
The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the amended International Health Regulations (IHR):
- The introduction of the “pandemic emergency” category replaces the existing Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) framework.
- The amendments empower the World Health Organization (WHO) to mandate domestic policies like lockdowns in member states.
- A Coordinating Financial Mechanism has been established to assist developing countries in their pandemic preparedness and response efforts.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The “pandemic emergency” is a new sub-category or a higher tier of alert built upon the PHEIC framework. It does not replace PHEIC but rather provides a mechanism to signal a more severe global threat that requires a more intensive, coordinated international response. An event must first meet the criteria for a PHEIC before it can be considered for a pandemic emergency declaration.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The amendments explicitly clarify that the WHO does not gain any authority over the sovereignty of member states. Countries retain full control over their domestic legislative and public health policies, such as implementing lockdowns or travel restrictions. The IHR framework operates on the principle of cooperation and guidance, not enforcement of domestic laws.
- Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the amendments is the establishment of a Coordinating Financial Mechanism. This is designed to promote equity by providing financial resources and support to developing nations, helping them build and sustain the core capacities required under the IHR for pandemic prevention, preparedness, and response.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect. The “pandemic emergency” is a new sub-category or a higher tier of alert built upon the PHEIC framework. It does not replace PHEIC but rather provides a mechanism to signal a more severe global threat that requires a more intensive, coordinated international response. An event must first meet the criteria for a PHEIC before it can be considered for a pandemic emergency declaration.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The amendments explicitly clarify that the WHO does not gain any authority over the sovereignty of member states. Countries retain full control over their domestic legislative and public health policies, such as implementing lockdowns or travel restrictions. The IHR framework operates on the principle of cooperation and guidance, not enforcement of domestic laws.
- Statement 3 is correct. A key feature of the amendments is the establishment of a Coordinating Financial Mechanism. This is designed to promote equity by providing financial resources and support to developing nations, helping them build and sustain the core capacities required under the IHR for pandemic prevention, preparedness, and response.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Environmental Surveillance for public health, which of the following is its most significant advantage over traditional clinical surveillance?
Correct
Solution: B
- Option (a) is incorrect. Environmental surveillance is non-invasive and community-focused. It detects the presence of pathogens in a collective sample (like wastewater from a specific area) but cannot trace the infection back to a particular person. This preserves individual privacy while providing community-level data.
- Option (b) is correct. The core strength of environmental surveillance is its role as an early warning system. Pathogens are often shed in feces or respiratory droplets by infected individuals (including asymptomatic ones) before they develop symptoms and seek medical care. Detecting these pathogens in wastewater can signal a rise in community transmission 7-10 days before an increase in clinically confirmed cases becomes apparent, giving authorities valuable lead time to prepare healthcare systems and implement public health measures.
- Option (c) is incorrect. The methodology is versatile and applicable to a wide range of pathogens, including viruses (like Polio, COVID-19), bacteria (like Cholera, Typhoid), and parasites.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Option (a) is incorrect. Environmental surveillance is non-invasive and community-focused. It detects the presence of pathogens in a collective sample (like wastewater from a specific area) but cannot trace the infection back to a particular person. This preserves individual privacy while providing community-level data.
- Option (b) is correct. The core strength of environmental surveillance is its role as an early warning system. Pathogens are often shed in feces or respiratory droplets by infected individuals (including asymptomatic ones) before they develop symptoms and seek medical care. Detecting these pathogens in wastewater can signal a rise in community transmission 7-10 days before an increase in clinically confirmed cases becomes apparent, giving authorities valuable lead time to prepare healthcare systems and implement public health measures.
- Option (c) is incorrect. The methodology is versatile and applicable to a wide range of pathogens, including viruses (like Polio, COVID-19), bacteria (like Cholera, Typhoid), and parasites.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding DigiLocker:
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Home Affairs to securely store citizen documents.
- Documents issued and stored in DigiLocker are considered legally on par with original physical documents.
- The platform allows real-time verification of documents by government agencies without requiring the citizen’s explicit consent for each transaction.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect. DigiLocker is a flagship initiative under the Digital India program, developed and managed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its purpose is to facilitate digital empowerment and paperless governance.
- Statement 2 is correct. As per Rule 9A of the Information Technology (Preservation and Retention of Information by Intermediaries providing Digital Locker facilities) Rules, 2016, documents made available by an issuer in a subscriber’s Digital Locker account are deemed to be equivalent to the original physical documents. This legal recognition is the cornerstone of its utility.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The DigiLocker framework is built on a consent-based architecture. Citizens have full control over their documents. While it enables real-time verification, government agencies or other entities can only access a specific document after the citizen provides explicit consent for that particular sharing request, typically through an OTP-based mechanism. This ensures user privacy and data protection.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is incorrect. DigiLocker is a flagship initiative under the Digital India program, developed and managed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Its purpose is to facilitate digital empowerment and paperless governance.
- Statement 2 is correct. As per Rule 9A of the Information Technology (Preservation and Retention of Information by Intermediaries providing Digital Locker facilities) Rules, 2016, documents made available by an issuer in a subscriber’s Digital Locker account are deemed to be equivalent to the original physical documents. This legal recognition is the cornerstone of its utility.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The DigiLocker framework is built on a consent-based architecture. Citizens have full control over their documents. While it enables real-time verification, government agencies or other entities can only access a specific document after the citizen provides explicit consent for that particular sharing request, typically through an OTP-based mechanism. This ensures user privacy and data protection.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Pulses Mission (2025–31):
- The mission guarantees 100% procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Tur, Urad, and Masoor for the entire duration of the mission.
- A key component of the mission is the establishment of post-harvest processing units with financial subsidies.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct. A significant feature designed to boost farmer confidence and ensure income stability is the provision for 100% procurement of Tur, Urad, and Masoor at MSP. This assurance is given for four years, which falls within the mission’s six-year tenure, making it a correct statement about a key mission strategy.
- Statement 2 is correct. To strengthen the value chain beyond just production, the mission includes robust infrastructure support. It aims to establish 1,000 post-harvest processing units (like dal mills) and provides a substantial subsidy of up to ₹25 lakh for each unit, encouraging value addition at the local level.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement 1 is correct. A significant feature designed to boost farmer confidence and ensure income stability is the provision for 100% procurement of Tur, Urad, and Masoor at MSP. This assurance is given for four years, which falls within the mission’s six-year tenure, making it a correct statement about a key mission strategy.
- Statement 2 is correct. To strengthen the value chain beyond just production, the mission includes robust infrastructure support. It aims to establish 1,000 post-harvest processing units (like dal mills) and provides a substantial subsidy of up to ₹25 lakh for each unit, encouraging value addition at the local level.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Genome sequencing of pathogens from environmental samples is primarily used to estimate the total number of infected individuals in a population.
- The SATHI portal is an initiative to monitor the distribution of free food grains under the National Food Security Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Genome sequencing is used to identify the genetic makeup of a pathogen. Its primary public health applications are to track the emergence and spread of new variants, monitor for mutations (e.g., those affecting transmissibility, severity, or vaccine effectiveness), and understand transmission chains. It is not used to estimate the total number of infected people; that is done by analyzing the pathogen load or concentration in the sample.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The SATHI (Seed Authentication, Traceability and Holistic Inventory) portal is associated with the National Pulses Mission. Its purpose is to monitor the distribution and quality of certified seeds, not food grains. This ensures that farmers receive authentic, high-quality seeds for cultivation.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Genome sequencing is used to identify the genetic makeup of a pathogen. Its primary public health applications are to track the emergence and spread of new variants, monitor for mutations (e.g., those affecting transmissibility, severity, or vaccine effectiveness), and understand transmission chains. It is not used to estimate the total number of infected people; that is done by analyzing the pathogen load or concentration in the sample.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. The SATHI (Seed Authentication, Traceability and Holistic Inventory) portal is associated with the National Pulses Mission. Its purpose is to monitor the distribution and quality of certified seeds, not food grains. This ensures that farmers receive authentic, high-quality seeds for cultivation.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the amended International Health Regulations (IHR):
- The amendments to the International Health Regulations (IHR) aim to create a more equitable global response to pandemics.
- The amendments introduce binding obligations on developed nations to share medical products and technology during a pandemic emergency.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct. A central theme of the 2024 amendments is to address the inequities observed during the COVID-19 pandemic. The goal is to foster solidarity and ensure that all countries, regardless of their economic status, can effectively respond to health emergencies.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. While the amendments strongly emphasize fairness, solidarity, and equitable access to medical products, they do not create legally binding obligations in the sense of forcing technology transfer or mandatory product sharing in the way suggested. The framework promotes cooperation and mechanisms for access but respects national sovereignty and intellectual property rights. The emphasis is on collaborative and voluntary frameworks for sharing, not legally enforceable mandates.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Statement 1 is correct. A central theme of the 2024 amendments is to address the inequities observed during the COVID-19 pandemic. The goal is to foster solidarity and ensure that all countries, regardless of their economic status, can effectively respond to health emergencies.
- Statement 2 is incorrect. While the amendments strongly emphasize fairness, solidarity, and equitable access to medical products, they do not create legally binding obligations in the sense of forcing technology transfer or mandatory product sharing in the way suggested. The framework promotes cooperation and mechanisms for access but respects national sovereignty and intellectual property rights. The emphasis is on collaborative and voluntary frameworks for sharing, not legally enforceable mandates.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA):
Statement I: The FCRA, 2010, is a law to regulate the acceptance and utilisation of foreign donations by individuals and associations in India.
Statement II: The Union Ministry of Finance is the nodal ministry for the registration, monitoring, and enforcement of the FCRA.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement I is correct. The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010, is a comprehensive piece of legislation enacted to regulate the inflow and use of foreign contributions by individuals and associations in India. The primary aim is to ensure that such funds are used for their intended purpose and do not undermine the values of a sovereign democratic republic.
- Statement II is incorrect. The nodal ministry responsible for the administration of the FCRA, including registration, monitoring, and enforcement, is the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), not the Ministry of Finance. This underscores the national security and internal affairs dimension of regulating foreign funds. The MHA’s role is crucial in preventing foreign powers from interfering in India’s internal matters through financial channels.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement I is correct. The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA), 2010, is a comprehensive piece of legislation enacted to regulate the inflow and use of foreign contributions by individuals and associations in India. The primary aim is to ensure that such funds are used for their intended purpose and do not undermine the values of a sovereign democratic republic.
- Statement II is incorrect. The nodal ministry responsible for the administration of the FCRA, including registration, monitoring, and enforcement, is the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA), not the Ministry of Finance. This underscores the national security and internal affairs dimension of regulating foreign funds. The MHA’s role is crucial in preventing foreign powers from interfering in India’s internal matters through financial channels.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsMatch the following pairs correctly:
List I (Social Reformer) List II (Key Contribution) A. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar 1. Founded the Brahmo Samaj B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy 2. Authored ‘Borno Porichoy’ C. Swami Vivekananda 3. Championed the cause of the depressed classes and untouchables D. B.R. Ambedkar 4. Addressed the Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
- Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar is correctly matched with 2. Authored ‘Borno Porichoy’. This primer for the Bengali alphabet, published in 1855, is a foundational text in Bengali education and is still in use today. Vidyasagar is revered as the “Father of Modern Bengali Prose” for his contributions to the language.
- Raja Ram Mohan Roy is correctly matched with 1. Founded the Brahmo Samaj. He founded the Brahmo Sabha in 1828, which later became the Brahmo Samaj. This was a monotheistic reformist movement that challenged idol worship, the caste system, and other social evils.
- Swami Vivekananda is correctly matched with 4. Addressed the Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago. His famous speech in 1893 introduced Hinduism to the Western world and established him as a leading spiritual figure.
- B.R. Ambedkar is correctly matched with 3. Championed the cause of the depressed classes and untouchables. He was a lifelong advocate for the rights of the Dalits, fighting against the caste system and working for their social and political empowerment. He was the architect of the Indian Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar is correctly matched with 2. Authored ‘Borno Porichoy’. This primer for the Bengali alphabet, published in 1855, is a foundational text in Bengali education and is still in use today. Vidyasagar is revered as the “Father of Modern Bengali Prose” for his contributions to the language.
- Raja Ram Mohan Roy is correctly matched with 1. Founded the Brahmo Samaj. He founded the Brahmo Sabha in 1828, which later became the Brahmo Samaj. This was a monotheistic reformist movement that challenged idol worship, the caste system, and other social evils.
- Swami Vivekananda is correctly matched with 4. Addressed the Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago. His famous speech in 1893 introduced Hinduism to the Western world and established him as a leading spiritual figure.
- B.R. Ambedkar is correctly matched with 3. Championed the cause of the depressed classes and untouchables. He was a lifelong advocate for the rights of the Dalits, fighting against the caste system and working for their social and political empowerment. He was the architect of the Indian Constitution.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements best describes ‘Soilification Technology’?
Correct
Solution: B
Option (a) is incorrect because ‘soilification’ uses indigenous bioformulations, not imported chemical fertilizers, and it is a low-cost method that does not rely on heavy machinery.
Option (b) is the most accurate description. Soilification technology is a biotechnology-based method that transforms loose desert sand into a soil-like medium suitable for farming. It achieves this by using indigenous bioformulations and polymers to improve the fertility and water retention capacity of the sand. This process enhances microbial activity, improves nutrient cycling, and creates a structured soil from loose sand.
Option (c) is incorrect because the technology has been successfully trialled on multiple crops, including wheat, bajra, guar gum, and chickpea, indicating its adaptability to various crops, not just a single one.
Option (d) is incorrect because soilification is a modern biotechnology-based method, not a traditional farming practice. While it does contribute to water conservation by reducing irrigation requirements, its primary function is soil creation and restoration.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Option (a) is incorrect because ‘soilification’ uses indigenous bioformulations, not imported chemical fertilizers, and it is a low-cost method that does not rely on heavy machinery.
Option (b) is the most accurate description. Soilification technology is a biotechnology-based method that transforms loose desert sand into a soil-like medium suitable for farming. It achieves this by using indigenous bioformulations and polymers to improve the fertility and water retention capacity of the sand. This process enhances microbial activity, improves nutrient cycling, and creates a structured soil from loose sand.
Option (c) is incorrect because the technology has been successfully trialled on multiple crops, including wheat, bajra, guar gum, and chickpea, indicating its adaptability to various crops, not just a single one.
Option (d) is incorrect because soilification is a modern biotechnology-based method, not a traditional farming practice. While it does contribute to water conservation by reducing irrigation requirements, its primary function is soil creation and restoration.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA), consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Governor of a State or the Central Government can declare an area as “disturbed” under Section 3 of the Act.
Statement II: The Act grants legal immunity to armed forces personnel, and no prosecution can be initiated against them without the prior sanction of the State Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution: C
- Statement I is correct. Under Section 3 of the AFSPA, the power to declare an area as “disturbed” is vested in the Governor of a State, the Administrator of a Union Territory, or the Central Government. This declaration is made when the concerned authority is of the opinion that the area is in such a dangerous or disturbed condition that the use of armed forces in aid of the civil power is necessary.
Statement II is incorrect. The Act does grant legal immunity to armed forces personnel, but the sanction for prosecution is required from the Central Government, not the State Government.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Statement I is correct. Under Section 3 of the AFSPA, the power to declare an area as “disturbed” is vested in the Governor of a State, the Administrator of a Union Territory, or the Central Government. This declaration is made when the concerned authority is of the opinion that the area is in such a dangerous or disturbed condition that the use of armed forces in aid of the civil power is necessary.
Statement II is incorrect. The Act does grant legal immunity to armed forces personnel, but the sanction for prosecution is required from the Central Government, not the State Government.
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