DAY – 53 : Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2025 : ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. Studies have shown that microplastics can affect soil physical properties like bulk density, porosity, and water retention, which in turn can influence plant germination and growth, although the effects can vary depending on plastic type, size, concentration, and soil type.
• Statement 2 is correct. Earthworms are known to ingest microplastics present in the soil. Physical and chemical processes within their gut can lead to the fragmentation of these microplastics into smaller particles, including nanoplastics, potentially increasing their mobility and bioavailability in the ecosystem.
• Statement 3 is correct. Research has identified certain species of fungi (and bacteria) that possess enzymes capable of partially degrading some types of plastics, including PET, offering potential avenues for bioremediation, although the process is generally slow in natural environments.
• Statement 4 is incorrect. Microplastics can act as vectors for a range of contaminants. While they readily adsorb hydrophobic organic pollutants (like pesticides, PAHs), their surface properties (often modified by environmental weathering) can also facilitate the adsorption of heavy metals, acting as transport vehicles for these inorganic contaminants as well.

Solution: C

• • Pair 1 is correctly matched. Ocean Alkalinity Enhancement (OAE) aims to increase the ocean’s natural ability to store carbon by adding alkaline substances, counteracting ocean acidification and enhancing CO2​ uptake.
  • Pair 2 is correctly matched. Artificial upwelling aims to enhance biological carbon sequestration by stimulating phytoplankton blooms. Artificial downwelling aims to transport carbon-rich surface water to the deep ocean. Both manipulate ocean mixing for CDR purposes.
  • Pair 3 is correctly matched. Large-scale cultivation of seaweed (macroalgae) absorbs significant amounts of CO2​. If this biomass is subsequently sunk into the deep ocean where decomposition is slow, the carbon can be sequestered long-term.

Solution: B

• • Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is indeed chaired by the Prime Minister. However, while its recommendations are crucial and generally adhered to for diversion of land from Protected Areas (PAs), the final decision rests with the government/Supreme Court directives often play a role. The Act doesn’t state its recommendations are absolutely mandatory in all circumstances overriding all other legal provisions or judicial oversight, though they carry significant weight. Also, the Standing Committee of the NBWL, chaired by the Environment Minister, often handles clearance proposals.
  • Statement 2 is correct. Animals listed in Schedule I (and Part II of Schedule II) are accorded the highest degree of protection. Hunting of these animals is prohibited under Section 9. Exceptions under Section 11(1)(a) allow the Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) to permit hunting if an animal becomes dangerous to human life or is disabled/diseased beyond recovery.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. Community Reserves are declared under Section 36C of the WPA on private or community lands (notified by the State Government if communities volunteer). While conservation is the goal, the Act aims to achieve it with the participation of the community. Section 36D provides for a Community Reserve Management Committee, and the rules aim to ensure that traditional rights and livelihoods are not unduly affected, allowing for sustainable resource use compatible with conservation goals, unlike the stricter regulations in National Parks or Sanctuaries.

Solution: D

• Statement 1 is correct. Ecological Footprint is a standard metric used in sustainability studies to quantify human impact relative to biocapacity.
• Statement 2 is correct. Ecocline describes gradual transitions in ecological communities along environmental gradients (e.g., altitude, moisture), distinct from the sharper transition zone of an ecotone.
• Statement 3 is correct. Edge effect refers to the distinct ecological conditions and often higher biodiversity found at the boundary (ecotone) between adjacent ecosystems.

Statement 4 is correct. Ecological Niche defines the specific role (‘profession’) of a species in its environment, including its resource use and interactions.

Solution: B

• Statement-I is correct. It accurately defines bioaccumulation as the buildup of a substance within a single organism over time due to intake exceeding elimination.
• Statement-II is correct. It accurately defines biomagnification (or bioamplification) as the increasing concentration of a substance in organisms at successively higher trophic levels in a food chain.
• Relationship: While bioaccumulation within individual organisms is a prerequisite for biomagnification to occur up the food chain, Statement II (biomagnification) is a distinct process operating at the food chain level, not merely an explanation of Statement I (bioaccumulation within an individual). Therefore, both statements are correct, but II does not explain I; rather, I enables II.

Solution: B

• Statement 1 is correct. The Biodiversity Act, 2002, indeed sets up a decentralized, three-tiered structure: the NBA at the national level, SBBs at the state level, and BMCs at the local body level.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. While BMCs play a crucial role in documenting biodiversity and knowledge, and their consultation is often required, the primary approval for accessing biological resources for commercial utilization or research by non-Indian entities or for transferring research results typically comes from the NBA. For Indian entities, approval often comes from the SBB. BMCs primarily regulate access for local use and have a role in benefit sharing decisions. The primary approval authority depends on the applicant’s status and purpose.
• Statement 3 is correct. The Act enshrines the principle of Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS). It mandates that benefits derived from accessing biological resources and associated knowledge must be shared in a fair and equitable manner with the benefit claimers, often local communities involved in conservation, through mutually agreed terms determined as per the guidelines set by the NBA.

Solution: D

• • Activity 1 is regulated. Setting up non-polluting industries is generally permissible in notified industrial areas within CRZ-II (developed areas up to the shoreline), subject to clearances and regulations.
  • Activity 2 is regulated. Construction of dwelling units for traditional coastal communities is permissible in CRZ-III (relatively undisturbed rural areas), subject to specific norms regarding location (landward side of hazard line, etc.) and size.
  • Activity 3 is regulated. Exploration and extraction of oil and natural gas are listed as regulated activities requiring specific environmental safeguards and clearances under the notification.
  • Activity 4 is regulated. Development of foreshore facilities like ports, harbours, jetties, etc., are permissible activities, often requiring environmental impact assessments and specific clearances due to their potential impact on coastal processes and ecology.
  • Therefore, all four listed activities fall under the regulatory purview of the CRZ Notification, 2019.

Solution: C

• • Statement 1 is correct. Lantana camara is widely recognized as one of India’s most problematic invasive weeds, aggressively colonizing diverse habitats and suppressing native flora.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The introduction of the predatory and highly adaptable African Catfish (Clarias gariepinus) is well-documented to have caused significant declines in indigenous fish species in various rivers and wetlands across India due to predation and competition.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. While the WPA, 1972, focuses on protecting native wildlife, it does not have a dedicated, comprehensive framework specifically addressing the control and management of Invasive Alien Species (IAS). Management of IAS often falls under different sectoral laws (agriculture, fisheries, environment) or specific state-level initiatives, lacking a single unified national legal framework for IAS across all taxa and ecosystems. The recent amendments might include enabling provisions, but a comprehensive framework solely dedicated to IAS management isn’t its primary structure.
  • Statement 4 is correct. The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the IUCN. It manages the Global Invasive Species Database (GISD).

Solution: A

• Statement-I is correct. The Kigali Amendment, adopted in 2016, legally binds parties to the Montreal Protocol to gradually reduce the production and consumption of HFCs.
• Statement-II is correct. HFCs were widely adopted as replacements for ODS like Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) because they do not deplete the ozone layer. However, they possess high Global Warming Potentials (GWPs), making them significant contributors to climate change.

Relationship: Statement II provides the rationale why the phase-down of HFCs under the Kigali Amendment (Statement I) became necessary. The fact that HFCs, despite being ozone-friendly alternatives, are potent GHGs is the direct reason for their inclusion under the Montreal Protocol framework via the Kigali Amendment. Thus, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.

Solution: C

• Statement 1 is correct. As the ocean absorbs more CO2​, it forms carbonic acid, which releases hydrogen ions (H+). These ions react with carbonate ions (CO32−​), reducing their availability. Calcifying organisms need carbonate ions to form calcium carbonate (CaCO3​) for their shells and skeletons.
• Statement 2 is correct. Research indicates that changes in seawater chemistry due to acidification can impair the olfactory systems of certain fish, affecting crucial behaviors like predator avoidance, homing, and foraging.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Ocean acidification is a direct consequence of the ocean absorbing excess atmospheric CO2​. While the ocean is a major carbon sink, acidification itself does not enhance its capacity to absorb more CO2​ in a way that creates a negative feedback loop strong enough to counteract the problem; rather, it signifies the system is being overwhelmed. Continued absorption leads to further acidification.
• Statement 4 is correct. Increased acidity (lower pH) makes seawater more corrosive to calcium carbonate, leading to increased dissolution rates of existing shells, skeletons, and coral reefs.

Solution: B

• Hangul is a sub species of Central Asian Red deer endemic to Kashmir and northern Himachal Pradesh
• It is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir
• It is the only surviving Asiatic sub-species of the Red deer family.
• Project Hangul was initiated in 1970 to address the declineing population of Kashmir stag; it was a collaborative effort between the Jammu and Kashmir Government, IUCN and WWF.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Hangul is found in dense riverine forests, valleys and mountain regions of Jammu and Kashmir as well as Northern Himachal Pradesh
• It is primarily found in the Dachigam National Park.
• However a small population is found in Northern Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh in the Gamgul Siya Behi Sanctuary within the district.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution : A

• Black plastic is a type of plastic material often produced from recycled electronic waste like TV, computer and other appliances
• These contain flame retardants such as bromine and heavy metals like lead, Mercury and cadmium.
• Mercury, lead and cadmium are often found in electronic goods
• Cadmium is classified as human carcinogen by the International Agency for Research on Cancer; while lead and mercury compounds are also possibly carcinogenic.

Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Solution: D

• Udhwa Lake Bird Sanctuary is located in Sahebganj district in Jharkhand on the flood plain of Ganga.
• It consists of two interconnected water bodies Patauda and Berhale, which are linked by a water channel.
• It is an important habitat for several Avian Species and is a designated Ramsar site.

Hence pair 1 is correct

• Sakkarakottai Bird Sanctuary is located in Ramanathapura district of Tamil Nadu.
• It is an irrigation tank that stores water for agriculture and is recharged by North-East monsoon during October to January
• It lies along the Central Asian flyway serving as a critical breading and foraging ground for water birds.
• It is home to several animals including lion tailed Macaque, giant squirrel.

Hence pair 2 is correct

• Therthangal Bird Sanctuary is located in Tamil Nadu
• It is home to diverse flora.
•  It is an important breeding and foraging ground for various waterbird species.
• The common breeding grounds for Spot-billed Pelicans in India include water bodies in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Hence pair 3 is incorrect

Solution: B

• Preparation of People’s Biodiversity Register is mandated by the Biological Diversity Act 2002.
• It is a Register that contains comprehensive information on availablity and knowledge of local biological resource (flora and fauna), their medicinal or any other uses.

• BMCs oversee the development of these registers across India with an aim to conserve biodiversity, promote sustainable use and protect traditional knowledge.
• The BMC is to maintain a Register containing information about details of biological resources and traditional knowledge available within the jurisdiction of BMC.

Hence statements 1 and 3 are correct

• Biodiversity Management Committees are responsible for preparing maintaining and validating People’s Biodiversity Register in consultation with local people.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Light fishing is a method which uses high intensity artificial lights powered by generators like LED or halogen to attract fish to the water surface during night operation
•  LED or halogen lights are suspended over the water or placed underwater; the bright light disturbs the fishes’ natural orientation and attracts entire shoals.
• Fish including juveniles, are easily netted, increasing bycatch and unsustainable harvest.
• Light fishing depletes Juvenile fishes; by removing immature fish before reproduction, thus reducing future fish population;  this method attracts non target species, thus disturbing the entire Marine food web;
• It is also harmful for international straight as over fishing can impact sea food exports

Hence both statements 2 and 3 are correct and both of them explain statement 1.

Solution : B

• The Sustainable Finance for Tiger Landscapes Conference was convened by Bhutan Government along with the Tiger Conservation Coalition along with other conservation organisations.
• it acknowledged the Tiger as the emblematic species of Asia and a cultural and spiritual symbol for millions of people throughout Tiger range and around the globe.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• The conference called for a joint effort to catalyse US$ 1 billion in additional funding for Tiger conservation over ten years (2024-2034) by mobilizing new and additional financial resources, technical expertise, developing and capitalising new financial mechanisms for Tiger conservation in support of Tiger Recovery Programme 2.0.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : D

• Pyramid of biomass in Marine ecosystems is generally inverted and not upright ; it implies that biomass of the primary producers or phytoplanktons in Marine ecosystems at the base of the pyramid is typically less than biomass of the higher trophic levels like zooplankton and fish.
• This can be due to rapid growth and reproduction rate of phytoplanktons who are quickly consumed leading to a small overall biomass compared to the consumers that feed on them.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Pyramid of biomass represents the dry weight of the biomass per unit area at each tropic level of an ecosystem
• Usually pyramid of biomass is tapered towards the top that is it is wide at the base and narrow upwards but in case of marine ecosystems, it is usually inverted.

Hence statement 2 is correct

Solution : C

• Ground level ozone or tropospheric ozone is not emitted directly into the air.
• It is also known as tropospheric ozone
• It is a secondary pollutant and a colourless gas formed just above the surface of the Earth
• It is created by chemical reaction between oxides of nitrogen and volatile organic compounds ; both of these are considered primary pollutants.
• this happens when pollutants emitted by power plants, vehicles, industries, refineries, chemical plants and other sources  chemically react in the presence of sunlight.
• Rising temperature specially during heat waves worsen ground level ozone formation.

Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct

• Tropospheric ozone is detrimental to wheat and rice cultivation in India posing a significant threat to food security
• Ozone pollution can lead to reduced crop yields and seed quality with wheat being particularly sensitive.

Hence statement 3 is correct

• Ozone concentrations in the troposphere vary widely over the Earth’s surface
• The more direct the angle of sunlight, the greater it intensity
• When ozone’s precursors exist more ozone tends to occur in regions closer to the equator ( lower latitude) than in regions at the poles (higher latitude).
•  Tropospheric ozone levels are not higher at the poles; it typically is more abundant closer to the equator due to higher UV radiation and presence of the ozone precursors.

Hence statement 4 is incorrect

Solution: A

• Black panther is found across Asia, Africa and the Americas.
• It is commonly found in Southwest China, eastern and southern India, Nepal, Malaysia, Indonesia, Burma
• In India it is found in Karnataka, Sundarbans and other parts of South India.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect

• Genetic mutation in Bengal Tigers do not directly give rise to black panthers ; excess melanin production gives rise to black coloured fur in black panthers which are actually melanistic leopards or jaguars and not tigers.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

Conservation status of black panther :

• Vulnerable under IUCN Red list
• Schedule I of Indian Wildlife Protection Act 1972
• Appendix I of CITES

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: A

• The Kasampatty Sacred Grove is located in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu
• It has recently been officially notified as the second biodiversity Heritage site in Tamil Nadu under the Biological Diversity Act 2002.
• It is supported by the Tamil Nadu Biodiversity Board and district collector.

Hence statement 1 is correct

• The Chenchus and Gonds are major tribal groups in Andhra Pradesh and are not found in Tamil Nadu.
• The Kasampatty Sacred Grove is not directly associated with any specific tribe; the grove is protected by the community living nearby Kasampatty village and Reddiyapatti Panchayat.
• The locals worship the deity Veeranan at the Veera Kovil temple.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect

• It the site enhances local climate stability and wildlife connectivity
• It also act as an ecological bridge by supporting pollination and soil fertility in nearby mango plantations.

Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution: D

Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect. The Gyan Bharatam Mission is not a component of the National Education Policy (NEP), nor is it administered by the Ministry of Education. It is a Ministry of Culture initiative, focusing on heritage preservation, not curriculum reform.

Statement II is correct. A notable feature of the Gyan Bharatam Mission is the plan to establish an autonomous body to manage activities like manuscript conservation, digitization, and public access. This is intended to provide institutional continuity and avoid bureaucratic delays.

Solution: B

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. India has neither signed nor ratified the Convention on Cluster Munitions (CCM). Along with major powers like the U.S., Russia, China, Israel, and Ukraine, India has cited military utility and national security concerns as reasons for staying out of the treaty.

Statement 2 is correct. One of the treaty’s core obligations is that member states must destroy their stockpiles of cluster munitions within eight years of joining. This is part of a broader agenda to eliminate the humanitarian threat posed by unexploded submunitions, which often remain lethal for decades after a conflict.

Solution: B

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct.  The Atomic Energy Commission was initially set up in 1948, but under the Department of Scientific Research, It was reconstituted in 1958 under the DAE in its current form.

Statement 2 is correct. The AEC includes high-ranking officials like the Cabinet Secretary, National Security Adviser, and Foreign Secretary as ex-officio members, underscoring the interdisciplinary and strategic nature of nuclear governance in India.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The AEC is a policy-making and advisory body, not the statutory regulatory authority. The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB), established under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, handles nuclear regulation and safety compliance.

Solution: C

Explanation:
The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006, under Section 3(1)(e), recognizes habitat rights for PVTGs, which encompass rights over customary habitats, including those within reserved and protected forests. These rights are not limited to land ownership or access to produce, but include social, cultural, and livelihood practices of the communities.

Recognition of habitat rights involves consultations and mapping of traditional territories. It grants autonomy in local decision-making and control over natural resources.

In 2024, Odisha’s Juangs and Mankidia tribes were accorded these rights through District Level Committees, reflecting the Act’s progressive interpretation.

Solution: B

Explanation:

• Abu Sayyaf, an Islamist extremist group, is based in the Philippines, primarily in the southern regions like Mindanao and Sulu Archipelago. It has been responsible for kidnappings, bombings, and affiliations with global jihadist groups like al-Qaeda and ISIS.
• The PKK (Kurdistan Workers’ Party) is a Kurdish separatist group that operates from southeastern Turkey and parts of northern Iraq, seeking autonomy or independence for Kurdish people. It is designated a terrorist organization by Turkey, the U.S., and the EU.
• Ansar Dine, however, is incorrectly matched. It is not from Nigeria but from Mali. It is a Tuareg Islamist group active in northern Mali and part of the broader jihadist insurgency in the Sahel. Nigeria’s primary Islamist threat is Boko Haram, not Ansar Dine.

Thus, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Correct Option : D

Justification :

 The passage shows how technology has changed communication and the need for young people to be familiar with these forms as they will be the ways of communication in the future. Face to face communication is still important but it is equally needed for young people to learn the ins and outs as well as the positives and negatives of socialising through the internet. Hence, D.

Correct Option : A

Justification :

Formula used= θ=(11/2)M -30H where, H= hours, M= minutes

H= 5 , M= 40

Required angle, θ=(11/2)40 -30×5 = 70°

Correct Option : B

Justification :

In 1 hour =360/12=30 and in 1 minute=30/60=1/2

Similarly, angle covered by minute hand in 1 hour = 360°

In 1 minute = 360/60=6

=> Every minute, the angle between the two hands changes By 6-(1/2)= 11/2

From 7:45 A.M. to 7:47 A.M.,

i.e. in 2 minutes the angle between the two hands will change by 2* (11/2)=11  degree

Correct Option : D

Justification :

The digits on the clock will be in an ascending order from left to right at 12:34.

So, the required time difference will be 7*60 + 4 + 34 = 458 minutes.

Correct Option : C

Justification :

Answer (C) Monday, 13th September

Since the watch has to show correct time as 9, when it looses 12 hours.

Time taken to lose 5 minutes = 1 hour.

Time taken to lose 12 hours = 12*60/5 = 144 hours = 6days

Starting from Wednesday, after 6 days it would be Tuesday 7^th September.

After Tuesday 7th September, Monday (13th September) would occur after further 6 days.