of life).
The author acknowledges growth as an indicator of progress but immediately introduces a “but.” The core argument is that growth is insufficient on its own. It requires “inclusive” mechanisms and “strong public institutions” to translate into “broad-based human development.” This implies that growth is the tool (the means) used to achieve the goal (the end) of improved human life.
Option (b) perfectly captures this nuance. It suggests that growth is not the final objective but a vehicle to reach the objective of human well-being.
-
- Option (a) is a “reversal” fallacy. The passage says growth doesn’t guarantee distribution; it doesn’t state that high growth is a prerequisite for starting distribution.
- Option (c) is too extreme. The passage says growth must be supported by institutions, but it does not claim one is “more important” than the other; they are presented as complementary.
- Option (d) is factually incorrect based on the text. The passage suggests expansion can happen even if benefits are concentrated (implying growth can occur without these services, though it won’t be “inclusive”).
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