The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Listeria.
- Listeria is a bacteria that can lead to an infection called listeriosis.
- It is found in soil, vegetation, water and even the faeces of animals and humans.
- Most people who ingest listeria-infected food will fall sick or develop symptoms immediately.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Listeria or Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria found in soil, vegetation, water, sewage and even the faeces of animals and humans. Listeria-contaminated food can lead to an infection called listeriosis.
Most people who ingest listeria-infected food do not fall sick or develop symptoms. The bacteria can be present in the infected person’s system for up to two months until the symptoms present themselves, making it difficult to establish the connection between what was consumed and the infection.
Symptoms include vomiting, nausea, cramps, severe headache, constipation and fever.
People with compromised immune systems, pregnant persons and their offspring and the elderly (aged 65 and above) are vulnerable.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Listeria or Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria found in soil, vegetation, water, sewage and even the faeces of animals and humans. Listeria-contaminated food can lead to an infection called listeriosis.
Most people who ingest listeria-infected food do not fall sick or develop symptoms. The bacteria can be present in the infected person’s system for up to two months until the symptoms present themselves, making it difficult to establish the connection between what was consumed and the infection.
Symptoms include vomiting, nausea, cramps, severe headache, constipation and fever.
People with compromised immune systems, pregnant persons and their offspring and the elderly (aged 65 and above) are vulnerable.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- Khanij Bidesh India Ltd is a private joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally.
- Lithium is an alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries and medical devices like pacemakers.
- Niobium is a silvery metal with a corrosion-resistant oxide layer on its surface.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Initiatives for Critical Minerals exploration:
Initiative Details Amendment to Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act Amendment to MMRDA in 2023 delisted six minerals, including Lithium and Niobium, from the list of atomic minerals, thereby allowing private sector participation Provided for the auction of mining leases and composite licenses of 24 critical and strategic minerals by the central government Khanij Bidesh India Ltd It is a government joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally, with a focus on Australia and South America. Mineral Description Common Uses Lithium An alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries for mobiles, laptops, electric vehicles, and medical devices like pacemakers. Rechargeable batteries, energy storage. Rare Earth Elements A group of 17-odd minerals including scandium, yttrium, cerium, and more. Catalysts, magnets, alloys, glass, electronics, petroleum extraction, electric motors, wind turbines. Niobium A silvery metal with a corrosion-resistant oxide layer on its surface. The main source of Niobium is the mineral columbite, which is found in countries such as Canada, Brazil, Australia, and Nigeria. Alloys (stainless steel), jet engines, construction materials, superconducting magnets (particle accelerators, MRI scanners). Incorrect
Solution: A
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Initiatives for Critical Minerals exploration:
Initiative Details Amendment to Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act Amendment to MMRDA in 2023 delisted six minerals, including Lithium and Niobium, from the list of atomic minerals, thereby allowing private sector participation Provided for the auction of mining leases and composite licenses of 24 critical and strategic minerals by the central government Khanij Bidesh India Ltd It is a government joint venture that aims to secure critical minerals globally, with a focus on Australia and South America. Mineral Description Common Uses Lithium An alkali metal used in rechargeable batteries for mobiles, laptops, electric vehicles, and medical devices like pacemakers. Rechargeable batteries, energy storage. Rare Earth Elements A group of 17-odd minerals including scandium, yttrium, cerium, and more. Catalysts, magnets, alloys, glass, electronics, petroleum extraction, electric motors, wind turbines. Niobium A silvery metal with a corrosion-resistant oxide layer on its surface. The main source of Niobium is the mineral columbite, which is found in countries such as Canada, Brazil, Australia, and Nigeria. Alloys (stainless steel), jet engines, construction materials, superconducting magnets (particle accelerators, MRI scanners). -
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsArticle 102 of the Indian Constitution deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament. The reasons under which an MP can be disqualified include:
- if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State.
- if he is an undischarged insolvent.
- if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India.
- if he is disqualified by the Election Commission of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: C
Article 102 deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament.
Part (1) of the article lists the reasons why an MP can be disqualified. These include,
(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;
(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;
(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent;
(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;
(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Article 102 deals with the disqualification of MPs from either house of the Parliament.
Part (1) of the article lists the reasons why an MP can be disqualified. These include,
(a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder;
(b) if he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;
(c) if he is an undischarged insolvent;
(d) if he is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State, or is under any acknowledgment of allegiance or adherence to a foreign State;
(e) if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsMorocco shares its bored with which of the following water bodies?
- Mediterranean Sea
- Atlantic Ocean
- Caspian Sea
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
Option 3 is incorrect.
Morocco, a North African country bordering the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea, is distinguished by its Berber, Arabian and European cultural influences.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsHow is the ‘creamy layer’ determination different for children of government employees compared to those from the private sector?
Correct
- Solution: C
The determination of ‘creamy layer’ status differs between government and private sector employees’ children. For government employees, the criteria are primarily based on the rank or position of the parent in service. For instance, children of Group A officers or those promoted to Group A before age 40 are considered part of the creamy layer. In contrast, for private sector employees, the determination is based on the parents’ income. This distinction recognizes the different structures and compensation systems in government and private sectors, aiming to create a fair assessment of socio-economic status across various employment types.
Incorrect
- Solution: C
The determination of ‘creamy layer’ status differs between government and private sector employees’ children. For government employees, the criteria are primarily based on the rank or position of the parent in service. For instance, children of Group A officers or those promoted to Group A before age 40 are considered part of the creamy layer. In contrast, for private sector employees, the determination is based on the parents’ income. This distinction recognizes the different structures and compensation systems in government and private sectors, aiming to create a fair assessment of socio-economic status across various employment types.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements in the context of Lightning characteristics and occurrence in India
- Lightning is a rapid discharge of atmospheric electricity.
- Eastern and central India experience the highest cloud-to-ground strikes.
- Palm trees provide immediate protection against lightning strikes.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Lightning is indeed a rapid discharge of electricity in the atmosphere. This occurs when there’s a buildup of electrical charge within clouds or between clouds and the ground, which is then suddenly released, creating the flash we see as lightning.
According to the Annual Lightning Report 2023-2024 published by CROPC and IMD, eastern and central India do experience the highest number of cloud-to-ground (CG) lightning strikes. This is likely due to the specific atmospheric conditions prevalent in these regions.
Palm tree needs at least 15 to 20 years to attain a height of 20 feet. Therefore, they do not provide immediate protection against lightning strikes, but rather a long-term solution.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Lightning is indeed a rapid discharge of electricity in the atmosphere. This occurs when there’s a buildup of electrical charge within clouds or between clouds and the ground, which is then suddenly released, creating the flash we see as lightning.
According to the Annual Lightning Report 2023-2024 published by CROPC and IMD, eastern and central India do experience the highest number of cloud-to-ground (CG) lightning strikes. This is likely due to the specific atmospheric conditions prevalent in these regions.
Palm tree needs at least 15 to 20 years to attain a height of 20 feet. Therefore, they do not provide immediate protection against lightning strikes, but rather a long-term solution.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding White phosphorus.
- White phosphorus is a highly toxic, wax-like substance known for its ability to burn at extremely high temperatures.
- It is used by militaries to create smokescreens due to its fast-spreading fires and thick smoke production.
- It is categorized as an “incendiary weapon” and is banned by international conventions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
About White phosphorus:
- It is a highly toxic, wax-like substance known for its ability to burn at extremely high temperatures, exceeding 800 degrees Celsius (1,500 degrees Fahrenheit).
- It can melt metal and is often used by militaries to create smokescreensdue to its fast-spreading fires and thick smoke production that can last for about seven minutes.
- White phosphorus is harmful to humans and can cause severe burns, penetrating down to the bone.The chemicals can be absorbed by the body, leading to dysfunction in multiple organs, including the liver, kidneys, and heart
- White phosphorus munitions can be delivered through artillery shells, bombs, rockets, or grenades. This substance is colourless, white, or yellow and emits a garlic-like odour.
While white phosphorus is not banned by international conventions, it is not categorized as an “incendiary weapon” intended to cause fires or burns.
Instead, it is considered a multipurpose munition. Protocol III of the 1980 Convention on Certain Conventional Weapons prohibits incendiaries or the use of other substances to attack civilian populations, but it allows militaries to argue that white phosphorus is used only as a smokescreen, signal, or to illuminate a target.
Incorrect
Solution: A
About White phosphorus:
- It is a highly toxic, wax-like substance known for its ability to burn at extremely high temperatures, exceeding 800 degrees Celsius (1,500 degrees Fahrenheit).
- It can melt metal and is often used by militaries to create smokescreensdue to its fast-spreading fires and thick smoke production that can last for about seven minutes.
- White phosphorus is harmful to humans and can cause severe burns, penetrating down to the bone.The chemicals can be absorbed by the body, leading to dysfunction in multiple organs, including the liver, kidneys, and heart
- White phosphorus munitions can be delivered through artillery shells, bombs, rockets, or grenades. This substance is colourless, white, or yellow and emits a garlic-like odour.
While white phosphorus is not banned by international conventions, it is not categorized as an “incendiary weapon” intended to cause fires or burns.
Instead, it is considered a multipurpose munition. Protocol III of the 1980 Convention on Certain Conventional Weapons prohibits incendiaries or the use of other substances to attack civilian populations, but it allows militaries to argue that white phosphorus is used only as a smokescreen, signal, or to illuminate a target.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhat physiological factor is primarily responsible for the athletic performance differences between men and women?
Correct
- Solution: D
Circulating testosterone is considered the primary factor responsible for athletic performance differences between men and women. Testosterone has been shown to increase muscle mass and strength, bone size and density, and circulating hemoglobin levels. These physiological changes contribute significantly to athletic performance advantages. While other factors like bone density and muscle fiber type are influenced by testosterone, they are secondary effects rather than the primary cause. The hormone’s direct impact on multiple physiological systems makes it the key differentiator in athletic performance between sexes.
Incorrect
- Solution: D
Circulating testosterone is considered the primary factor responsible for athletic performance differences between men and women. Testosterone has been shown to increase muscle mass and strength, bone size and density, and circulating hemoglobin levels. These physiological changes contribute significantly to athletic performance advantages. While other factors like bone density and muscle fiber type are influenced by testosterone, they are secondary effects rather than the primary cause. The hormone’s direct impact on multiple physiological systems makes it the key differentiator in athletic performance between sexes.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsHow does Article 22(3) of the Indian Constitution affect the rights of individuals under preventive detention?
Correct
- Solution: C
- Article 22(3) of the Indian Constitution creates a significant exception to the fundamental rights typically afforded to arrested or detained individuals.
- By exempting preventive detention from the protections outlined in Article 22(1) and 22(2), it allows for a more expansive application of preventive detention laws.
- This exemption means that individuals held under preventive detention may not have the right to be informed of the grounds of their arrest or the right to consult a legal practitioner of their choice.
- Additionally, the requirement to produce the detained person before a magistrate within 24 hours may not apply.
- This provision reflects the balance struck by the Constitution between individual rights and perceived needs for national security or public order, albeit at the cost of certain fundamental protections.
Incorrect
- Solution: C
- Article 22(3) of the Indian Constitution creates a significant exception to the fundamental rights typically afforded to arrested or detained individuals.
- By exempting preventive detention from the protections outlined in Article 22(1) and 22(2), it allows for a more expansive application of preventive detention laws.
- This exemption means that individuals held under preventive detention may not have the right to be informed of the grounds of their arrest or the right to consult a legal practitioner of their choice.
- Additionally, the requirement to produce the detained person before a magistrate within 24 hours may not apply.
- This provision reflects the balance struck by the Constitution between individual rights and perceived needs for national security or public order, albeit at the cost of certain fundamental protections.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the United Nations (UN) and its structure:
- The UN was established after World War I, with collective security and peacekeeping as some of its founding principles.
- The General Assembly is the primary policymaking body of the UN, while the UNSC is responsible for peace and security.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1: The United Nations was established in 1945 after World War II, with the primary goals of maintaining international peace and security, promoting disarmament, and engaging in peacekeeping activities.
- Statement 2 is correct. The General Assembly serves as the UN’s main policymaking body, while the UNSC is specifically responsible for issues related to international peace and security.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1: The United Nations was established in 1945 after World War II, with the primary goals of maintaining international peace and security, promoting disarmament, and engaging in peacekeeping activities.
- Statement 2 is correct. The General Assembly serves as the UN’s main policymaking body, while the UNSC is specifically responsible for issues related to international peace and security.
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