
The Current Affairs Quiz is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements accurately describes the potential effects of the deep-winter heatwave in Antarctica?
- It could lead to a reduction in the Antarctic Ice Sheet, raising global sea levels.
- It might disrupt the global ocean circulation system, which regulates climate.
- It could strengthen the polar vortex, leading to colder global temperatures.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The deep-winter heatwave in Antarctica could lead to a reduction in the Antarctic Ice Sheet, raising global sea levels, and might disrupt the global ocean circulation system, which plays a crucial role in regulating climate.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the heatwave is associated with a weakening, not strengthening, of the polar vortex.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The deep-winter heatwave in Antarctica could lead to a reduction in the Antarctic Ice Sheet, raising global sea levels, and might disrupt the global ocean circulation system, which plays a crucial role in regulating climate.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the heatwave is associated with a weakening, not strengthening, of the polar vortex.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following cases expanded the scope of Article 21 to include the right to live with dignity?
Correct
Solution: B
The Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India case expanded the interpretation of Article 21, which initially only protected against the deprivation of life and personal liberty, to include the right to live with dignity, ensuring that any law affecting this right must be fair, just, and reasonable.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India case expanded the interpretation of Article 21, which initially only protected against the deprivation of life and personal liberty, to include the right to live with dignity, ensuring that any law affecting this right must be fair, just, and reasonable.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the types of silk produced in India.
- India is unique in producing all five major types of commercially important silk.
- Mulberry silk is considered a wild silk, while the others are cultivated silks.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
India is unique in producing all five major types of commercially important silk, which are derived from different species of silkworms. These types include Mulberry, Oak Tasar, Tropical Tasar, Muga, and Eri.
Among these, Mulberry silk is cultivated, while the others, known as vanya silks, are wild silks.
Incorrect
Solution: A
India is unique in producing all five major types of commercially important silk, which are derived from different species of silkworms. These types include Mulberry, Oak Tasar, Tropical Tasar, Muga, and Eri.
Among these, Mulberry silk is cultivated, while the others, known as vanya silks, are wild silks.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the criteria for declaring a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC):
- The event must be extraordinary and pose a public health risk to other states through the international spread of disease.
- The event must have a high fatality rate.
- The event must potentially require a coordinated international response.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Statement 1 is correct as an extraordinary event that poses a public health risk to other states through the international spread of disease is a key criterion for declaring a PHEIC.
Statement 3 is also correct because a PHEIC may require a coordinated international response.
Statement 2 is incorrect because a high fatality rate is not a necessary criterion for declaring a PHEIC.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Statement 1 is correct as an extraordinary event that poses a public health risk to other states through the international spread of disease is a key criterion for declaring a PHEIC.
Statement 3 is also correct because a PHEIC may require a coordinated international response.
Statement 2 is incorrect because a high fatality rate is not a necessary criterion for declaring a PHEIC.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the “Super Blue Moon”:
- A “Super Moon” occurs when a full moon is at its farthest point from Earth in its orbit, making it appear larger and brighter.
- A “Blue Moon” refers to the second full moon in a calendar month or the third full moon in a season with four full moons.
- The occurrence of a “Super Moon” and a “Blue Moon” together is a common astronomical event.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: B
Only Statement 2 is correct.
- “Super Blue Moon“ combines two rare phenomena: a “blue moon” and a “super moon.”
- Blue Moon: Contrary to what the term suggests, a blue moon isn’t necessarily blue in color. It refers to a second full moon within a single calendar month, or, less commonly, the third full moon in a season with four full moons.This phenomenon happens every two or three years.
- Super Moon: This occurs when a full moon is at its closest point to Earth in its elliptical orbit, known as perigee.This proximity makes the moon appear about 14% larger and 30% brighter compared to when it’s at its farthest point, or apogee.
- While the term “blue moon” might imply a rare occurrence, the sighting of a supermoon and blue moon together is indeed rare.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Only Statement 2 is correct.
- “Super Blue Moon“ combines two rare phenomena: a “blue moon” and a “super moon.”
- Blue Moon: Contrary to what the term suggests, a blue moon isn’t necessarily blue in color. It refers to a second full moon within a single calendar month, or, less commonly, the third full moon in a season with four full moons.This phenomenon happens every two or three years.
- Super Moon: This occurs when a full moon is at its closest point to Earth in its elliptical orbit, known as perigee.This proximity makes the moon appear about 14% larger and 30% brighter compared to when it’s at its farthest point, or apogee.
- While the term “blue moon” might imply a rare occurrence, the sighting of a supermoon and blue moon together is indeed rare.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements regarding prokaryotes in marine ecosystems is correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Prokaryotes, including bacteria and archaea, play a fundamental role in marine ecosystems by facilitating nutrient cycling, carbon fixation, and decomposition. They form the base of the microbial food web, supporting marine food chains by serving as primary producers (through processes like chemosynthesis and nitrogen fixation) and decomposers (breaking down organic matter).
- Prokaryotes drive major biogeochemical cycles, including the carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur cycles, regulating ocean chemistry and atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.
- They act as primary decomposers, breaking down organic matter and recycling nutrients for higher trophic levels.
- As ocean temperatures rise, marine biodiversity is expected to decline, but prokaryotes may show resilience due to their adaptability, potentially increasing their dominance in marine ecosystems.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Prokaryotes, including bacteria and archaea, play a fundamental role in marine ecosystems by facilitating nutrient cycling, carbon fixation, and decomposition. They form the base of the microbial food web, supporting marine food chains by serving as primary producers (through processes like chemosynthesis and nitrogen fixation) and decomposers (breaking down organic matter).
- Prokaryotes drive major biogeochemical cycles, including the carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur cycles, regulating ocean chemistry and atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.
- They act as primary decomposers, breaking down organic matter and recycling nutrients for higher trophic levels.
- As ocean temperatures rise, marine biodiversity is expected to decline, but prokaryotes may show resilience due to their adaptability, potentially increasing their dominance in marine ecosystems.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following best describes the immediate physiological response of the body during anaphylaxis?
Correct
Solution: C
Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. It can happen seconds or minutes after you’ve been exposed to something you’re allergic to.
- Peanuts or bee stings are examples.
In anaphylaxis, the immune system releases a flood of chemicals that can cause the body to go into shock.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. It can happen seconds or minutes after you’ve been exposed to something you’re allergic to.
- Peanuts or bee stings are examples.
In anaphylaxis, the immune system releases a flood of chemicals that can cause the body to go into shock.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ASHA workers:
- ASHAs are selected from their local communities to ensure better communication and trust.
- They receive a fixed monthly salary under the National Health Mission (NHM).
- ASHAs play a role in disease surveillance and outbreak prevention.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) are key community health workers under the National Health Mission (NHM), playing a crucial role in last-mile healthcare delivery.
- Statement 1 is correct: ASHAs are selected from within their local communities to foster better trust and communication with the people they serve. Their familiarity with the region, culture, and language enhances their effectiveness in providing healthcare support, spreading awareness, and mobilizing communities for health initiatives.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: ASHAs do not receive a fixed salary but are paid through performance-based incentives. These incentives are provided for services such as promoting institutional deliveries, ensuring child immunization, and encouraging family planning measures.
- Statement 3 is correct: ASHAs play a significant role in disease surveillance and outbreak prevention by identifying early symptoms of infectious diseases, reporting cases to health authorities, and assisting in vaccination drives and community health programs. Their grassroots-level engagement helps in controlling disease spread effectively.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) are key community health workers under the National Health Mission (NHM), playing a crucial role in last-mile healthcare delivery.
- Statement 1 is correct: ASHAs are selected from within their local communities to foster better trust and communication with the people they serve. Their familiarity with the region, culture, and language enhances their effectiveness in providing healthcare support, spreading awareness, and mobilizing communities for health initiatives.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: ASHAs do not receive a fixed salary but are paid through performance-based incentives. These incentives are provided for services such as promoting institutional deliveries, ensuring child immunization, and encouraging family planning measures.
- Statement 3 is correct: ASHAs play a significant role in disease surveillance and outbreak prevention by identifying early symptoms of infectious diseases, reporting cases to health authorities, and assisting in vaccination drives and community health programs. Their grassroots-level engagement helps in controlling disease spread effectively.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following aspects of the UNESCO Tentative List:
- Only sites owned by the national government can be included in the list.
- Countries can modify their Tentative List by adding or removing sites over time.
- The final decision to include a site on the World Heritage List is taken by UNESCO’s World Heritage Committee.
- Sites on the Tentative List automatically receive UNESCO funding for conservation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The UNESCO Tentative List is an essential step in the process of getting a site inscribed as a World Heritage Site. Each country submits its list of potential sites, which may later be nominated for official recognition.
- Statement 1 is incorrect: A site does not have to be owned by the national government to be included in the Tentative List. It can be privately owned or managed by local or state governments, as long as it holds cultural or natural significance and meets the eligibility criteria.
- Statement 2 is correct: Countries can modify their Tentative List over time by adding or removing sites based on new findings, conservation priorities, or changes in site conditions. This flexibility allows them to refine their nominations.
- Statement 3 is correct: The World Heritage Committee of UNESCO is responsible for evaluating nominations and making the final decision on whether a site gets inscribed as a World Heritage Site.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: Being on the Tentative List does not guarantee UNESCO funding. While inclusion is a prerequisite for nomination, financial assistance for conservation depends on additional approvals, grant applications, and UNESCO’s World Heritage Fund allocations.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The UNESCO Tentative List is an essential step in the process of getting a site inscribed as a World Heritage Site. Each country submits its list of potential sites, which may later be nominated for official recognition.
- Statement 1 is incorrect: A site does not have to be owned by the national government to be included in the Tentative List. It can be privately owned or managed by local or state governments, as long as it holds cultural or natural significance and meets the eligibility criteria.
- Statement 2 is correct: Countries can modify their Tentative List over time by adding or removing sites based on new findings, conservation priorities, or changes in site conditions. This flexibility allows them to refine their nominations.
- Statement 3 is correct: The World Heritage Committee of UNESCO is responsible for evaluating nominations and making the final decision on whether a site gets inscribed as a World Heritage Site.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: Being on the Tentative List does not guarantee UNESCO funding. While inclusion is a prerequisite for nomination, financial assistance for conservation depends on additional approvals, grant applications, and UNESCO’s World Heritage Fund allocations.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Chausath Yogini Temples (Multiple States):
- The temples follow a linear architectural pattern, distinct from other circular Yogini temples.
- They contain idols of Buddhist deities, indicating their influence from Mahayana Buddhism.
- These temples were mainly built during the rule of the Chola dynasty in South India.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: C
Chausath Yogini Temples are significant Hindu temples associated with Tantric worship, known for their unique architectural and religious aspects.
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Unlike most traditional Hindu temples, Chausath Yogini temples follow a circular architectural layout rather than a linear one. The circular design is believed to facilitate tantric rituals and meditation, with the central deity often placed in the middle. Examples include the Chausath Yogini temples at Mitawali (Madhya Pradesh) and Hirapur (Odisha).
- Statement 2 is incorrect: These temples are dedicated to the 64 Yoginis, who are considered fierce manifestations of the Goddess Shakti in Hinduism. There is no direct connection to Buddhist deities or Mahayana Buddhism, as the Yogini cult is firmly rooted in Tantric Hindu traditions.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chausath Yogini temples were primarily built between the 9th and 12th centuries during the Kalachuri and Chandela dynasties, mostly in North and Central India. The Chola dynasty, which ruled in South India, did not construct these temples.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Chausath Yogini Temples are significant Hindu temples associated with Tantric worship, known for their unique architectural and religious aspects.
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Unlike most traditional Hindu temples, Chausath Yogini temples follow a circular architectural layout rather than a linear one. The circular design is believed to facilitate tantric rituals and meditation, with the central deity often placed in the middle. Examples include the Chausath Yogini temples at Mitawali (Madhya Pradesh) and Hirapur (Odisha).
- Statement 2 is incorrect: These temples are dedicated to the 64 Yoginis, who are considered fierce manifestations of the Goddess Shakti in Hinduism. There is no direct connection to Buddhist deities or Mahayana Buddhism, as the Yogini cult is firmly rooted in Tantric Hindu traditions.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chausath Yogini temples were primarily built between the 9th and 12th centuries during the Kalachuri and Chandela dynasties, mostly in North and Central India. The Chola dynasty, which ruled in South India, did not construct these temples.
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