The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Article 142 of the Indian Constitution:
- It allows the Supreme Court to amend the Constitution if it helps in delivering complete justice.
- It has been invoked in environmental and electoral reforms.
- It serves as a constitutional safety valve in the absence of legislative action.
- The orders under Article 142 are binding and enforceable until overridden by subsequent legislation.
How many of the above options are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Statement 1 is incorrect — The Supreme Court cannot amend the Constitution under Article 142. Only Parliament can do that under Article 368. Article 142 is about delivering complete justice within the framework of the Constitution.
Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
- It has been used in landmark cases related to pollution control, bans on harmful substances, and electoral transparency.
- It functions as a constitutional safety valve, especially in cases where legislative inertia would otherwise deny justice.
- Orders under Article 142 are binding and have the force of law until overridden by subsequent legislation.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Statement 1 is incorrect — The Supreme Court cannot amend the Constitution under Article 142. Only Parliament can do that under Article 368. Article 142 is about delivering complete justice within the framework of the Constitution.
Statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
- It has been used in landmark cases related to pollution control, bans on harmful substances, and electoral transparency.
- It functions as a constitutional safety valve, especially in cases where legislative inertia would otherwise deny justice.
- Orders under Article 142 are binding and have the force of law until overridden by subsequent legislation.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding carbon removal and offset methods:
- Direct Air Capture (DAC) uses biological processes to remove CO₂ from the atmosphere.
- Reforestation is considered a form of negative emissions technology.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Direct Air Capture (DAC) refers to engineered systems that extract CO₂ directly from ambient air using chemical sorbents, such as solid filters or liquid solvents. These systems are distinctly technological and not biological. DAC is an artificial carbon dioxide removal method, unlike biological approaches such as afforestation, soil carbon sequestration, or ocean fertilization.
- Statement 2 is correct. Reforestation involves planting trees in deforested or degraded areas, and these trees absorb atmospheric CO₂ through photosynthesis, making it a natural and cost-effective negative emissions technology (NET). It is recognized in climate mitigation strategies globally, especially under frameworks like the IPCC and the Paris Agreement, as a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Direct Air Capture (DAC) refers to engineered systems that extract CO₂ directly from ambient air using chemical sorbents, such as solid filters or liquid solvents. These systems are distinctly technological and not biological. DAC is an artificial carbon dioxide removal method, unlike biological approaches such as afforestation, soil carbon sequestration, or ocean fertilization.
- Statement 2 is correct. Reforestation involves planting trees in deforested or degraded areas, and these trees absorb atmospheric CO₂ through photosynthesis, making it a natural and cost-effective negative emissions technology (NET). It is recognized in climate mitigation strategies globally, especially under frameworks like the IPCC and the Paris Agreement, as a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following effects of prolonged heatwaves:
1. Spike in vector-borne diseases due to warmer climates.
2. Reduced groundwater recharge due to elevated evapotranspiration.
3. Disruption in power grids due to increased demand.
4. Increase in air traffic accidents due to poor visibility.Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Heatwaves are not just health hazards—they trigger cascading systemic effects.
- Statement 1 is correct: Warmer temperatures accelerate the lifecycle of vector-borne disease agents like mosquitoes, increasing risks of diseases such as dengue and malaria.
- Statement 2 is also correct: Elevated evapotranspiration rates reduce soil moisture and hamper groundwater recharge, intensifying water stress in already arid regions.
- Statement 3 is correct: Prolonged heatwaves lead to soaring electricity demand for air conditioning and cooling, overloading power grids, often resulting in blackouts or brownouts in both urban and rural areas.
- Statement 4 is incorrect. Heatwaves may affect aircraft performance (e.g., reducing lift due to thinner hot air), but visibility issues typically arise from fog, smog, or storms, not from high temperatures alone. Hence, air traffic accidents linked directly to heat-induced poor visibility are extremely rare.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Heatwaves are not just health hazards—they trigger cascading systemic effects.
- Statement 1 is correct: Warmer temperatures accelerate the lifecycle of vector-borne disease agents like mosquitoes, increasing risks of diseases such as dengue and malaria.
- Statement 2 is also correct: Elevated evapotranspiration rates reduce soil moisture and hamper groundwater recharge, intensifying water stress in already arid regions.
- Statement 3 is correct: Prolonged heatwaves lead to soaring electricity demand for air conditioning and cooling, overloading power grids, often resulting in blackouts or brownouts in both urban and rural areas.
- Statement 4 is incorrect. Heatwaves may affect aircraft performance (e.g., reducing lift due to thinner hot air), but visibility issues typically arise from fog, smog, or storms, not from high temperatures alone. Hence, air traffic accidents linked directly to heat-induced poor visibility are extremely rare.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following best describes a Flareless Coronal Mass Ejection (CME)?
Correct
Solution: B
Explanation:
- Option a is incorrect – They can originate from any region of the Sun, not just the poles.
- Option b is correct – Flareless CMEs eject plasma and magnetic fields without strong X-ray or UV emissions.
- Option c is incorrect – They are not associated with strong X-ray bursts.
- Option d is incorrect – Unlike flare-associated CMEs, flareless CMEs occur without solar flares.
- What is a Flareless Coronal Mass Ejection?
- A flareless CME is a massive ejection of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun’s corona that occurs without an associated solar flare.
- Unlike typical CMEs, it does not release intense electromagnetic radiation before the eruption.
- It challenges existing models of solar activity, requiring new insights into magnetic instabilities.
- How Flareless CMEs Form?
- Magnetic Reconnection: Occurs when magnetic field lines rearrange in the Sun’s atmosphere, leading to energy release.
- Gradual Magnetic Build-up: Magnetic stress accumulates over time, eventually releasing plasma without a sudden energy burst.
- Flux Rope Eruption: A pre-existing twisted magnetic structure in the corona slowly becomes unstable and erupts outward.
- No Preceding Flare: Unlike typical CMEs, no strong X-ray or UV burst precedes the plasma ejection.
- Sunspot Influence: Often linked to regions with weak or decaying magnetic fields, where flare energy is insufficient.
- Key Features of Flareless CMEs:
- Low Energy Signature: No significant X-ray or radio emissions, making early detection difficult.
- Slower Ejection Speeds: Travels at lower velocities (~400–1,000 km/s) than flare-associated CMEs.
- Magnetically Driven: Initiated by gradual destabilization of coronal magnetic fields rather than impulsive energy release.
- Space Weather Impact: Can still trigger geomagnetic storms on Earth, affecting satellites and communication systems.
- Rare Phenomenon: Less frequently observed compared to flare-associated CMEs, requiring continuous solar monitoring.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Explanation:
- Option a is incorrect – They can originate from any region of the Sun, not just the poles.
- Option b is correct – Flareless CMEs eject plasma and magnetic fields without strong X-ray or UV emissions.
- Option c is incorrect – They are not associated with strong X-ray bursts.
- Option d is incorrect – Unlike flare-associated CMEs, flareless CMEs occur without solar flares.
- What is a Flareless Coronal Mass Ejection?
- A flareless CME is a massive ejection of plasma and magnetic field from the Sun’s corona that occurs without an associated solar flare.
- Unlike typical CMEs, it does not release intense electromagnetic radiation before the eruption.
- It challenges existing models of solar activity, requiring new insights into magnetic instabilities.
- How Flareless CMEs Form?
- Magnetic Reconnection: Occurs when magnetic field lines rearrange in the Sun’s atmosphere, leading to energy release.
- Gradual Magnetic Build-up: Magnetic stress accumulates over time, eventually releasing plasma without a sudden energy burst.
- Flux Rope Eruption: A pre-existing twisted magnetic structure in the corona slowly becomes unstable and erupts outward.
- No Preceding Flare: Unlike typical CMEs, no strong X-ray or UV burst precedes the plasma ejection.
- Sunspot Influence: Often linked to regions with weak or decaying magnetic fields, where flare energy is insufficient.
- Key Features of Flareless CMEs:
- Low Energy Signature: No significant X-ray or radio emissions, making early detection difficult.
- Slower Ejection Speeds: Travels at lower velocities (~400–1,000 km/s) than flare-associated CMEs.
- Magnetically Driven: Initiated by gradual destabilization of coronal magnetic fields rather than impulsive energy release.
- Space Weather Impact: Can still trigger geomagnetic storms on Earth, affecting satellites and communication systems.
- Rare Phenomenon: Less frequently observed compared to flare-associated CMEs, requiring continuous solar monitoring.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
- It is chaired by the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS).
- It grants Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for all major capital defence acquisitions.
- It was established in the aftermath of the Kargil War
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Statement 1 is incorrect — the Defence Minister chairs the DAC, not the Chief of Defence Staff, who may be a member or part of deliberations.
DAC grants AoN for all major capital acquisitions, including those above financial thresholds like ₹500 crore, although the exact threshold may vary based on delegation of powers.
The DAC was created post the Kargil War as part of structural reforms suggested by the Group of Ministers.
About Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
- What it is:
-
- The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the apex body under the Ministry of Defence that oversees capital acquisitions for India’s defence forces.
- Established in:
-
- Formed in 2001, based on the recommendations of the Group of Ministers on National Security Reform after the Kargil War.
- Chaired by: Defence Minister of India currently Rajnath Singh.
- Functions:
-
- Grant Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for capital acquisitions.
- Categorize acquisitions into Buy, Buy & Make, or Make categories.
- Approve the 15-Year Long-Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTPP).
- Monitor major procurement projects and ensure progress with regular feedback.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Statement 1 is incorrect — the Defence Minister chairs the DAC, not the Chief of Defence Staff, who may be a member or part of deliberations.
DAC grants AoN for all major capital acquisitions, including those above financial thresholds like ₹500 crore, although the exact threshold may vary based on delegation of powers.
The DAC was created post the Kargil War as part of structural reforms suggested by the Group of Ministers.
About Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
- What it is:
-
- The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the apex body under the Ministry of Defence that oversees capital acquisitions for India’s defence forces.
- Established in:
-
- Formed in 2001, based on the recommendations of the Group of Ministers on National Security Reform after the Kargil War.
- Chaired by: Defence Minister of India currently Rajnath Singh.
- Functions:
-
- Grant Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for capital acquisitions.
- Categorize acquisitions into Buy, Buy & Make, or Make categories.
- Approve the 15-Year Long-Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTPP).
- Monitor major procurement projects and ensure progress with regular feedback.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
Statement-I: Deworming is an important strategy under the Anemia Mukt Bharat initiative.
Statement-II: Helminth infections interfere with iron absorption, thereby contributing to anemia.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: A
Both statements are correct, and Statement II provides the scientific rationale behind Statement I.
Worm infestations—particularly soil-transmitted helminths like hookworm—cause chronic blood loss and impair iron absorption.
Deworming, therefore, is a proven method to reduce anemia, especially among school-age children and adolescents. AMB rightly integrates this as a biannual intervention.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Both statements are correct, and Statement II provides the scientific rationale behind Statement I.
Worm infestations—particularly soil-transmitted helminths like hookworm—cause chronic blood loss and impair iron absorption.
Deworming, therefore, is a proven method to reduce anemia, especially among school-age children and adolescents. AMB rightly integrates this as a biannual intervention.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Raisina Dialogue:
- It was conceptualized as India’s response to the Munich Security Conference and Shangri-La Dialogue.
- The event is held biennially in New Delhi to ensure comprehensive discussions.
- The conference covers non-traditional security challenges such as cyber threats and climate security.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct – Raisina Dialogue was designed as India’s equivalent of the Munich Security Conference (Germany) and Shangri-La Dialogue (Singapore).
- Statement 2 is incorrect – The conference is held annually, not biennially.
- Statement 3 is correct – It covers non-traditional security areas, including cybersecurity, technology governance, and climate change.
- What is the Raisina Dialogue?
-
- India’s flagship international conference on geopolitics and geo-economics, organized annually.
- Aims to bring together global leaders, policymakers, academics, and strategic experts.
- Started in: 2016, as an initiative of the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) and Observer Research Foundation (ORF).
- Ministry Involved: Ministry of External Affairs (MEA).
- Aim:
-
- Foster global discussions on diplomacy, security, and economic policies.
- Enhance India’s role as a key player in international affairs.
- Strengthen cooperation between nations on pressing global issues.
- Key Features:
-
- High-level participation from global leaders, diplomats, and experts.
- Panel discussions, keynote addresses, and networking sessions.
- Focus on emerging challenges in security, technology, and governance.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct – Raisina Dialogue was designed as India’s equivalent of the Munich Security Conference (Germany) and Shangri-La Dialogue (Singapore).
- Statement 2 is incorrect – The conference is held annually, not biennially.
- Statement 3 is correct – It covers non-traditional security areas, including cybersecurity, technology governance, and climate change.
- What is the Raisina Dialogue?
-
- India’s flagship international conference on geopolitics and geo-economics, organized annually.
- Aims to bring together global leaders, policymakers, academics, and strategic experts.
- Started in: 2016, as an initiative of the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) and Observer Research Foundation (ORF).
- Ministry Involved: Ministry of External Affairs (MEA).
- Aim:
-
- Foster global discussions on diplomacy, security, and economic policies.
- Enhance India’s role as a key player in international affairs.
- Strengthen cooperation between nations on pressing global issues.
- Key Features:
-
- High-level participation from global leaders, diplomats, and experts.
- Panel discussions, keynote addresses, and networking sessions.
- Focus on emerging challenges in security, technology, and governance.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich Article of the Constitution of India mandates that the Lok Sabha shall, “as soon as may be,” choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker?
Correct
Solution: B
- Article 93 of the Constitution of India is the foundational provision for the offices of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
- It explicitly states: “The House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker thereof and, so often as the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker becomes vacant, the House shall choose another member to be Speaker or Deputy Speaker, as the case may be.”
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Article 93 of the Constitution of India is the foundational provision for the offices of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
- It explicitly states: “The House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker thereof and, so often as the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker becomes vacant, the House shall choose another member to be Speaker or Deputy Speaker, as the case may be.”
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Statement-I: The office of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is crucial for ensuring the continuity of parliamentary proceedings and upholding institutional neutrality.
Statement-II: The Deputy Speaker automatically becomes the chairperson of any parliamentary committee if appointed as a member of that committee.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: B
Statement-I is correct. The office of the Deputy Speaker plays a vital role in ensuring the uninterrupted functioning of the Lok Sabha, especially when the Speaker is absent or the office of the Speaker is vacant. This continuity is essential for legislative business. Furthermore, the Deputy Speaker, particularly when the convention of appointing an opposition member is followed, contributes to institutional neutrality and balance in legislative debates.
Statement-II is also correct. It is a significant parliamentary convention and rule that if the Deputy Speaker is appointed as a member of any parliamentary committee, they automatically become its chairperson. This underscores the importance and seniority associated with the office of the Deputy Speaker within the committee system of the Parliament.
However, Statement-II, while correct, is not the direct or primary explanation for why the office of the Deputy Speaker is crucial for ensuring continuity of proceedings and institutional neutrality (Statement-I).
Incorrect
Solution: B
Statement-I is correct. The office of the Deputy Speaker plays a vital role in ensuring the uninterrupted functioning of the Lok Sabha, especially when the Speaker is absent or the office of the Speaker is vacant. This continuity is essential for legislative business. Furthermore, the Deputy Speaker, particularly when the convention of appointing an opposition member is followed, contributes to institutional neutrality and balance in legislative debates.
Statement-II is also correct. It is a significant parliamentary convention and rule that if the Deputy Speaker is appointed as a member of any parliamentary committee, they automatically become its chairperson. This underscores the importance and seniority associated with the office of the Deputy Speaker within the committee system of the Parliament.
However, Statement-II, while correct, is not the direct or primary explanation for why the office of the Deputy Speaker is crucial for ensuring continuity of proceedings and institutional neutrality (Statement-I).
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following types of weather forecasts is most critically dependent on the immediate assimilation of real-time data from sources like Doppler radar and geostationary satellites for issuing alerts for rapidly developing severe weather phenomena like thunderstorms or squall lines?
Correct
Solution: C
- Nowcasting refers to weather forecasting with a validity period of 0 to 6 hours. Its primary purpose is to provide ultra-short-term, highly localized, and frequently updated weather information, especially concerning hazardous weather phenomena such as thunderstorms, heavy rain, hailstorms, squall lines, and tornadoes.
- The critical characteristic of nowcasting is its heavy reliance on the rapid assimilation and interpretation of real-time observational data.
- Doppler weather radars are crucial for detecting precipitation structure, intensity, wind fields within storms, and early signs of severe weather development.
- Geostationary satellites provide continuous imagery of cloud patterns, movement, and growth, which is vital for tracking storm systems.
- This continuous stream of high-resolution data allows forecasters to issue timely warnings and advisories, which are essential for public safety and mitigating the impact of sudden, severe weather events.
Short-range forecasts (1–3 days) and medium-range forecasts (4–10 days) primarily rely on Numerical Weather Prediction (NWP) models, which simulate atmospheric dynamics. While they also use observational data as initial conditions, the emphasis is more on model physics and longer-term atmospheric evolution.
Long-range forecasts (beyond 10 days to seasons/years) focus on broader climatic patterns like monsoons and involve complex ocean-atmosphere interactions, using statistical and dynamical models rather than immediate, high-frequency radar/satellite data for severe weather alerts.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Nowcasting refers to weather forecasting with a validity period of 0 to 6 hours. Its primary purpose is to provide ultra-short-term, highly localized, and frequently updated weather information, especially concerning hazardous weather phenomena such as thunderstorms, heavy rain, hailstorms, squall lines, and tornadoes.
- The critical characteristic of nowcasting is its heavy reliance on the rapid assimilation and interpretation of real-time observational data.
- Doppler weather radars are crucial for detecting precipitation structure, intensity, wind fields within storms, and early signs of severe weather development.
- Geostationary satellites provide continuous imagery of cloud patterns, movement, and growth, which is vital for tracking storm systems.
- This continuous stream of high-resolution data allows forecasters to issue timely warnings and advisories, which are essential for public safety and mitigating the impact of sudden, severe weather events.
Short-range forecasts (1–3 days) and medium-range forecasts (4–10 days) primarily rely on Numerical Weather Prediction (NWP) models, which simulate atmospheric dynamics. While they also use observational data as initial conditions, the emphasis is more on model physics and longer-term atmospheric evolution.
Long-range forecasts (beyond 10 days to seasons/years) focus on broader climatic patterns like monsoons and involve complex ocean-atmosphere interactions, using statistical and dynamical models rather than immediate, high-frequency radar/satellite data for severe weather alerts.
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