UPSC Current Affairs Quiz : 11 June 2025

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Quality Council of India (QCI) is not a statutory body. It was established as an autonomous body and is registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. It promotes quality standards through accreditation and assessment, rather than acting as a regulator with legal enforcement powers.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: QCI operates under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Consumer Affairs. This aligns with its objective of enhancing India’s industrial competitiveness through quality.
• Statement 3 is correct: QCI’s governance is structured as a Public-Private Partnership (PPP). Its Governing Council comprises 39 members with equal representation from the government, industry associations (like CII, FICCI, ASSOCHAM), and other stakeholders, ensuring a balanced and collaborative approach.
• Statement 4 is correct: QCI carries out its key function of accreditation through various specialised boards. These include the National Accreditation Board for Testing and Calibration Laboratories (NABL) and the National Accreditation Board for Hospitals & Healthcare Providers (NABH), which are crucial for ensuring quality in labs and healthcare respectively.

About Quality Council of India (QCI):

• What is QCI?
  • QCI is an autonomous national accreditation body responsible for ensuring quality assurance in products, services, and processes across sectors, through independent third-party assessments.
• Established In: 1996, based on recommendations from an EU Expert Mission and inter-ministerial consultations.
• Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Commerce and Industry (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade – DPIIT)
• Headquarters: Now located at World Trade Centre (WTC), New Delhi
• Objectives of QCI:

• • Promote quality standards across public and private sectors.
  • Provide independent accreditation and third-party assessment.
  • Enhance quality of life and public service delivery through better governance standards.
  • Act as a nodal body to implement National Quality Campaigns aligned with global benchmarks.

• Structure and Governance

• • Public–Private Partnership (PPP) model involving the government and industry associations — CII, FICCI, ASSOCHAM.
  • Registered under Societies Registration Act, 1860.
  • Governing Council of 39 members with equal representation from government, industry, and stakeholders.
  • The Chairperson is nominated by the Prime Minister of India.

• Key Functions of QCI:

• • Accreditation Services: Through bodies like NABL, NABH, NABET, NBQP, ensuring quality in labs, healthcare, environment, etc.
  • Third-party Assessments: Independent evaluation of services, infrastructure, and government programs.
  • Policy Implementation: Supports quality mandates under schemes like Swachh Bharat, Ayushman Bharat, etc.
  • Capacity Building: Trains personnel for quality audits and quality improvement across sectors.
  • Global Collaboration: Aligns India’s quality ecosystem with international benchmarks and WTO standards.

Solution: a)

• Statement-I is correct. A significant policy objective behind the Minimum Support Price (MSP) mechanism is to influence farmers’ cropping patterns. By offering a guaranteed price, the government can signal its preferences. In recent years, due to ecological concerns like declining water tables and soil degradation from cereal monoculture (paddy-wheat cycle), the government has actively used MSP to encourage farmers to diversify into less water-intensive crops like pulses, oilseeds, and millets.

Statement-II is also correct. Analysis of MSP announcements over the past several years shows that the percentage increase in MSP for pulses and oilseeds has often been higher than that for paddy and wheat. This differential pricing strategy is a direct tool to make the cultivation of these alternative crops more remunerative for farmers.

Solution: d)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The sheep is non-transgenic, which is a key feature distinguishing it from a traditional Genetically Modified Organism (GMO). The CRISPR-Cas9 technology was used to edit the sheep’s existing myostatin gene, not to insert foreign DNA. This process is called gene editing, which is distinct from transgenesis. The trait of higher muscle mass is similar to the Texel breed, but the gene itself was not transferred from it.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The editing of the myostatin gene was done to enhance muscle mass by approximately 30%, not to improve wool quality. The myostatin gene is a known regulator of muscle growth in mammals. While the technology can be extended for other purposes, the primary achievement in this specific case was related to meat yield.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: This pioneering research was successfully conducted by the Sher-e-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences and Technology (SKUAST-Kashmir), not directly by the ICAR headquarters in Delhi. While the project was supported by ICAR, the development and breakthrough occurred at SKUAST-Kashmir.

About India’s First Gene-Edited Sheep:

• What It Is?
  • A genetically modified lamb with enhanced muscle mass, developed by editing the myostatin gene, which regulates muscle growth in sheep.
• Developed By: Sher-e-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences and Technology (SKUAST-Kashmir)
• Technology Used:

• • CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing – a Nobel Prize-winning precision genome editing technique.
  • Conducted under international biosafety protocols, ensuring no foreign DNA was inserted.

• Key Features:

• • Muscle Enhancement: 30% higher muscle mass than Indian breeds — a trait found in European breeds like Texel.
  • Non-Transgenic: Does not involve foreign DNA insertion, different from GMOs, increasing chances of regulatory acceptance.
  • Multipurpose Use: Can be extended for disease resistance, improved reproduction, and even animal twinning.
  • Efficient Research Output: Result of 4 years of dedicated research, supported by Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).

• Significance of the Achievement:

• • Boost to India’s Livestock Sector: Offers a blueprint for improving meat yield and quality in Indian sheep breeds.
  • Global Recognition: Positions India on the global map of advanced genome editing research.
  • Biotech Policy Alignment: Supports India’s evolving regulatory framework for gene-edited organisms, which is distinct from GMO laws.
  • Sustainability & Food Security: Enhances productivity per animal, reducing resource use and supporting sustainable livestock farming.
  • Foundation for Future Innovation: Builds on SKUAST’s earlier success of cloning Noori, the world’s first cloned Pashmina goat (2012).

Solution: c)

The Interpol colour-coded notice system assigns a specific purpose to each colour. The newly introduced Silver Notice is an asset-focused tool. Its primary function is to help member countries trace and recover the proceeds of crime, such as money and other valuable assets that have been illicitly acquired and often moved across international borders. It is distinct from other notices:

• Red Notice is for locating wanted persons.
• Green Notice is to provide warnings and intelligence about criminals.
• Black Notice is for seeking information on unidentified bodies.

About Interpol Issue First Ever Silver Notice:

• What is a Silver Notice?

• • A colour-coded Interpol alert launched in January 2025.
  • Aimed at identifying, tracking, and recovering criminally acquired assets worldwide.

• How It Works?

• • Member countries can request a Silver Notice to locate assets linked to crimes such as:
    1. Fraud, corruption, money laundering, narcotics, and environmental crimes.
    2. It enables countries to exchange asset-related intelligence and initiate:
    3. Freezing, seizure, or confiscation of these assets under domestic laws.
    4. Information is first reviewed by Interpol’s General Secretariat to prevent misuse or politically motivated targeting.

• Authority and Issuance:

• • In India, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) acts as the nodal agency for all Interpol matters.
  • Only member countries can issue such notices, subject to pilot phase limits (9 notices per country till Nov 2025).
  • The notice is shared with 195 Interpol member countries for real-time cooperation.

• Key Features of Silver Notice:

• • Asset-Focused Tool: Unlike the Red Notice (for people), Silver Notice targets illicit assets.
  • Transnational Reach: Aids asset tracking across borders using global police coordination.
  • Supports Financial Investigations: Useful in crypto scams, shell firms, real estate laundering, etc.
  • Strengthens Legal Cooperation: Provides basis for bilateral asset recovery requests.

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Mount Kanchenjunga is the highest peak in India and the third highest in the world. However, it is not located entirely within India. It straddles the border between India (Sikkim) and Nepal. The highest peak located entirely within India is Nanda Devi.
• Statement 2 is correct: The mountain is revered as a sacred deity by the indigenous Bhutia and Lepcha communities of Sikkim. To honour these deep-rooted religious sentiments, the Government of Sikkim has banned expeditions to the summit from the Indian side. This protection is also reinforced by national laws like the Places of Worship Act, 1991.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The geography of the mountain places its four major glaciers on different faces. The Zemu Glacier is located on its northeastern face, not the southwestern one. The Yalung Glacier is located to the southwest.

About Mount Kanchenjunga:

• Location:

• • Lies in the eastern Himalayas, straddling the India–Nepal border, 74 km north-northwest of Darjeeling.
  • Stands at an elevation of 8,586 metres (28,169 ft), making it the third-highest mountain in the world and the highest peak in India.

• States Associated:

• • Located between Sikkim (India) and Taplejung District (Nepal).
  • The Indian side lies within the Khangchendzonga National Park in Sikkim.

• Geographical Features:

• • Comprises five prominent peaks, referred to as the “Five Treasures of the Snow” in Sikkimese belief.
  • Surrounded by four major glaciers: Zemu Glacier (northeast), Talung Glacier (southeast), Yalung Glacier (southwest), and Kanchenjunga Glacier (northwest).
  • Receives heavy summer snowfall due to monsoons, with lighter winter snow.

• Cultural Importance:

• • Revered as a sacred mountain and abode of guardian deity ‘Dzoe-Nga’.
  • Considered inviolable by Sikkim’s Bhutia and Lepcha communities.
  • Climbing is banned from the Indian side under Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991 and Article 371(F), which protects Sikkim’s customs post-merger with India.

• Historical Significance:

• • Believed to be the highest peak until Mount Everest was confirmed in 1856.
  • First climbed in 1955 by Joe Brown and George Band (British expedition).
  • Climbers traditionally stop short of the summit to honour religious sentiments.
  • Charles Evans also led an expedition on the southwest face in 1955.

Solution: b)

• Statement-I is correct. The Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950, under its Section 3, explicitly prohibits the use of any name or emblem specified in its Schedule for commercial purposes without prior permission from the Central Government. The name of ‘Mahatma Gandhi’ is included in this Schedule, thus protecting it from improper commercial exploitation.
• Statement-II is also correct. The Act is dynamic, and the Central Government is empowered to make changes to the Schedule. This power allows the government to add, remove, or alter the list of protected names and emblems as and when required, simply by issuing a gazette notification.

About Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950:

• What is It?
  • A regulatory legislation to prevent the commercial or improper use of national emblems, names, and symbols that hold public significance or represent national institutions.
• Enforced On:1st September, 1950, through Gazette notification.
• Nodal Authority: Central Government – empowered to amend the Schedule and issue rules under the Act.
• Objectives of the Act:

• • Prohibit misuse of names/emblems associated with national institutions or public trust.
  • Protect the dignity of names and symbols associated with the Indian government, historic personalities, and international bodies.
  • Maintain decorum in commercial branding, preventing deceptive or misleading affiliations.

• Key Features:

• • Prohibition Clause (Section 3): Disallows the use of specified names/emblems for business, trade, patents, or advertising without Central Government permission.
  • Scope (Section 1 & 2):
    • Applies across India and Indian citizens abroad.
    • “Name” includes abbreviations, and “emblem” includes flags, seals, and coats of arms.
  • Ban on Registrations (Section 4): Authorities cannot register companies, trademarks, or patents bearing protected names/emblems.
  • Penalty (Section 5): Misuse punishable by fine up to ₹500.
  • Mandatory Sanction (Section 6): Prior sanction from the Centre is needed before prosecution.

Dynamic Schedule: The Schedule includes protected items such as the Indian National Flag, Mahatma Gandhi’s name, Rashtrapati Bhavan, and others.

Solution: b)

• Statement 1 is correct: Following the announcement in the Union Budget for 2018–19, the government adopted the principle of fixing the MSP at a level of at least 5 times the all-India weighted average cost of production, which is calculated as ‘A2+FL’. ‘A2’ covers all paid-out costs, and ‘FL’ represents the imputed value of unpaid family labour.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The MSP is announced twice a year, not once. It is declared separately for the two main agricultural seasons in India. The announcement for Kharif crops is made before the southwest monsoon, and the announcement for Rabi crops is made before the winter sowing season. This is done to help farmers make informed decisions about which crops to plant.

Statement 3 is correct: The coverage of MSP is not limited to food grains. It extends to several important commercial crops to protect the incomes of farmers growing them. These include cotton, raw jute, copra, and de-husked coconut, ensuring broad-based support across the agricultural sector.

Solution: a)

• Statement 1 is incorrect: CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene-editing tool. It does not necessarily introduce a new gene. It functions like a pair of “molecular scissors” that can be programmed to find a specific section of DNA and make a precise cut or edit, such as deleting, adding, or replacing a DNA base. This is different from traditional genetic modification, which typically involves inserting a foreign gene.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: ‘Noori’ was the world’s first cloned Pashmina goat (developed in 2012), not the gene-edited sheep. The gene-edited sheep has not been publicly named. Noori was a clone, which is a different technology from gene editing.
• Statement 3 is correct: Since precision editing with CRISPR-Cas9 can be done without inserting foreign DNA (transgenes), the resulting organism is often classified differently from a Genetically Modified Organism (GMO). This distinction is crucial as it might place them under a more lenient regulatory framework, facilitating faster approval for agricultural and commercial use.

Solution: d)

• The sanctity of Mount Kanchenjunga is a matter of deep religious and cultural importance, particularly for the Bhutia and Lepcha communities of Sikkim. The legal framework protecting this status is multifaceted.
• The Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991, which mandates maintaining the religious character of any place of worship as it existed on August 15, 1947.
• Furthermore, Article 371(F) of the Indian Constitution contains special provisions for the state of Sikkim, safeguarding the rights and customs of its people following its merger with India.
• The state government’s ban on expeditions draws its strength from these constitutional and legal protections, making it a unique case of environmental and cultural preservation.

Solution: c)

• Statement 1 is correct: The mechanism of the scheme involves the government providing an interest subvention of 1.5% to the lending institutions (Public Sector Banks, RRBs, etc.). This allows these institutions to offer loans to farmers at a reduced interest rate of 7% per annum. The subvention is a reimbursement to the bank, not a direct benefit transfer to the farmer’s account.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: In the case of a natural disaster, the scheme provides financial relief, but not a loan waiver. It offers an interest subvention of 2% for the first year on restructured loan amounts, making the loan repayment more manageable for affected farmers. A loan waiver would mean the principal amount is forgiven, which is not the case here.
• Statement 3 is correct: To improve governance and bring efficiency, the Kisan Rin Portal (KRP) was launched in 2023. This digital platform serves as a unified hub for processing interest subvention claims in a seamless and transparent manner, aiming to reduce delays and ensure timely credit support.