UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 8 July 2025

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) are specifically designed to use natural uranium as their fuel, not enriched uranium. This is a significant advantage as it avoids the expensive and technologically complex process of uranium enrichment. The use of heavy water as a moderator makes this possible due to its excellent neutron economy.
• Statement 2 is correct. Heavy water (Deuterium oxide, D₂O) is a key component of PHWRs. It acts as a moderator, slowing down the fast neutrons produced during fission to a thermal energy level, which is necessary to sustain the chain reaction with natural uranium. Simultaneously, it functions as a coolant, transferring the heat generated in the reactor core to the steam generators to produce electricity.
• Statement 3 is correct. A distinct feature of Indian PHWRs is the online refuelling This allows for the replacement of spent fuel bundles while the reactor is still operational. This process enhances the reactor’s efficiency and availability by eliminating the need for lengthy shutdowns for refuelling, leading to a higher capacity factor and continuous power supply.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The natural hosts and reservoirs of the Nipah virus are fruit bats belonging to the Pteropodidae family, specifically the Pteropus These bats can carry the virus without showing symptoms and can transmit it to other animals, like pigs, or directly to humans through contaminated fruits or their bodily fluids like saliva and urine.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. Human-to-human transmission of the Nipah virus is well-documented. It can occur through close contact with an infected person’s respiratory droplets, saliva, or other bodily fluids. This mode of transmission poses a significant risk, especially for family members and healthcare workers caring for infected patients. Several past outbreaks have confirmed clusters of cases arising from a single infected individual.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The incubation period for Nipah virus, which is the time from exposure to the onset of symptoms, is typically much longer than 48 hours. It generally ranges from 4 to 14 days. However, in some rare cases, an incubation period as long as 45 days has been reported. This extended and variable incubation period can make early detection and containment of outbreaks challenging.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The National Biobank is a critical component of the ‘Phenome India’ initiative. This initiative is designed as a longitudinal cohort study, meaning it will track the health of a large group of individuals over an extended period. This long-term approach allows researchers to study the complex interactions between genes, lifestyle, and environment in the development of diseases.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The scope of the National Biobank is much broader than just rare diseases in urban areas. It aims to create a comprehensive database that captures India’s vast ethnic, lifestyle, and health diversity. It collects data on a wide range of conditions, including common non-communicable diseases like diabetes and cardiovascular diseases, as well as cancer and antimicrobial resistance (AMR). The sample collection is designed to represent diversity across geography, caste, and socio-economic conditions, not just urban populations.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The National Biobank was inaugurated at and is developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) – Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (IGIB) in New Delhi. While it is a national initiative supported by the Ministry of Science and Technology, the primary implementing agency is CSIR-IGIB, not the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is incorrect. Penico is not the oldest civilization in the Americas. That distinction belongs to the Caral civilization (c. 3000 BCE). Penico was founded later, between 1800–1500 BCE, and is considered a cultural continuation or a successor civilization that rose to prominence after the decline of Caral. Its discovery provides insights into the societal transition and resilience following Caral’s collapse.
• Statement 2 is correct. One of the key aspects of Penico’s significance is its strategic location in the Barranca Province. Situated on a hillside terrace, it was positioned to serve as a major trade hub. This location allowed it to connect and facilitate the exchange of goods, ideas, and culture between diverse geographical zones: the Pacific coastal societies, the Andean highlands, and the Amazonian region.
• Statement 3 is correct. Archaeological findings at the Penico site have revealed a distinct urban layout. The city is organized around a central circular plaza or structure, which was likely used for ceremonial purposes. Surrounding this central point are numerous buildings, including temples and residential complexes, constructed from locally available materials like stone and mud. This layout provides valuable information about their urban planning and social organization.

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. India has formally expressed concerns and objections regarding proposed changes to the Plant Treaty. The proposals aim to expand the list of crops covered under the Multilateral System (MLS) and make the sharing of all plant germplasm mandatory under a standardized agreement determined by the Treaty’s Governing Body.
• Statement II is also correct, and it provides the precise reason for India’s objection mentioned in Statement I. The core of India’s concern is the issue of national sovereignty. The proposed amendments are seen as a threat to India’s ability to regulate access to its own genetic resources according to its national legislation. Laws such as India’s Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights (PPVFR) Act, 2001, provide specific protections and benefit-sharing mechanisms that could be overridden or diluted if all germplasm must be shared under a uniform, internationally mandated Standard Material Transfer Agreement (SMTA).
• Therefore, the potential undermining of sovereign rights and national laws is the direct cause of India’s objections.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The primary and most reliable method for diagnosing an active Nipah virus infection is the RT-PCR (Real-Time Polymerase Chain Reaction) This test detects the viral RNA directly from bodily fluids like throat swabs or cerebrospinal fluid, providing confirmation of an ongoing infection. The ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) test detects antibodies, which the body produces in response to the virus. While useful for confirming past infection or for sero-surveillance, it is not the primary tool for diagnosing an acute case, as antibodies may not be present in the early stages of illness.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. A significant proportion of survivors of severe Nipah virus infection do experience long-term neurological sequelae. It is reported that about 20% of survivors may suffer from persistent health issues, which can include seizures, personality changes, and other neurological complications.
• Statement 3 is correct. Kerala has launched a comprehensive serological survey in high-risk zones. The key objective of this survey is to understand the spillover dynamics—how the virus moves from its natural reservoir (bats) to intermediate hosts or humans. By using advanced assays to detect antibodies in high-risk human populations (like those with contact with bats) and domestic animals, researchers aim to identify transmission chains and hidden outbreaks, which is crucial for preventing future epidemics.

Solution: A

• Statement I is correct. The 17th BRICS Summit held in Brazil formally welcomed Indonesia as a full member. This was a notable event as Indonesia became the first nation from Southeast Asia to join the intergovernmental forum, thereby geographically extending the bloc’s influence and representation into this economically dynamic region.
• Statement II is also correct. The broader strategic rationale behind the expansion of BRICS into what is now known as BRICS+ is to strengthen its role as a representative of the Global South. By including new members from different continents, the forum aims to promote multipolarity, deepen economic and political cooperation among emerging economies, and create a more influential platform that can serve as a counterbalance to the dominance of Western-led institutions such as the G7.
• Statement II provides the strategic context and explanation for the action described in Statement I.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. The ‘Phenome India’ initiative, and the National Biobank within it, are explicitly modeled after successful international projects like the UK Biobank. However, it is specifically tailored to capture the vast diversity of the Indian population, considering factors like ethnicity, geography, caste, and varying socio-economic conditions, which is crucial for creating a relevant, population-specific health database.
• Statement 2 is correct. A primary goal of establishing this comprehensive biobank is to advance the field of personalised medicine. By collecting and analyzing a rich dataset comprising genomic profiles, lifestyle information, and clinical data, researchers can identify genetic predispositions to diseases and develop gene-guided therapies and AI-powered diagnostics that are more effective for the Indian population.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The scale of the project is significantly larger than described. The Phenome India initiative aims to collect samples and data from over 10,000 individuals, not 1,000. Furthermore, the sample collection is designed to be geographically and demographically representative of the entire country, not limited to just metropolitan cities, to ensure the database reflects India’s true diversity.

Solution: C

• Statement-I is correct. A major goal of CSARC is to boost productivity by providing access to global germplasm and developing high-quality, climate-resilient seeds. India’s current average yield is around 25 tonnes/ha, while the potential is up to 50 tonnes/ha. This significant “yield gap” is precisely what the research and development at CSARC aims to address. By introducing better varieties and farming practices, the centre can play a crucial role in closing this gap.
• Statement-II is incorrect. While India is a major potato producer, it is the second-largest producer globally, after China.

Solution: A

• Statement I makes a general assertion that SAGAR SETU and DCoE were launched to improve port efficiency. This is the main claim to be evaluated.
• Statement II correctly describes the function of SAGAR SETU as a unified digital platform designed to streamline EXIM processes, thereby reducing delays. Reduced delays are a direct measure of enhanced efficiency. Thus, Statement II explains how SAGAR SETU contributes to the goal in Statement I.
• Statement III correctly describes the function of the DCoE, which is to apply advanced technologies like AI and IoT for creating smart ports with a focus on sustainability. Smart, automated, and sustainable operations are hallmarks of modern port efficiency. Thus, Statement III also explains how the DCoE contributes to the goal in Statement I.