UPSC Static Quiz – Polity : 17 March 2025 We will post 5 questions daily on static topics mentioned in the UPSC civil services preliminary examination syllabus. Each week will focus on a specific topic from the syllabus, such as History of India and Indian National Movement, Indian and World Geography, and more.We are excited to bring you our daily UPSC Static Quiz, designed to help you prepare for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Each day, we will post 5 questions on static topics mentioned in the UPSC syllabus. This week, we are focusing on Indian and World Geography.
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Participating in daily quizzes helps reinforce your knowledge and identify areas that need improvement. Regular practice will enhance your recall abilities and boost your confidence for the examination. By covering various topics throughout the week, you ensure a comprehensive revision of the syllabus.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following statements.
- Members of Parliament (MP) can subscribe to the oath or affirmation in English or any of the 22 languages specified in the Constitution.
- The Constitution specifies that if an MP does not attend Parliament for 90 days, their seat can be declared vacant.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Before being called upon to take the oath or affirmation, MPs must submit their election certificate to the Lok Sabha staff. Parliament added this safeguard after an incident in 1957, in which a mentally unsound individual posed as an MP and took the oath on the floor of the House. After the verification, MPs can subscribe to the oath or affirmation in English or any of the 22 languages specified in the Constitution.
The Constitution specifies that if an MP does not attend Parliament for 60 days, their seat can be declared vacant. Courts have used this ground to allow MPs in jail to take an oath in Parliament.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Before being called upon to take the oath or affirmation, MPs must submit their election certificate to the Lok Sabha staff. Parliament added this safeguard after an incident in 1957, in which a mentally unsound individual posed as an MP and took the oath on the floor of the House. After the verification, MPs can subscribe to the oath or affirmation in English or any of the 22 languages specified in the Constitution.
The Constitution specifies that if an MP does not attend Parliament for 60 days, their seat can be declared vacant. Courts have used this ground to allow MPs in jail to take an oath in Parliament.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Central Council of Ministers.
- The Central Council of Ministers it is effectively the real executive authority.
- The size of the Council of Ministers should not exceed 15% of the total strength of both the houses of parliament.
- Article 88 does not guarantee them the right to vote in both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: a)
Statement 2 is incorrect.
The Central Council of Ministers is led by the Prime Minister and plays a vital role in government policy-making. Given the parliamentary system of government in India, it is effectively the real executive authority.
While the President of India is the head of the Executive, they must act on the aid and advice of the COM as mandated by the Indian Constitution. According to Article 74, “There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice…”
Article 75 further states that the President appoints the Prime Minister. Based on the PM’s recommendation, the President also appoints other ministers. The article mandates that the size of this council should not exceed 15% of the strength of the Lok Sabha, or the House of the people.
Article 88 empowers the ministers to speak or otherwise participate in proceedings in both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, as well as any joint session of both houses or any Parliamentary committee they may be a part of. However, it does not guarantee them the right to vote.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Statement 2 is incorrect.
The Central Council of Ministers is led by the Prime Minister and plays a vital role in government policy-making. Given the parliamentary system of government in India, it is effectively the real executive authority.
While the President of India is the head of the Executive, they must act on the aid and advice of the COM as mandated by the Indian Constitution. According to Article 74, “There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice…”
Article 75 further states that the President appoints the Prime Minister. Based on the PM’s recommendation, the President also appoints other ministers. The article mandates that the size of this council should not exceed 15% of the strength of the Lok Sabha, or the House of the people.
Article 88 empowers the ministers to speak or otherwise participate in proceedings in both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, as well as any joint session of both houses or any Parliamentary committee they may be a part of. However, it does not guarantee them the right to vote.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Consider the following statements.
- Under Article 105 of the Constitution of India, no Member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said in Parliament or any committee thereof.
- According to Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, If the Speaker is of opinion that the words used by MPs in debate are defamatory or unparliamentary, the Speaker may, while exercising discretion order that such words be expunged from the proceedings of the House.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Under Article 105(2) of the Constitution, “no Member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said…in Parliament or any committee thereof”. However, MPs don’t enjoy the freedom to say whatever they want inside the House.
The speech of MPs is subject to the discipline of the Rules of Parliament, “good sense” of its Members, and the control of proceedings by the Speaker. These checks ensure that MPs cannot use “defamatory or indecent or undignified or unparliamentary words” inside the House.
Rule 380 (“Expunction”) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha says: “If the Speaker is of opinion that words have been used in debate which are defamatory or indecent or unparliamentary or undignified, the Speaker may, while exercising discretion order that such words be expunged from the proceedings of the House.”
Rule 381 says: “The portion of the proceedings of the House so expunged shall be marked by asterisks and an explanatory footnote shall be inserted in the proceedings as follows: ‘Expunged as ordered by the Chair’.”
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Under Article 105(2) of the Constitution, “no Member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said…in Parliament or any committee thereof”. However, MPs don’t enjoy the freedom to say whatever they want inside the House.
The speech of MPs is subject to the discipline of the Rules of Parliament, “good sense” of its Members, and the control of proceedings by the Speaker. These checks ensure that MPs cannot use “defamatory or indecent or undignified or unparliamentary words” inside the House.
Rule 380 (“Expunction”) of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha says: “If the Speaker is of opinion that words have been used in debate which are defamatory or indecent or unparliamentary or undignified, the Speaker may, while exercising discretion order that such words be expunged from the proceedings of the House.”
Rule 381 says: “The portion of the proceedings of the House so expunged shall be marked by asterisks and an explanatory footnote shall be inserted in the proceedings as follows: ‘Expunged as ordered by the Chair’.”
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducts which of the following examinations?
- Engineering Services Examination
- Combined Medical Services Examination
- Group B (non-gazetted) jobs in the central government
- Common University Entrance Test (CUET)
How many of the above options is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Option 1 and 2 is correct.
(i) Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), which conducts the Civil Services Examination, Combined Defence Services Examinations, Combined Medical Services Examination, Engineering Services Examination, etc.;
(ii) Staff Selection Commission (SSC), which recruits for Group C (non-technical) and Group B (non-gazetted) jobs in the central government;
(iii) the Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs), which recruit Groups C and D staff in the Indian Railways;
(iv) Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS), which hires at all levels for nationalised banks and regional rural banks (RRBs); and
(v) National Testing Agency (NTA), which conducts the JEE (Main), NEET-UG, UGC-NET, the Common University Entrance Test (CUET), etc.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Option 1 and 2 is correct.
(i) Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), which conducts the Civil Services Examination, Combined Defence Services Examinations, Combined Medical Services Examination, Engineering Services Examination, etc.;
(ii) Staff Selection Commission (SSC), which recruits for Group C (non-technical) and Group B (non-gazetted) jobs in the central government;
(iii) the Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs), which recruit Groups C and D staff in the Indian Railways;
(iv) Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS), which hires at all levels for nationalised banks and regional rural banks (RRBs); and
(v) National Testing Agency (NTA), which conducts the JEE (Main), NEET-UG, UGC-NET, the Common University Entrance Test (CUET), etc.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Consider the following statements.
- The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India moved education from the Concurrent list to the State List.
- The Constitution of India provides that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution: a)
Constitutional Provisions related to education:
- The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution in 1976 moved education from the State to theConcurrent List.
- Article 21A: It provides free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a fundamental Right.
- Article 39(f): It provides that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity
- Article 45: The State shall endeavour to provide, within a period of ten years from the commencement of this Constitution, for free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of fourteen years.
- ARTICLE 46: The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Constitutional Provisions related to education:
- The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution in 1976 moved education from the State to theConcurrent List.
- Article 21A: It provides free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a fundamental Right.
- Article 39(f): It provides that children are given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity
- Article 45: The State shall endeavour to provide, within a period of ten years from the commencement of this Constitution, for free and compulsory education for all children until they complete the age of fourteen years.
- ARTICLE 46: The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people.
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