UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 3 December 2025

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 27 provides that no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination. This means public money collected through taxes cannot be spent by the State for the promotion of any one religion.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 27 prohibits the levy of a tax, but not a fee. Fees can be levied on religious endowments for meeting regulation expenditure or for providing special services (like safety measures during religious gatherings) by the state, as these are payments for services rendered and not taxes for religious promotion.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 28(2) provides an exception: the prohibition on religious instruction in state-maintained institutions (Article 28(1)) shall not apply to an educational institution which is administered by the State but has been established under any endowment or trust which requires that religious instruction shall be imparted in such institution.

Solution: A

• Advisory Jurisdiction of SC: Under Article 143, the Supreme Court gives its opinion to the President. This opinion is not binding, making it advisory in nature. So, A matches with 4.
• Writ Jurisdiction of HC: Under Article 226, High Courts can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for ‘any other purpose’ (legal rights). The Supreme Court under Article 32 can issue writs only for Fundamental Rights. Thus, the High Court’s writ jurisdiction is wider than the Supreme Court’s. So, B matches with 3.
• Original Jurisdiction of SC: Under Article 131, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction over federal disputes (Centre-State, State-State). So, C matches with 1.
• Special Leave to Appeal: Article 136 of the Constitution confers discretionary power on the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, etc., of any court or tribunal. So, D matches with 2.

Solution: A

• Appointing Authority: The State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioners are appointed by the Governor of the State. This matches with (4).
• Removing Authority: Although appointed by the Governor, the members of the SIC can be removed only by the President of India on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, after an inquiry by the Supreme Court, or under certain other specified conditions. This ensures a higher level of independence and security of tenure. This matches with (1).
• Authority to determine tenure and salary: Following the RTI (Amendment) Act, 2019, the tenure, salary, allowances, and other service conditions of the members of both the Central and State Information Commissions are prescribed by the Central Government. This matches with (2).
• Authority to receive the annual report: The SIC submits its annual report on the implementation of the RTI Act to the State Government, which then places it before the State Legislature for consideration. This matches with (3).

Solution: B

• Statement-I is correct. The role of the UPSC as described in Article 320 is advisory. The government is required to consult the UPSC on specified matters, but it is not constitutionally bound to accept its advice. The Supreme Court has also affirmed this position, making the UPSC’s recommendations non-binding.
• Statement-II is correct. Article 323(1) mandates that the UPSC shall present an annual report to the President. The President shall cause this report to be laid before Parliament, along with a memorandum explaining, in respect of the cases, if any, where the advice of the Commission was not accepted, the reasons for such non-acceptance. This provision creates a mechanism of political accountability, as the executive has to justify its departure from the UPSC’s advice to the legislature.
• While both statements are correct, Statement-II is not the explanation for Statement-I.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Article 112(2) of the Constitution of India requires that the estimates of expenditure embodied in the Annual Financial Statement must distinguish expenditure on revenue account from other expenditure. This constitutional mandate is the basis for the classification of government expenditure into Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure.
• Statement 2 is correct. The Constitution specifies certain expenditures that are ‘charged’ upon the Consolidated Fund of India. These include salaries and allowances of the President, Speaker, Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, Chairman of Rajya Sabha, judges of the Supreme Court, and the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), as well as interest payments on government debt. As per Article 113(1), these charged expenditures can be discussed in Parliament, but they are not submitted to the vote of the Parliament. This ensures the independence of these constitutional offices.
• Statement 3 is correct. The Finance Bill is introduced every year to give effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India for the next financial year. It details the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of taxes proposed in the Budget. Once passed by the Parliament and assented to by the President, it becomes the Finance Act.