DAY – 58 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. This is the fundamental definition of homomorphic encryption. It enables processing of encrypted data, preserving privacy.
• Statement 2 is correct. Fully Homomorphic Encryption (FHE) is the ideal form that allows for an arbitrary number of additions and multiplications on ciphertext, thus enabling any computation.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. While FHE does have significant computational overhead, it is an active area of research with performance improvements continually being made. More importantly, it has several potential real-world use cases currently under exploration and development, including secure cloud computing, private data analysis in healthcare and finance, and secure machine learning. To say it has a “lack of real-world use cases” is too strong and increasingly inaccurate. Early applications are emerging.
• Statement 4 is correct. Partially Homomorphic Encryption schemes, like the Paillier cryptosystem (additive homomorphism) or RSA (multiplicative homomorphism), are more computationally feasible than FHE for specific tasks. They find applications in scenarios like secure e-voting, privacy-preserving data aggregation, and certain cloud security protocols where only limited operations are needed on encrypted data.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. This is the fundamental definition of Quantum Dots. Quantum confinement leads to discrete energy levels, and the size of the QD dictates these energy levels and thus their optical/electronic properties.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The colour of light emitted by a Quantum Dot is primarily determined by its size. Smaller dots emit bluer (higher energy) light, and larger dots emit redder (lower energy) light, due to the quantum confinement effect. While chemical composition also plays a role in determining the available bandgaps, size is the key tunable parameter for colour.
• Statement 3 is correct. QDs offer superior optical properties for imaging (brighter, longer-lasting fluorescence, tunable colours). However, many high-performance QDs utilize heavy metals like cadmium, selenium, or lead, raising concerns about their biocompatibility and long-term toxicity, which is a significant hurdle for in-vivo applications. Research into heavy-metal-free QDs (e.g., silicon-based, carbon-based) is ongoing.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. QD-LEDs are known for their high energy efficiency and their ability to produce highly saturated colours, leading to a wider colour gamut than traditional LCDs and potentially rivaling or exceeding OLEDs in this regard. They offer purer colours because of the narrow emission spectra of QDs.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. This accurately describes first-generation biofuels (e.g., ethanol from corn/sugarcane, biodiesel from soy/palm oil) and the associated ethical and economic concerns.
• Statement 2 is correct. This accurately describes second-generation biofuels, which aim to address the food vs. fuel issue by using non-food feedstocks. The technological challenges in breaking down lignocellulose are significant.
• Statement 3 is correct. This accurately describes third-generation biofuels, primarily focusing on algae. While promising due to high productivity and non-competition with food crops for land, cost-effective harvesting and oil extraction at scale remain major hurdles for commercial viability.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. While fourth-generation biofuels (sometimes called “electrofuels” or “solar fuels” or involving advanced genetic engineering for direct solar-to-fuel conversion or enhanced CO2​ capture integrated with fuel production) are indeed a research frontier with the aim of creating carbon-negative or highly sustainable fuels, they are not yet in widespread commercial deployment. They are largely in the research, development, and demonstration phases.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is incorrect. The Precautionary Principle does not necessarily mandate a complete ban. It calls for cautious action, which could range from moratoria, restricted use, further research, to risk mitigation measures. It involves a proportionality assessment, considering the potential harm’s severity and irreversibility against potential benefits. An absolute ban based on any indication of harm is an extreme and often inaccurate interpretation.
• Statement 2 is correct. This is a widely accepted articulation of the Precautionary Principle. It shifts the burden of proof towards the proponents of a technology or activity when there is credible scientific uncertainty and a plausible risk of serious harm. They need to demonstrate safety rather than regulators needing to prove harm definitively before taking action.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. While prominently used in environmental law (e.g., Rio Declaration), the Precautionary Principle’s application is increasingly discussed and applied in other areas like public health (e.g., new chemicals, pharmaceuticals), food safety, and even emerging technologies like artificial intelligence and nanotechnology, where potential long-term impacts are uncertain but could be significant.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. This is a common criticism but not an inherent outcome. A well-applied Precautionary Principle aims to foster responsible innovation by encouraging thorough risk assessment and the development of safer alternatives. While it can impose costs, it can also prevent much larger future costs from unmitigated disasters. Whether it stifles innovation or guides it towards more sustainable paths is a subject of ongoing debate and depends heavily on how it’s implemented. It’s not an invariable outcome that it leads to economic stagnation.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. Edge computing involves processing data at the periphery of the network, as close as possible to the originating source, which is crucial for applications requiring immediate responses like autonomous vehicles or industrial robotics.
• Statement 2 is correct. Fog computing acts as a distributed layer situated between the edge and the cloud. It provides a more substantial computational infrastructure than the edge itself but is more localized than the central cloud.
• Statement 3 is correct. Fog nodes (e.g., routers, switches, local servers) are generally more powerful than typical edge devices (like a simple sensor) and can aggregate data and perform more complex analytics for multiple edge devices before sending consolidated information to the cloud.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. While related and sometimes used interchangeably in casual conversation, Edge and Fog computing represent distinct, albeit complementary, layers in the distributed computing hierarchy. Edge computing is more localized at the device level, while Fog computing provides a more substantial intermediate layer. Fog can be seen as extending the cloud closer to the edge, while the edge is at the very boundary of the network. Fog can support multiple edges.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. This is a standard definition of graphene and its key properties. Its 2D structure and sp² hybridized carbon atoms lead to excellent conductivity.
• Statement 2 is correct. CVD on catalytic metal substrates (like copper or nickel) is a leading technique for scalable synthesis of high-quality graphene for applications in electronics, transparent conductive films, etc.
• Statement 3 is correct. Ideal, defect-free graphene is impermeable to all standard gases, including helium. This property is indeed exploited for making highly sensitive gas sensors, where the adsorption of even a single molecule can change graphene’s electrical properties, and also for barrier coatings.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. While functionalization can indeed alter graphene’s electronic properties (e.g., by introducing scattering sites or changing doping levels), it does not invariably degrade them to the point of making it unsuitable for any semiconductor applications. In fact, controlled functionalization is often used to tune its properties, such as opening a bandgap (pristine graphene is a zero-bandgap semiconductor or semimetal), improving solubility/dispersibility, or creating specific sensor functionalities. For instance, graphene oxide (a functionalized form) has semiconducting properties.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. The use of a solid electrolyte is the defining feature of SSBs. This eliminates flammable liquid electrolytes, reducing fire risk. Solid electrolytes can also act as a physical barrier to suppress lithium dendrite growth, a major safety and degradation issue in LIBs, especially with lithium metal anodes.
• Statement 2 is correct. SSBs hold the promise of higher energy densities, partly because the stable solid electrolyte allows the use of high-capacity lithium metal as the anode (which is problematic with liquid electrolytes due to dendrites). This, along with potentially more stable electrode-electrolyte interfaces, can also contribute to a longer cycle life.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Currently, the manufacturing cost of SSBs is generally higher than that of mature LIB technology. Challenges remain in scaling up production, developing cost-effective solid electrolyte materials, and achieving consistent quality. While costs are expected to decrease with R&D and scale, they are not yet lower for immediate mass-market adoption.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. Maintaining low interfacial resistance between the solid electrodes and the solid electrolyte is one of the most significant challenges in SSB development. Ensuring good ionic conductivity across these interfaces and maintaining intimate contact during volumetric changes that occur during cycling (expansion/contraction of electrodes) is crucial for performance and durability. These remain active areas of research.

Solution: C

• Statement (a) is incorrect. Regulatory sandboxes do not offer indefinite or complete exemption from all regulations. They provide a tailored and often relaxed regulatory environment for a specific, time-bound testing period, with clear entry and exit criteria, and usually involve safeguards and close monitoring by the regulator.
• Statement (b) is incorrect. While SEZs aim to attract investment through fiscal and infrastructural incentives, regulatory sandboxes are specifically focused on allowing live testing of innovations that may not neatly fit into existing regulatory frameworks. They are about testing the innovation and understanding its regulatory implications, not just general economic promotion through relaxed laws. The “zone” is often virtual or specific to the participating entities rather than a large physical area.
• Statement (c) is correct. This accurately describes a regulatory sandbox. Key elements are: a controlled environment, testing of innovations, a special (often relaxed or adaptive) regulatory regime, time limits, safeguards to protect consumers/public interest, and direct oversight by a regulatory body (e.g., a central bank for fintech innovations, a telecom authority for new communication technologies).
• Statement (d) is incorrect. While public consultation is an important part of developing regulations, a regulatory sandbox is a post-development, pre-full-commercialization testing phase for specific products/services, not the process of drafting the regulations themselves.

Solution: A

• Statement 1 is correct. This is the fundamental definition of a Zero-Knowledge Proof. The core idea is proving possession of knowledge or truth of a statement without revealing the knowledge/information itself.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. ZKPs are designed to work directly between the prover and verifier without the need for a trusted third party to access the secret information. The mathematical properties of the protocol ensure the proof’s validity without such intermediation.
• Statement 3 is correct. Non-interactive ZKPs, such as zk-SNARKs or zk-STARKs, allow a prover to generate a proof that can be verified by anyone without requiring back-and-forth communication. This “publish once, verify many times” property is crucial for scalability in decentralized systems like blockchains (e.g., Zcash, Ethereum layer-2 solutions).
• Statement 4 is incorrect. While the specifics can vary depending on the ZKP scheme, often the proof generation (prover’s side) is computationally intensive, requiring significant resources. Verification, on the other hand, is typically designed to be very fast and efficient. For example, in zk-SNARKs, proof generation can be slow, but verification is extremely quick. This asymmetry is often a design goal.

Solution: C

• Option (a) is incorrect. The TRIPS Agreement sets conditions for compulsory licensing, including the general obligation to make efforts to obtain a voluntary license on reasonable commercial terms first (unless waived in emergencies) and the requirement for “adequate remuneration” to be paid to the patent holder. It’s not a unilateral revocation without compensation.
• Option (b) is incorrect. While compulsory licensing has been prominently discussed and used in the context of pharmaceuticals (e.g., the Doha Declaration affirmed countries’ rights to use them for public health), the TRIPS Agreement (Article 31) does not restrict its application solely to pharmaceuticals. It can, in principle, apply to other fields of technology, though its use and conditions might be subject to interpretation and national laws consistent with TRIPS.
• Option (c) is correct. This statement accurately reflects the core idea of compulsory licensing under TRIPS. It allows governments to authorize usage of a patent without the patent holder’s consent under certain circumstances (like national emergencies, public non-commercial use, to address anti-competitive practices, or if the patent holder has failed to meet local working requirements where such requirements exist and are TRIPS-compliant). Such use must generally be predominantly for the supply of the domestic market, and adequate remuneration must be paid to the patent holder, considering the economic value of the license.
• Option (d) is incorrect. LDCs have certain flexibilities and transition periods under TRIPS, and there are specific provisions like Article 66.1 regarding technology transfer. However, compulsory licenses are not automatically granted for all patented technologies. LDCs still need to follow procedures, and conditions apply, although specific waivers (like for pharmaceutical exports under paragraph 6 of the Doha Declaration) exist to make it easier for them to access certain essential medicines.

Solution: C

• Perovskite materials are a class of crystalline materials with a specific structure similar to that of calcium titanate.
• They are being explored as a promising alternative to traditional silicon solar cells offering potential for high efficiency and low cost production

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Perovskite LEDs are made from Perovskite nanocrystals, and combine advantages of Organic LEDs and Quantum LEDs, making them promising for next generation lighting.
• Perovskite LEDs combine the best features of Organic LEDs (flexibility, lightweight) and Quantum LED (high colour purity), while offering superior efficiency and cost effectiveness.
• Quantum LEDs uses Quantum dots which are typically made of materials like cadmium selenide or Indium phosphide while Perovskite materials are often lead halide based compounds.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• LLMs are primarily cloud based and require heavy infrastructure; on the other hand, small language models are suitable for on device or Edge computing.
• SLMs are cost effective and require less computational power and training data ; these are suitable for local execution without heavy cloud dependency.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• SLMs are trained on smaller data sets, focusing on specific applications, making them efficient for tasks like language translation, basic text summarization or domain specific problem solving.
• These are deployed efficiently on Edge devices such as smartphones and IoT systems.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : A

• Majorana 1 has been recently introduced by Microsoft
• It is the world’s first Quantum chip powered by a topological core architecture that aims to revolutionize Quantum computing
• Majorana 1 is the first Quantum chip to utilise a topoconductor (or topological superconductor), creating a new state of matter beyond solid, liquid or gases
• It is composed of Indium arsenide (a semi conductor) and Aluminium (a superconductor) enabling enhanced Quantum stability and performance.

Hence option A is correct

Solution : A

• A recent study has revealed that nanoplastics derived from single use plastic bottles contribute to the spread of antibiotic resistance.
• Nanoplastics could transform gut microbiota into a carrier of antibiotic resistance genes which may be transferred to pathogenic bacteria during infections, this worsening the antibiotic resistance crisis.
• Polyethylene terepthalate bottle derived Nanoplastics facilitate the transfer of antibiotic resistance genes from Escherichia coli to Lactobacillus acidophilus (gut microbiota) through horizontal gene transfer.
•  In case of horizontal gene transfer, genes are passed directly from one organism to another potential across different species.
• PBNPs act as physical carriers transporting antibiotic resistance plasmids across bacterial membrane and promoting direct gene transfer.

Plasmid :

It is a small circular extra chromosomal DNA molecule that replicates independently of a cell’s chromosomal DNA; these are found in bacteria. It plays a crucial role in the spread of antibiotic resistance among bacterial species.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Solution: C

• The IndiaAI mission has been launched by the government to established a robust AI computing infrastructure in the country to support development and testing of AI system
• The Union Cabinet approved Rs.10372 crore India AI mission in 2024 to established a computing capacity of over 10000 GPU and develop foundational models with the capacity of more than 100 billion parameters trained on data sets covering major Indian languages for priority sectors like healthcare, agriculture and governance.
• The initial efforts will involve procuring 300 to 500 GPU to kick start the project.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Under the project indigenous Large Multimodal Models and Foundational models for various sectors has been approved; about Rs.2000 crore has been earmarked for this centre.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : D

• Processing-in-Memory technology, actually can be useful for avoiding malware attacks particularly fileless malwares, which operates directly in memory;
• By performing computations directly within memory, this technology reduces the need to access external storage making it harder for malware to be detected by traditional file based analysis tools.
• This technology reduces the amount of data to be stored on hard drive, making it harder for malware to leave a trace on the system.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Processing-in-Memory technology aims to improve data processing speed and efficiency by performing computations directly within the memory unit by passing the traditional CPU-memory bottlenecks.
• Recently, Israeli researchers have created software that allows data processing directly in memory, bypassing the CPU; it seeks to address the energy intensive and time consuming data transfer between memory and CPU which are bottlenecks in modern computing.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution: B

• IndiaAI and Meta have launched the Centre for Generative AI called Srijan, at IIT Jodhpur with the goal of driving open source AI innovations in India.
• Meta has committed INR 750 lakhs over 3 years supporting Training, Research and workshops.
• The initiative, supported by a partnership with All India Council for Technical Education, aims to encourage young developers to leverage open source AI models to solve real world challenges.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• Srijan seeks to empower young AI talent by providing resources to work with Large Language Models and focus on essential areas like healthcare, mobility and education.

Hence statement 2 is correct

• YuvaAI is not an initiative launched by Srijan.
• It is part of India’s Yuva AI program that aims to skill 1 lakh young developers within age group 18 to 30 years in generative AI to tackle real world challenges.
• Iy is a joint a effort by Meta, AICTE and MeitY to enhance AI talent through open source Large Language Models training.
• Both of the initiatives, Srijan and YuvaAI have been announced by India AI and Meta along with AICTE.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution : D

• Non-kinetic warfare has been making news in the context of Russia- Ukraine and Israel-Palestine conflict in which its method have been deployed.
• Kinetic Warfare typically means military methods employing a range of weapons
• Non-kinetic  warfare is an emerging concept that goes beyond traditional military techniques and can involve electronic warfare, cyber, information, psychological and economic among others
• it can involve non military stakeholders also
• With the Technological progress, it can be more deadlier than the conventional military techniques.

For example :

• A massive cyber or malware attack on critical infrastructure of a country such as Power grid and hospital can cripple a nation.
• Manipulate public opinion or influence decision making through disnformation campaign and propaganda
• Disrupting our Nations economy through sanctions or financial restrictions

Hence option D is correct

Solution : A

• Recently scientists at the Indian Institute of Nano Science and Technology ( an autonomous Institute of Department of Science and Technology) has synthesized a first of its kind security ink base on luminescent nanomaterials with rare earth doping.
•  This ink can overcome the limitations of current covert tags which are security features usually visible only under UV light and can be easily duplicated
• The new nanomaterial based ink offers enhanced security features through its ability to display different colours under various light wavelengths;  specifically, the ink appears vibrant blue under 365 nm light, pink under 395nm light and orange-red under 980 nm near infrared light and remains effective under a range of light, temperature and humidity conditions.
• The new ink made from the nanomaterials has significant potential to combat counterfeiting; it can be applied to fake-proof items including currencies, certificates, medicine and branded products.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Solution : D

Nano bubbles are Ultra tiny bubbles less than 200 nanometres in diameter; these are neutrally byuoant and remains suspended in water for months, building efficient gas transfer and surface reactions. Nanobubbles help in purification of water by the following methods :

• Nano bubbles aid surface cleaning of water by removing organic materials without the use of harmful chemicals
• Nanobubbles can destroy bacterial toxins particularly when they in capsulate and release oxidative gases like oxygen or ozone.
• Nanobubbles break down algae and prevent build up of marine algals species in stagnant water.
• Nanobubbles facilitate hyperefficient oxygen transfer improving water quality
• These efficiently digest biological waste and separate particles like oil and grease.

Hence options 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Solution: C

Biocovers are specially engineered layers (typically made from compost, soil, or other organic-rich materials) placed on landfills to stimulate microbial activity, especially of methanotrophic bacteria, which oxidize methane (CH₄) into carbon dioxide (CO₂). This significantly reduces the greenhouse gas emissions from landfills, as methane is over 25 times more potent than CO₂ in terms of global warming potential.

Solution: B

Statement 1 is correct: Cruise missiles, such as the BrahMos or Nirbhay, fly at low altitudes to evade radar detection and are powered continuously by jet engines (e.g., turbofan or turbojet), allowing sustained flight.

Statement 2 is correct: Ballistic missiles, like the Agni or Prithvi series, follow a high-arcing parabolic trajectory, exiting the atmosphere during their boost and midcourse phases and re-entering during the terminal phase to strike their target.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Prithvi-II is a short-range ballistic missile (range ~350 km), and Nirbhay is a subsonic cruise missile, not a ballistic missile, with a range of ~1,000 km. Neither is classified as a hypersonic ballistic missile (hypersonic refers to speeds above Mach 5, typically associated with different systems like the Shaurya or BrahMos-II under development).

Solution: C

Statement-I is correct: India has adopted a national target of ending TB by 2025, as part of its National Strategic Plan (NSP) 2017–2025, under the NTEP. This target is five years ahead of the global target.

Statement-II is incorrect: While SDG Goal 3.3 aims to end the TB epidemic by 2030, India has set an earlier national deadline, making the two timelines different. Hence, the SDG timeline does not explain India’s national objective.
So, only Statement-I is correct, and the right answer is (c).

Solution: D

South America: The southernmost point of South America (Cape Horn, Chile) lies around 56°S. Since this is north of 60°S, the 60° South parallel does not intersect South America.

Africa: The southernmost point of Africa (Cape Agulhas, South Africa) is approximately 34.8°S, far north of 60°S. The 60° South parallel does not intersect Africa.

Australia: The southernmost point of mainland Australia (South East Cape, Tasmania) is around 43.6°S. Even considering Australia’s southern islands, none extend close to 60°S. The 60° South parallel does not intersect Australia.

Antarctica: Antarctica extends well beyond 60°S, with the continent’s landmass and ice shelves covering the South Pole (90°S). The 60° South parallel intersects Antarctica, as it runs through the Southern Ocean and parts of the Antarctic continent.

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect – Remission does not change the nature of the sentence; it only reduces its duration.
• Statement 2 is correct – As per recent SC directions, States/UTs are obligated to consider remission even without application by the convict.
• Statement 3 is correct – The Court mandated that revocation of remission must be reasoned and follow natural justice, allowing the convict to respond.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

• Assumption 1 is valid. The passage explicitly notes that when ecological degradation is treated as an externality, the real costs remain invisible, and this disproportionately affects marginalized communities—indicating a clear connection between poor ecological valuation and social inequality.
• Assumption 2 is invalid. The passage does not suggest that urban middle classes or industrial sectors are the primary sufferers of environmental degradation. On the contrary, it emphasizes the vulnerability of marginalized, resource-dependent communities.

Hence, the correct answer is option (a) 1 only.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Statement I:
a + b = 9 → Possible pairs: (1,8), (2,7), (3,6), (4,5) → Not unique

Statement II:
ab = 20 → Possible pairs: (1,20), (2,10), (4,5) → Not unique

Combining both:

Only (4,5) satisfies both sum and product ⇒ Unique

Hence, option C is correct.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

Rohan’s father has five children in which four are sisters. Clearly, Rohan is the only

son in the family. Thus, we can say, Rohan has no brother. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

We feel uncomfortable in hut and humid climate because in hot weather, body sweats more but due to high humidity, this sweat does not evaporate easily.

Correct Option : B

Justification :

From I and II:

A is father of D who is a husband of E

C is daughter of E, who is daughter in law of A

Combining I and II

Hence, Only I and II are sufficient