The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsIn the context of Indian tribal history and culture, who among the following is popularly revered as “Guru Gomke” (Great Teacher)?
Correct
Solution: C
- Pandit Raghunath Murmu is the visionary behind the Ol Chiki script, created in 1925. The title “Guru Gomke”, which translates to “The Great Teacher,” was bestowed upon him by the Santhal community in recognition of his immense contribution to their linguistic and cultural identity.
- Unlike other tribal leaders like Birsa Munda, who led political and millenarian movements against British rule, Raghunath Murmu’s revolution was literary and cultural. By inventing a script that was phonetically suited for the Santhali language, he empowered the community to document their rich oral traditions and folklore.
- His work, including plays and poetry like Hidu Serena, laid the foundation for modern Santhali literature. The centenary of the script in 2025-26 highlights his legacy.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Pandit Raghunath Murmu is the visionary behind the Ol Chiki script, created in 1925. The title “Guru Gomke”, which translates to “The Great Teacher,” was bestowed upon him by the Santhal community in recognition of his immense contribution to their linguistic and cultural identity.
- Unlike other tribal leaders like Birsa Munda, who led political and millenarian movements against British rule, Raghunath Murmu’s revolution was literary and cultural. By inventing a script that was phonetically suited for the Santhali language, he empowered the community to document their rich oral traditions and folklore.
- His work, including plays and poetry like Hidu Serena, laid the foundation for modern Santhali literature. The centenary of the script in 2025-26 highlights his legacy.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Loggerhead Turtles (Caretta caretta), consider the following statements:
- They are primarily found in the Arctic and Antarctic oceans due to their preference for cold-water environments.
- They are classified as “Critically Endangered” under the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- They are purely herbivorous, feeding primarily on seagrasses and algae throughout their lifespan.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect because Loggerhead turtles are distributed globally in temperate and subtropical oceans, including the Atlantic, Pacific, and Indian Oceans; they do not inhabit the polar regions.
- Statement 2 is incorrect as their IUCN status is Vulnerable, not Critically Endangered. While they face threats, they are more widely distributed than species like the Hawksbill turtle.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because Loggerheads are known for their large heads and powerful jaws, which are an evolutionary adaptation for a carnivorous/omnivorous They feed on hard-shelled prey such as mollusks, crustaceans, and crabs, acting as key regulators of the marine food web.
- Recent studies in 2026 have highlighted that these turtles are shrinking in size and producing fewer eggs due to warming oceans and declining marine productivity. This makes them vital indicator species for ocean health.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect because Loggerhead turtles are distributed globally in temperate and subtropical oceans, including the Atlantic, Pacific, and Indian Oceans; they do not inhabit the polar regions.
- Statement 2 is incorrect as their IUCN status is Vulnerable, not Critically Endangered. While they face threats, they are more widely distributed than species like the Hawksbill turtle.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because Loggerheads are known for their large heads and powerful jaws, which are an evolutionary adaptation for a carnivorous/omnivorous They feed on hard-shelled prey such as mollusks, crustaceans, and crabs, acting as key regulators of the marine food web.
- Recent studies in 2026 have highlighted that these turtles are shrinking in size and producing fewer eggs due to warming oceans and declining marine productivity. This makes them vital indicator species for ocean health.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Bharat-VISTAAR platform, consider the following statements:
- It is a Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) powered by Artificial Intelligence to provide personalized agricultural advisory.
- The platform is accessible solely through a high-speed internet-enabled smartphone application.
- It integrates various schemes like PM-KISAN and PMFBY to provide a single digital gateway for farmers.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct; Bharat-VISTAAR (Virtually Integrated System to Access Agricultural Resources) is an AI-driven multilingual DPI launched to empower farmers with real-time, research-backed information.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. A key feature of the platform is multi-platform accessibility. It is designed to be inclusive, supporting basic phones through a voice-based toll-free helpline (155261) and an AI assistant named “Bharati.” This ensures that rural farmers without smartphones or high-speed internet can still receive advice.
- Statement 3 is correct as the platform acts as a unified gateway, integrating major welfare schemes like PM-KISAN (for income support), PMFBY (for crop insurance), and the Kisan Credit Card. By providing a 24×7 digital expert, it helps farmers check eligibility and track grievances in one place. The platform’s initial rollout in Hindi and English, with plans for 11 more languages, underscores its focus on digital inclusion.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct; Bharat-VISTAAR (Virtually Integrated System to Access Agricultural Resources) is an AI-driven multilingual DPI launched to empower farmers with real-time, research-backed information.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. A key feature of the platform is multi-platform accessibility. It is designed to be inclusive, supporting basic phones through a voice-based toll-free helpline (155261) and an AI assistant named “Bharati.” This ensures that rural farmers without smartphones or high-speed internet can still receive advice.
- Statement 3 is correct as the platform acts as a unified gateway, integrating major welfare schemes like PM-KISAN (for income support), PMFBY (for crop insurance), and the Kisan Credit Card. By providing a 24×7 digital expert, it helps farmers check eligibility and track grievances in one place. The platform’s initial rollout in Hindi and English, with plans for 11 more languages, underscores its focus on digital inclusion.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement I: 6th Generation aero engines are designed to serve as an integrated power and cooling hub for the aircraft’s mission systems.
Statement II: Next-generation fighter aircraft require significantly higher electrical power for high-powered radars, electronic warfare suites, and directed-energy weapons.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement I is correct; unlike 4th or 5th generation engines which were primarily thrust providers, 6th gen engines are multifunctional. They are designed to manage the aircraft’s thermal and electrical loads in addition to providing propulsion.
- Statement II is also correct and serves as the exact reason for Statement I. Modern stealth fighters are increasingly being equipped with “energy-hungry” systems like AESA radars, sophisticated Electronic Warfare (EW) suites, and even laser weapons (Directed Energy Weapons). These systems generate immense heat and require massive electrical output. Traditional engines cannot provide this level of power or dissipate the resulting heat efficiently.
- Therefore, 6th-gen engines incorporate embedded electrical power generation and advanced cooling streams to ensure the aircraft’s “brain” and “sensors” function without overheating or power failure.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement I is correct; unlike 4th or 5th generation engines which were primarily thrust providers, 6th gen engines are multifunctional. They are designed to manage the aircraft’s thermal and electrical loads in addition to providing propulsion.
- Statement II is also correct and serves as the exact reason for Statement I. Modern stealth fighters are increasingly being equipped with “energy-hungry” systems like AESA radars, sophisticated Electronic Warfare (EW) suites, and even laser weapons (Directed Energy Weapons). These systems generate immense heat and require massive electrical output. Traditional engines cannot provide this level of power or dissipate the resulting heat efficiently.
- Therefore, 6th-gen engines incorporate embedded electrical power generation and advanced cooling streams to ensure the aircraft’s “brain” and “sensors” function without overheating or power failure.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Great Nicobar Island, consider the following statements:
- It is the southernmost island of the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago and is home to the Galathea Bay.
- The island is situated in close proximity to the “Six Degree Channel,” a major international shipping route.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Statement 1 is correct; Great Nicobar is the southernmost tip of India (containing Indira Point) and features Galathea Bay, a critical nesting site for leatherback turtles.
Statement 2 is correct; the island sits adjacent to the Six Degree Channel and the Malacca Strait, giving it immense strategic leverage over global maritime trade.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Statement 1 is correct; Great Nicobar is the southernmost tip of India (containing Indira Point) and features Galathea Bay, a critical nesting site for leatherback turtles.
Statement 2 is correct; the island sits adjacent to the Six Degree Channel and the Malacca Strait, giving it immense strategic leverage over global maritime trade.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsThe Great Nicobar Project, recently cleared by the NGT, is strategically significant due to its proximity to:
Correct
Solution: B
- The Great Nicobar Project is a massive infrastructure plan located on the southernmost island of the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago. Its location is of immense strategic importance because it lies very close to the Malacca Strait, which is one of the world’s busiest and most critical shipping lanes.
- Nearly one-third of global trade passes through this channel. By developing an International Transshipment Port at Galathea Bay, India aims to tap into this global logistics network and reduce its dependence on foreign ports like Singapore or Colombo.
- The project also includes a dual-use civil-military airport, which will enhance India’s maritime surveillance and security presence in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Great Nicobar Project is a massive infrastructure plan located on the southernmost island of the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago. Its location is of immense strategic importance because it lies very close to the Malacca Strait, which is one of the world’s busiest and most critical shipping lanes.
- Nearly one-third of global trade passes through this channel. By developing an International Transshipment Port at Galathea Bay, India aims to tap into this global logistics network and reduce its dependence on foreign ports like Singapore or Colombo.
- The project also includes a dual-use civil-military airport, which will enhance India’s maritime surveillance and security presence in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India, consider the following statements:
- The CEC can be removed from office by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of a three-member committee.
- The grounds for the removal of the CEC are the same as those for the removal of the President of India.
- The removal process requires a simple majority in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the CEC is a constitutional authority and cannot be removed by the Prime Minister. The CEC is appointed by the President, and the removal can only be effected through a parliamentary process similar to that of a Supreme Court judge.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. According to Article 324(5), the CEC can be removed from office “in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.” The grounds for the removal of a Supreme Court judge (and thus the CEC) are “proved misbehaviour” or “incapacity,” as per Article 124(4). This is distinct from the grounds for the removal of the President, which is “violation of the Constitution” (Article 61).
- Statement 3 is incorrect because the removal process is much more rigorous than a simple majority. It requires a constitutional special majority in each House of Parliament. This means the motion must be supported by a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Only after such a motion is passed in both Houses is it presented to the President for the formal order of removal. These stringent protections are designed to ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission of India, preventing the executive from removing the CEC for political reasons.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the CEC is a constitutional authority and cannot be removed by the Prime Minister. The CEC is appointed by the President, and the removal can only be effected through a parliamentary process similar to that of a Supreme Court judge.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. According to Article 324(5), the CEC can be removed from office “in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.” The grounds for the removal of a Supreme Court judge (and thus the CEC) are “proved misbehaviour” or “incapacity,” as per Article 124(4). This is distinct from the grounds for the removal of the President, which is “violation of the Constitution” (Article 61).
- Statement 3 is incorrect because the removal process is much more rigorous than a simple majority. It requires a constitutional special majority in each House of Parliament. This means the motion must be supported by a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Only after such a motion is passed in both Houses is it presented to the President for the formal order of removal. These stringent protections are designed to ensure the independence and impartiality of the Election Commission of India, preventing the executive from removing the CEC for political reasons.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the ‘Blue Line’:
- It is a legally binding international border recognized by both Lebanon and Israel.
- The line is monitored and supervised by the United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL).
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The Blue Line is not an international border. It is a temporary demarcation or a “line of withdrawal.” While both Israel and Lebanon agreed to respect this line following the Israeli withdrawal in 2000, they both maintain that it does not prejudice any future negotiations regarding the final, official international boundary.
- The Blue Line was identified by the United Nations in 2000. Its primary technical purpose was to confirm that the Israeli Defense Forces (IDF) had fully pulled back from southern Lebanese territory in compliance with UN Security Council Resolution 425 (1978). It runs for approximately 120 km from the Mediterranean coast to the tri-junction area near the Shebaa Farms.
Statement 2 is correct. The United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) is the primary body responsible for monitoring the Blue Line. UNIFIL works in coordination with the Lebanese Armed Forces (LAF) to maintain stability, prevent escalations, and report violations. These violations can include unauthorized border crossings, aerial overflights, or firing across the line. The Blue Line passes through several sensitive and disputed zones, such as the Ghajar village and the Kfarchouba hills. Maintaining the sanctity of this line is critical for regional stability and the protection of civilians living on both sides of the frontier, especially during periods of heightened tension between Israel and Hezbollah.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The Blue Line is not an international border. It is a temporary demarcation or a “line of withdrawal.” While both Israel and Lebanon agreed to respect this line following the Israeli withdrawal in 2000, they both maintain that it does not prejudice any future negotiations regarding the final, official international boundary.
- The Blue Line was identified by the United Nations in 2000. Its primary technical purpose was to confirm that the Israeli Defense Forces (IDF) had fully pulled back from southern Lebanese territory in compliance with UN Security Council Resolution 425 (1978). It runs for approximately 120 km from the Mediterranean coast to the tri-junction area near the Shebaa Farms.
Statement 2 is correct. The United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL) is the primary body responsible for monitoring the Blue Line. UNIFIL works in coordination with the Lebanese Armed Forces (LAF) to maintain stability, prevent escalations, and report violations. These violations can include unauthorized border crossings, aerial overflights, or firing across the line. The Blue Line passes through several sensitive and disputed zones, such as the Ghajar village and the Kfarchouba hills. Maintaining the sanctity of this line is critical for regional stability and the protection of civilians living on both sides of the frontier, especially during periods of heightened tension between Israel and Hezbollah.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Indian Peacock (Pavo cristatus), which of the following is correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- The Indian Peacock (Pavo cristatus) is one of the most recognizable birds in the world and serves as the National Bird of India.
- Option (c) is correct as the most striking feature of the male peacock is its long iridescent train, which can consist of over 200 elongated feathers adorned with colorful “eye-spots.” This train is fanned out in a spectacular display during the breeding season to attract females (peahens).
- Option (a) is incorrect because the Indian Peacock is classified as ‘Least Concern’ on the IUCN Red List, reflecting its widespread population and adaptability. In contrast, the Green (Javanese) Peacock is ‘Endangered’.
- Option (b) is incorrect regarding its natural habitat. Peacocks are typically birds of lowlands and plains, usually found in semi-arid to moist deciduous forests and agricultural landscapes. Their typical altitudinal range is up to 1,000 to 1,500 metres. Recent sightings at 6,000 feet (1,800m) in Himachal Pradesh are considered ecologically unusual and are being studied as potential indicators of climate change.
Option (d) is incorrect because peacocks are omnivorous. Their diet is diverse, including seeds, fruits, insects, and even small reptiles like snakes. This makes them beneficial for pest control in agricultural areas. They are primarily ground-dwelling birds but are capable of short flights and typically roost in trees at night for protection from predators. Their presence at higher altitudes suggests that warming temperatures are making previously colder regions more habitable for them.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- The Indian Peacock (Pavo cristatus) is one of the most recognizable birds in the world and serves as the National Bird of India.
- Option (c) is correct as the most striking feature of the male peacock is its long iridescent train, which can consist of over 200 elongated feathers adorned with colorful “eye-spots.” This train is fanned out in a spectacular display during the breeding season to attract females (peahens).
- Option (a) is incorrect because the Indian Peacock is classified as ‘Least Concern’ on the IUCN Red List, reflecting its widespread population and adaptability. In contrast, the Green (Javanese) Peacock is ‘Endangered’.
- Option (b) is incorrect regarding its natural habitat. Peacocks are typically birds of lowlands and plains, usually found in semi-arid to moist deciduous forests and agricultural landscapes. Their typical altitudinal range is up to 1,000 to 1,500 metres. Recent sightings at 6,000 feet (1,800m) in Himachal Pradesh are considered ecologically unusual and are being studied as potential indicators of climate change.
Option (d) is incorrect because peacocks are omnivorous. Their diet is diverse, including seeds, fruits, insects, and even small reptiles like snakes. This makes them beneficial for pest control in agricultural areas. They are primarily ground-dwelling birds but are capable of short flights and typically roost in trees at night for protection from predators. Their presence at higher altitudes suggests that warming temperatures are making previously colder regions more habitable for them.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to 6th Generation Aero Engines, what is the main purpose of “Adaptive Cycle” technology?
Correct
Solution: B
- Adaptive Cycle Engine (ACE) technology is a defining feature of 6th generation aero engines. Unlike traditional jet engines that operate in a fixed mode, an ACE can dynamically shift its airflow configuration mid-air.
- In Cruise Mode, it functions like a high-bypass commercial engine to maximize fuel efficiency and extend the aircraft’s range.
- In Combat Mode, it closes the extra air stream to provide high thrust and rapid acceleration required for dogfights or supersonic flight. This flexibility ensures that the aircraft is both economical for long-range patrols and powerful during high-intensity missions. These engines also incorporate a third air stream to help cool the advanced onboard electronics, such as high-powered radars and laser weapons.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Adaptive Cycle Engine (ACE) technology is a defining feature of 6th generation aero engines. Unlike traditional jet engines that operate in a fixed mode, an ACE can dynamically shift its airflow configuration mid-air.
- In Cruise Mode, it functions like a high-bypass commercial engine to maximize fuel efficiency and extend the aircraft’s range.
- In Combat Mode, it closes the extra air stream to provide high thrust and rapid acceleration required for dogfights or supersonic flight. This flexibility ensures that the aircraft is both economical for long-range patrols and powerful during high-intensity missions. These engines also incorporate a third air stream to help cool the advanced onboard electronics, such as high-powered radars and laser weapons.
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