The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Desalination Plants:
- Reverse Osmosis (RO) technology utilizes high pressure to push seawater through semi-permeable membranes.
- Desalination plants are predominantly located in regions with high annual precipitation to supplement groundwater.
- Brine discharge, a byproduct of desalination, is typically treated and converted into solid salt before being released into the ocean.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Desalination is a critical technology for water-scarce regions.
- Statement 1 is correct as Reverse Osmosis (RO) is the most common technology, using semi-permeable membranes to separate dissolved salts from water under high pressure.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because these plants are primarily concentrated in arid and water-scarce coastal regions, such as West Asia and North Africa, not regions with high precipitation. Their primary aim is to provide water security where natural freshwater is absent.
Statement 3 is incorrect because, while brine is a byproduct, it is typically released directly back into the ocean as concentrated saltwater, rather than being converted into solid salt. This process is energy-intensive and often co-located with power plants to share energy resources. West Asia accounts for nearly 70% of global capacity, highlighting the strategic importance of these facilities in desert climates.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Desalination is a critical technology for water-scarce regions.
- Statement 1 is correct as Reverse Osmosis (RO) is the most common technology, using semi-permeable membranes to separate dissolved salts from water under high pressure.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because these plants are primarily concentrated in arid and water-scarce coastal regions, such as West Asia and North Africa, not regions with high precipitation. Their primary aim is to provide water security where natural freshwater is absent.
Statement 3 is incorrect because, while brine is a byproduct, it is typically released directly back into the ocean as concentrated saltwater, rather than being converted into solid salt. This process is energy-intensive and often co-located with power plants to share energy resources. West Asia accounts for nearly 70% of global capacity, highlighting the strategic importance of these facilities in desert climates.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India cannot be removed from office except in a manner similar to a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Statement-II: The Constitution of India grants the CEC security of tenure to ensure the independence of the Election Commission from executive interference.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement-I is correct and is rooted in Article 324(5) of the Constitution. It stipulates that the CEC can only be removed on the grounds of “proved misbehavior or incapacity” through a rigorous parliamentary process involving a special majority. This mirrors the removal process of a Supreme Court Judge.
- Statement-II is also correct and provides the underlying rationale for Statement-I. The framers of the Constitution intended the Election Commission to be a bedrock of democracy, free from the whims of the ruling executive. By providing security of tenure that requires a quasi-judicial investigation and a difficult legislative vote, the Constitution ensures that the CEC can make impartial decisions regarding elections.
- Thus, Statement-II directly explains why the stringent removal procedure in Statement-I exists.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement-I is correct and is rooted in Article 324(5) of the Constitution. It stipulates that the CEC can only be removed on the grounds of “proved misbehavior or incapacity” through a rigorous parliamentary process involving a special majority. This mirrors the removal process of a Supreme Court Judge.
- Statement-II is also correct and provides the underlying rationale for Statement-I. The framers of the Constitution intended the Election Commission to be a bedrock of democracy, free from the whims of the ruling executive. By providing security of tenure that requires a quasi-judicial investigation and a difficult legislative vote, the Constitution ensures that the CEC can make impartial decisions regarding elections.
- Thus, Statement-II directly explains why the stringent removal procedure in Statement-I exists.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Proba-3 mission, consider the following statements:
- It is a precision formation-flying mission launched by the European Space Agency.
- The mission uses a single satellite equipped with an internal coronagraph to study the Sun’s atmosphere.
- It aims to create an artificial solar eclipse to observe the solar corona.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct as Proba-3 is the world’s first precision formation-flying mission by the ESA, launched aboard ISRO’s PSLV-C59.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because it is a twin spacecraft system. It consists of two independent satellites—the Coronagraph and the Occulter—not a single satellite. These two must maintain a precise distance of 150 meters to function as a virtual instrument.
Statement 3 is correct because the primary objective is to create an artificial solar eclipse. The Occulter blocks the Sun’s disk, casting a shadow on the Coronagraph, allowing for the observation of the faint outer atmosphere (the corona). This setup allows for continuous data collection, which is impossible during natural eclipses on Earth. Studying the corona is vital for understanding solar winds and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) that can affect Earth’s power grids.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is correct as Proba-3 is the world’s first precision formation-flying mission by the ESA, launched aboard ISRO’s PSLV-C59.
- Statement 2 is incorrect because it is a twin spacecraft system. It consists of two independent satellites—the Coronagraph and the Occulter—not a single satellite. These two must maintain a precise distance of 150 meters to function as a virtual instrument.
Statement 3 is correct because the primary objective is to create an artificial solar eclipse. The Occulter blocks the Sun’s disk, casting a shadow on the Coronagraph, allowing for the observation of the faint outer atmosphere (the corona). This setup allows for continuous data collection, which is impossible during natural eclipses on Earth. Studying the corona is vital for understanding solar winds and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) that can affect Earth’s power grids.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following geographical features are associated with Malawi?
- East African Rift Valley
- Lake Nyasa
- Shire River
- Mulanje Mountain Massif
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
- Malawi is a landlocked country in southeastern Africa with diverse geographical features.
- Statement 1 is correct as it lies along the East African Rift Valley, which defines its topography.
- Statement 2 is correct; Lake Malawi is also known as Lake Nyasa and covers a significant portion of the country’s eastern boundary.
- Statement 3 is correct because the Shire River is the sole outlet of Lake Malawi, flowing into the Zambezi.
- Statement 4 is correct as the Mulanje Mountain Massif is the highest point in the country at over 3,000 meters. Malawi is currently facing a food crisis due to El Niño-induced drought, prompting humanitarian aid such as rice from India. The country’s economy is heavily tied to agriculture, particularly in the fertile highlands and plateaus.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Malawi is a landlocked country in southeastern Africa with diverse geographical features.
- Statement 1 is correct as it lies along the East African Rift Valley, which defines its topography.
- Statement 2 is correct; Lake Malawi is also known as Lake Nyasa and covers a significant portion of the country’s eastern boundary.
- Statement 3 is correct because the Shire River is the sole outlet of Lake Malawi, flowing into the Zambezi.
- Statement 4 is correct as the Mulanje Mountain Massif is the highest point in the country at over 3,000 meters. Malawi is currently facing a food crisis due to El Niño-induced drought, prompting humanitarian aid such as rice from India. The country’s economy is heavily tied to agriculture, particularly in the fertile highlands and plateaus.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement I: Other Election Commissioners (ECs) can be removed by the President only on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Statement II: The Constitution of India provides the same protection against removal to the Election Commissioners as it does to the Chief Election Commissioner.
Statement III: A special majority in Parliament is required to remove an Election Commissioner from office.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement I is a correct factual premise. According to the Constitution, other ECs or Regional Commissioners can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the CEC.
- However, Statement II is incorrect because the Constitution does not provide the same protection to ECs as it does to the CEC. While the CEC requires a process equivalent to a Supreme Court judge, the other ECs do not have this constitutional security of tenure.
- Statement III is incorrect because no special majority in Parliament is required for the removal of an EC; the President can act simply on the CEC’s recommendation. Since both Statements II and III are incorrect, option (d) is the right choice.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement I is a correct factual premise. According to the Constitution, other ECs or Regional Commissioners can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the CEC.
- However, Statement II is incorrect because the Constitution does not provide the same protection to ECs as it does to the CEC. While the CEC requires a process equivalent to a Supreme Court judge, the other ECs do not have this constitutional security of tenure.
- Statement III is incorrect because no special majority in Parliament is required for the removal of an EC; the President can act simply on the CEC’s recommendation. Since both Statements II and III are incorrect, option (d) is the right choice.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsMatch the following pairs regarding military exercises and their focus:
Column A (Exercise) Column B (Nature/Host) Column C (Key Feature) 1. Cold Response A. NATO / Norway I. Arctic Warfare & Civilian Preparedness 2. Lamitiye B. India-Seychelles II. Semi-urban warfare training 3. Arctic Sentry C. NATO III. Broad Arctic Presence Mission Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
- Cold Response (1-A-I) is a NATO exercise hosted by Norway focused on Arctic conditions and “Total Defence,” which includes civilian sectors.
- Lamitiye (2-B-II) is a bilateral exercise between India and Seychelles, meaning “Friendship,” focusing on tactical drills in semi-urban and coastal environments to counter sub-conventional threats.
- Arctic Sentry (3-C-III) is a broader NATO mission that supports the alliance’s presence in the Arctic, which Cold Response helps reinforce.
- These exercises are strategically significant; Cold Response acts as a deterrent near the Russian border, while Lamitiye strengthens India’s role as a net security provider in the Indian Ocean under the SAGAR policy. Both emphasize interoperability among allied and partner forces in increasingly contested geographic theaters.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Cold Response (1-A-I) is a NATO exercise hosted by Norway focused on Arctic conditions and “Total Defence,” which includes civilian sectors.
- Lamitiye (2-B-II) is a bilateral exercise between India and Seychelles, meaning “Friendship,” focusing on tactical drills in semi-urban and coastal environments to counter sub-conventional threats.
- Arctic Sentry (3-C-III) is a broader NATO mission that supports the alliance’s presence in the Arctic, which Cold Response helps reinforce.
- These exercises are strategically significant; Cold Response acts as a deterrent near the Russian border, while Lamitiye strengthens India’s role as a net security provider in the Indian Ocean under the SAGAR policy. Both emphasize interoperability among allied and partner forces in increasingly contested geographic theaters.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD), consider the following statements:
- It is designed to intercept ballistic missiles specifically during their mid-course phase of flight.
- The system employs hit-to-kill technology, relying on kinetic energy rather than explosive warheads to destroy targets.
- It serves as a defensive layer that bridges the operational gap between the Patriot and the Aegis missile defense systems.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- The Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is a sophisticated surface-to-air missile system developed by the United States.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because THAAD is specifically designed to intercept and destroy short, medium, and limited intermediate-range ballistic missiles during their terminal phase (the final stage of flight), not the mid-course phase.
- Statement 2 is correct as THAAD utilizes “hit-to-kill” technology. This means the interceptor does not carry a traditional fragmentation warhead; instead, it destroys the incoming threat through the sheer force of impact (kinetic energy). This approach is preferred as it minimizes the risk of detonating conventional or nuclear payloads over populated areas.
- Statement 3 is correct because THAAD provides a multi-layered defense shield, engaging targets at higher altitudes than the Patriot system but lower than the exo-atmospheric Aegis system. It can engage targets both inside and outside the Earth’s atmosphere (endo- and exo-atmospheric). This strategic placement fills a vital niche in the global ballistic missile defense architecture, ensuring that if a higher-tier system fails, THAAD serves as a robust secondary line of defense before the missile reaches the lower atmosphere.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is a sophisticated surface-to-air missile system developed by the United States.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because THAAD is specifically designed to intercept and destroy short, medium, and limited intermediate-range ballistic missiles during their terminal phase (the final stage of flight), not the mid-course phase.
- Statement 2 is correct as THAAD utilizes “hit-to-kill” technology. This means the interceptor does not carry a traditional fragmentation warhead; instead, it destroys the incoming threat through the sheer force of impact (kinetic energy). This approach is preferred as it minimizes the risk of detonating conventional or nuclear payloads over populated areas.
- Statement 3 is correct because THAAD provides a multi-layered defense shield, engaging targets at higher altitudes than the Patriot system but lower than the exo-atmospheric Aegis system. It can engage targets both inside and outside the Earth’s atmosphere (endo- and exo-atmospheric). This strategic placement fills a vital niche in the global ballistic missile defense architecture, ensuring that if a higher-tier system fails, THAAD serves as a robust secondary line of defense before the missile reaches the lower atmosphere.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the ‘Lighting a Billion Lives 2.0’ (LaBL 2.0) initiative:
- It is a decentralized renewable energy programme launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
- The initiative focuses on promoting women-led entrepreneurship and green livelihoods in rural regions.
- It incorporates carbon accounting frameworks to link grassroots energy projects with global carbon markets.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- The LaBL 2.0 initiative represents a significant evolution in decentralized energy access.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the program is launched by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI), a leading research institute, rather than a government ministry directly, although it aligns with national goals.
- Statement 2 is correct as a core pillar of LaBL 2.0 is the promotion of green livelihoods and empowering women as clean energy entrepreneurs. By focusing on productive uses of energy, it goes beyond simple lighting to enable small-scale rural industries.
- Statement 3 is correct because the 2.0 version specifically integrates Monitoring, Reporting, and Verification (MRV) frameworks. This allows for precise carbon accounting, enabling rural projects to tap into climate finance and carbon markets. This financial integration ensures the long-term sustainability of decentralized renewable energy (DRE) projects by creating new revenue streams for local communities. The transition from the 2008 version to 2.0 signifies a shift from basic solar lighting to a comprehensive ecosystem involving climate finance, women’s empowerment, and sustainable economic development, directly supporting India’s “Net Zero” commitments through localized, bottom-up climate action.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The LaBL 2.0 initiative represents a significant evolution in decentralized energy access.
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the program is launched by The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI), a leading research institute, rather than a government ministry directly, although it aligns with national goals.
- Statement 2 is correct as a core pillar of LaBL 2.0 is the promotion of green livelihoods and empowering women as clean energy entrepreneurs. By focusing on productive uses of energy, it goes beyond simple lighting to enable small-scale rural industries.
- Statement 3 is correct because the 2.0 version specifically integrates Monitoring, Reporting, and Verification (MRV) frameworks. This allows for precise carbon accounting, enabling rural projects to tap into climate finance and carbon markets. This financial integration ensures the long-term sustainability of decentralized renewable energy (DRE) projects by creating new revenue streams for local communities. The transition from the 2008 version to 2.0 signifies a shift from basic solar lighting to a comprehensive ecosystem involving climate finance, women’s empowerment, and sustainable economic development, directly supporting India’s “Net Zero” commitments through localized, bottom-up climate action.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Commission on the Status of Women (CSW):
Statement I: The Commission on the Status of Women (CSW) is the principal global intergovernmental body dedicated to gender equality.
Statement II: It functions as a specialized agency of the United Nations, operating independently of the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- The Commission on the Status of Women (CSW) is the primary global intergovernmental body for gender equality, making Statement I correct. It serves as a vital forum where member states, NGOs, and UN agencies gather annually to evaluate progress and set global standards.
- However, Statement II is incorrect because the CSW is not an independent specialized agency (like the WHO or FAO). Instead, it is a functional commission of the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). It was established in 1946 to prepare recommendations and reports to ECOSOC on promoting women’s rights in political, economic, civil, social, and educational fields.
- While UN Women provides the secretariat support for the CSW, the commission remains under the administrative and reporting umbrella of ECOSOC.
- Its primary role involves monitoring the implementation of the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action and shaping the international legal norms that protect the rights of women and girls worldwide.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The Commission on the Status of Women (CSW) is the primary global intergovernmental body for gender equality, making Statement I correct. It serves as a vital forum where member states, NGOs, and UN agencies gather annually to evaluate progress and set global standards.
- However, Statement II is incorrect because the CSW is not an independent specialized agency (like the WHO or FAO). Instead, it is a functional commission of the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). It was established in 1946 to prepare recommendations and reports to ECOSOC on promoting women’s rights in political, economic, civil, social, and educational fields.
- While UN Women provides the secretariat support for the CSW, the commission remains under the administrative and reporting umbrella of ECOSOC.
- Its primary role involves monitoring the implementation of the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action and shaping the international legal norms that protect the rights of women and girls worldwide.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsIn the context of Indian administration, “The Blue Book” is primarily concerned with:
Correct
Solution: B
- The Blue Book is a crucial, though often confidential, manual in Indian governance. It is not related to economics or environmental standards; rather, it is a security and protocol manual issued by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It outlines the exhaustive procedures to be followed during the visits of the President, Vice-President, and Prime Minister within the country.
- The manual covers everything from the reception protocol (who receives the dignitary at the airport) to logistical details like transport, crowd management, and venue security.
- The Blue Book ensures that the dignity and safety of India’s top three constitutional authorities are maintained uniformly across all states. It is maintained at the district level by the District Magistrate and the police chief to ensure seamless coordination between the State and the Centre during high-profile visits.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Blue Book is a crucial, though often confidential, manual in Indian governance. It is not related to economics or environmental standards; rather, it is a security and protocol manual issued by the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). It outlines the exhaustive procedures to be followed during the visits of the President, Vice-President, and Prime Minister within the country.
- The manual covers everything from the reception protocol (who receives the dignitary at the airport) to logistical details like transport, crowd management, and venue security.
- The Blue Book ensures that the dignity and safety of India’s top three constitutional authorities are maintained uniformly across all states. It is maintained at the district level by the District Magistrate and the police chief to ensure seamless coordination between the State and the Centre during high-profile visits.
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