UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 10 January 2026

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is Correct: Article 112 of the Constitution mandates the President to lay the “Annual Financial Statement” (AFS) before Parliament. The word “Budget” is a colloquial term derived from the French word ‘bougette’ (leather bag) and finds no mention in the constitutional text.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Article 113(3) enshrines the principle of executive initiative in financial matters. It states that “No demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President.” This ensures that financial proposals originate from the executive, preventing legislative populism where MPs might propose unlimited spending.
• Statement 3 is Correct: Article 113(1) separates expenditure ‘charged’ upon the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) from expenditure ‘made’ from it. Charged expenditure (e.g., salaries of President, Judges, Debt charges) constitutes the sovereign obligations of the state. While it is non-votable to ensure the independence of these offices and the certainty of debt servicing, the Parliament retains the right to discuss these estimates.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is Incorrect: States are prohibited from borrowing externally. They can only borrow within the territory of India (Article 293(1)). External loans for state projects are routed through the Centre (Back-to-Back loans).
• Statement 2 is Correct: Article 293(3) stipulates that if a State owes a debt to the Centre (or has a Centre-guaranteed loan outstanding), it needs Centre’s consent for any fresh borrowing. This effectively places State fiscal sovereignty under Union check.
• Statement 3 is Correct: Article 293(4) allows the Centre to impose “conditions” while granting consent. The Centre has used this to enforce fiscal discipline (like FRBM targets) or specific reforms (like the additional borrowing space linked to Power Sector reforms or One Nation One Ration Card).

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. A key characteristic of the parliamentary system is the presence of a dual executive. The head of state (e.g., the President in India, the Monarch in the UK) is the nominal or ceremonial executive, while the head of government (the Prime Minister) is the real executive, who wields effective power. This contrasts with the presidential system, where the President is both head of state and head of government.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The parliamentary system is defined by a fusion of powers or close collaboration between the executive and the legislature, not a strict separation. The ministers (executive) are drawn from the members of the legislature, and the executive is collectively responsible to the legislature. This overlap is a fundamental feature.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The tenure of the executive (the Council of Ministers) is not fixed. It is entirely dependent on maintaining the confidence of the majority in the lower house of the legislature. If the government loses a no-confidence motion, it must resign. This principle of collective responsibility makes the executive’s tenure variable, unlike the fixed tenure in a presidential system.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct.Article 3 gives Parliament the power to alter the boundaries, area, or names of existing states. This provision makes the states “destructible” while the Union is “indestructible,” which is a significant unitary feature and confirms that the constituent states in India are not sovereign entities in the way they are in a classic federation like the USA.
• Statement 2 is incorrect.The provision for All-India Services (IAS, IPS, etc.) is a prominent unitary (or centripetal) feature, not a federal one. These services are recruited and trained by the Centre but serve in state cadres, allowing the Union government significant involvement and, to an extent, control over state executive machinery. It strengthens the Centre, which is contrary to the pure federal principle.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.Article 368 requires that any amendment affecting the “federal provisions” (which includes the executive power of the States) must be ratified by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States, not all the States.
• Statement 4 is correct. B.R. Ambedkar, in the Constituent Assembly, explicitly stated that the phrase “Union of States” was used over “Federation of States” to make two things clear: first, that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement by the states to join (unlike the USA), and second, as a consequence, no state has the right to secede from it.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is Correct: Section 7 of the Indian Independence Act, 1947, declared the lapse of British Paramountcy. This meant the treaties between the Crown and Princely States ended. Legally, the states regained their independence and were free to join India, Pakistan, or remain independent (though the latter was practically difficult).
• Statement 2 is Correct: This was a unique feature of the Act. It granted the Constituent Assemblies of the new Dominions plenary sovereign power. They could frame any Constitution and repeal any British Act, including the very Act that gave them independence. This ensured that the new Constitution would be autochthonous (home-grown) and not derived from British authority.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: Under the Act, the Governor-General became a Constitutional Head. He lost the “discretionary powers” he held under the 1935 Act. He was required to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers in all The era of the Viceroy acting on his own judgment ended on August 15, 1947.