
The Current Affairs Quiz 2024 is a daily quiz based on the DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS AND PIB SUMMARY from the previous day, as posted on our website. It covers all relevant news sources and is designed to test your knowledge of current events. Solving these questions will help you retain both concepts and facts relevant to the UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding White Goods:
- White goods, by definition, include large domestic appliances used for household tasks.
- Air conditioners under the PLI scheme focus on developing components like compressors and heat exchangers.
- The inclusion of LED lights in white goods is due to their use in essential household functions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
White goods primarily include large appliances used for household chores, and the PLI scheme promotes manufacturing of critical components like compressors. LED lights are categorized as white goods because of their utility in households.
About White Goods:
- What it is: White goods are large home appliances used for routine domestic chores, such as cleaning, cooking, and climate control. These products are durable and designed to last for years.
- Appliances Under White Goods:
- Kitchen Appliances: Refrigerators, ovens, microwaves, dishwashers.
- Laundry Room Appliances: Washing machines, dryers.
- Climate Control Devices: Air conditioners, heaters, dehumidifiers, fans.
- LED lights: Cover core component and components too.
- Features of White Goods:
- Durability: Long-lasting and designed for heavy daily use.
- Versatility: Available in various sizes, finishes, and technologies to cater to diverse needs.
- Energy Efficiency: Modern appliances come with energy-saving features to reduce electricity consumption.
- Technological Integration: Smart appliances with IoT connectivity for remote control and monitoring.
- Aesthetic Appeal: Wide range of designs and colors to suit modern interiors.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
White goods primarily include large appliances used for household chores, and the PLI scheme promotes manufacturing of critical components like compressors. LED lights are categorized as white goods because of their utility in households.
About White Goods:
- What it is: White goods are large home appliances used for routine domestic chores, such as cleaning, cooking, and climate control. These products are durable and designed to last for years.
- Appliances Under White Goods:
- Kitchen Appliances: Refrigerators, ovens, microwaves, dishwashers.
- Laundry Room Appliances: Washing machines, dryers.
- Climate Control Devices: Air conditioners, heaters, dehumidifiers, fans.
- LED lights: Cover core component and components too.
- Features of White Goods:
- Durability: Long-lasting and designed for heavy daily use.
- Versatility: Available in various sizes, finishes, and technologies to cater to diverse needs.
- Energy Efficiency: Modern appliances come with energy-saving features to reduce electricity consumption.
- Technological Integration: Smart appliances with IoT connectivity for remote control and monitoring.
- Aesthetic Appeal: Wide range of designs and colors to suit modern interiors.
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Entity Locker:
- Entity Locker provides secure, cloud-based document management for businesses and organizations.
- It offers real-time document access by integrating with government databases.
- The platform ensures legally valid document authentication through digital signatures.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Entity Locker simplifies document management through cloud-based solutions, enables integration with government databases for real-time access, and ensures the authenticity of documents through digital signatures.
About Entity Locker:
- What it is: Entity Locker is a secure, cloud-based platform developed by the National eGovernance Division (NeGD) under MeitY to simplify the storage, sharing, and verification of business documents for organizations, MSMEs, startups, trusts, and societies.
- Ministry: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
- Aim: To create a streamlined and efficient business document management system, reduce administrative overhead, and promote ease of doing business.
- Covers: Large Organizations, Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Startups, Trusts and Societies and Other Entities.
- Features:
- Real-Time Document Access: Integration with government databases for instant verification.
- Secure Cloud Storage: Provides 10 GB of encrypted storage for document management.
- Consent-Based Sharing: Ensures secure sharing of sensitive data with partners and stakeholders.
- Digital Signature Authentication: Enables legally valid authentication for documents.
- Role-Based Access Management: Aadhaar-authenticated access ensures accountability.
- Government Integration: Seamlessly linked with systems like Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN), Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), and Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) for compliance processes.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Entity Locker simplifies document management through cloud-based solutions, enables integration with government databases for real-time access, and ensures the authenticity of documents through digital signatures.
About Entity Locker:
- What it is: Entity Locker is a secure, cloud-based platform developed by the National eGovernance Division (NeGD) under MeitY to simplify the storage, sharing, and verification of business documents for organizations, MSMEs, startups, trusts, and societies.
- Ministry: Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
- Aim: To create a streamlined and efficient business document management system, reduce administrative overhead, and promote ease of doing business.
- Covers: Large Organizations, Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Startups, Trusts and Societies and Other Entities.
- Features:
- Real-Time Document Access: Integration with government databases for instant verification.
- Secure Cloud Storage: Provides 10 GB of encrypted storage for document management.
- Consent-Based Sharing: Ensures secure sharing of sensitive data with partners and stakeholders.
- Digital Signature Authentication: Enables legally valid authentication for documents.
- Role-Based Access Management: Aadhaar-authenticated access ensures accountability.
- Government Integration: Seamlessly linked with systems like Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN), Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), and Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) for compliance processes.
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following features of coffee cultivation:
- Coffee requires acidic soil with a pH of 7–8 for optimal growth.
- Robusta coffee is mostly grown at lower elevations compared to Arabica.
- Karnataka is the largest coffee-producing state in India.
- Coffee plants thrive in regions with well-distributed annual rainfall.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Coffee requires acidic soil with a pH range of 4.5–6.5, not 7–8. Robusta is grown at lower elevations, while Arabica is cultivated at higher altitudes. Karnataka leads in coffee production in India.
About Coffee:
- Origin: Coffee was introduced to India in the 1600s when Baba Budan, a Sufi saint, planted seven Mocha coffee beans from Yemen in Karnataka’s Baba Budan Giri region. This marked the beginning of India’s coffee cultivation.
- Types of Coffee:
- Arabica: Known for its mild, aromatic flavor and higher market value.
- Robusta: Hardier, with a strong taste, often used in instant coffee production.
- Climatic Conditions for Coffee Cultivation:
- Temperature: Ideal range is 15°C to 28°C.
- Rainfall: Requires 150-250 cm of annual rainfall.
- Soil: Grows best in well-drained, loamy soil rich in humus and minerals like iron and calcium.
- Climate: Thrives in a hot, humid climate with shaded plantations.
- Elevation: Typically cultivated at altitudes of 600–1,600 meters above sea level.
- India in Coffee Production:
- Global Ranking: India ranks seventh in global coffee production.
- Exports: Over 70% of coffee production is exported, with Italy, Belgium, and Russia being major buyers.
- State-wise Production:
- Karnataka: Largest producer, contributing over 70% of India’s coffee.
- Kerala: Second largest producer.
- Tamil Nadu: Third in production.
- Other States: Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and the northeastern regions contribute marginally.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Coffee requires acidic soil with a pH range of 4.5–6.5, not 7–8. Robusta is grown at lower elevations, while Arabica is cultivated at higher altitudes. Karnataka leads in coffee production in India.
About Coffee:
- Origin: Coffee was introduced to India in the 1600s when Baba Budan, a Sufi saint, planted seven Mocha coffee beans from Yemen in Karnataka’s Baba Budan Giri region. This marked the beginning of India’s coffee cultivation.
- Types of Coffee:
- Arabica: Known for its mild, aromatic flavor and higher market value.
- Robusta: Hardier, with a strong taste, often used in instant coffee production.
- Climatic Conditions for Coffee Cultivation:
- Temperature: Ideal range is 15°C to 28°C.
- Rainfall: Requires 150-250 cm of annual rainfall.
- Soil: Grows best in well-drained, loamy soil rich in humus and minerals like iron and calcium.
- Climate: Thrives in a hot, humid climate with shaded plantations.
- Elevation: Typically cultivated at altitudes of 600–1,600 meters above sea level.
- India in Coffee Production:
- Global Ranking: India ranks seventh in global coffee production.
- Exports: Over 70% of coffee production is exported, with Italy, Belgium, and Russia being major buyers.
- State-wise Production:
- Karnataka: Largest producer, contributing over 70% of India’s coffee.
- Kerala: Second largest producer.
- Tamil Nadu: Third in production.
- Other States: Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and the northeastern regions contribute marginally.
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ratnagiri.
Statement-I: Ratnagiri was one of the most significant centers of Buddhist learning in India during the medieval period.
Statement-II: Its strategic location near ancient trade routes contributed to its development as a hub for the spread of Buddhism to Southeast Asia.Which one of the following is correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Ratnagiri’s location near Odisha’s maritime trade routes facilitated cultural and religious exchanges, making it a major center for spreading Buddhist teachings.
About Ratnagiri Excavation:
- Location: Ratnagiri is located in Jajpur district, Odisha, approximately 100 km northeast of Bhubaneswar.
- It is part of the Diamond Triangle of Odisha, along with Udaygiri and Lalitgiri.
- Artifacts found in recent excavations:
- Colossal Buddha Head: Measuring 3–4 feet in height.
- Massive Palm: Approximately 5 feet long.
- Ancient Wall: Uncovered alongside Buddhist relics.
- Inscribed Relics: Dating back to the 8th and 9th centuries AD.
- Ratnagiri and the History of Buddhism:
- Ratnagiri flourished between the 5th and 13th centuries, with its peak construction occurring between the 7th and 10th centuries.
- It was a center for Mahayana and Tantrayana (Vajrayana) Buddhism.
- Buddhism in Odisha gained prominence under Mauryan Emperor Ashoka after the Kalinga War (261 BCE).
- The site likely served as a hub for spreading Buddhism to Southeast Asia, supported by Odisha’s ancient maritime trade links.
- Significance of Ratnagiri:
- Historical Significance: Rivaled Nalanda as a Buddhist learning center.
- Cultural Heritage: Home to votive stupas, monasteries, and relics, showcasing the evolution of Buddhist art and architecture.
- Global Links: Evidence suggests close connections with Southeast Asia through trade and religious exchanges.
- Educational Hub: Likely visited by Chinese monk Hiuen Tsang in 638–639 AD.
- Maritime Legacy: Part of Odisha’s celebrated Baliyatra, commemorating trade links with regions like Java, Sumatra, and Bali.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Ratnagiri’s location near Odisha’s maritime trade routes facilitated cultural and religious exchanges, making it a major center for spreading Buddhist teachings.
About Ratnagiri Excavation:
- Location: Ratnagiri is located in Jajpur district, Odisha, approximately 100 km northeast of Bhubaneswar.
- It is part of the Diamond Triangle of Odisha, along with Udaygiri and Lalitgiri.
- Artifacts found in recent excavations:
- Colossal Buddha Head: Measuring 3–4 feet in height.
- Massive Palm: Approximately 5 feet long.
- Ancient Wall: Uncovered alongside Buddhist relics.
- Inscribed Relics: Dating back to the 8th and 9th centuries AD.
- Ratnagiri and the History of Buddhism:
- Ratnagiri flourished between the 5th and 13th centuries, with its peak construction occurring between the 7th and 10th centuries.
- It was a center for Mahayana and Tantrayana (Vajrayana) Buddhism.
- Buddhism in Odisha gained prominence under Mauryan Emperor Ashoka after the Kalinga War (261 BCE).
- The site likely served as a hub for spreading Buddhism to Southeast Asia, supported by Odisha’s ancient maritime trade links.
- Significance of Ratnagiri:
- Historical Significance: Rivaled Nalanda as a Buddhist learning center.
- Cultural Heritage: Home to votive stupas, monasteries, and relics, showcasing the evolution of Buddhist art and architecture.
- Global Links: Evidence suggests close connections with Southeast Asia through trade and religious exchanges.
- Educational Hub: Likely visited by Chinese monk Hiuen Tsang in 638–639 AD.
- Maritime Legacy: Part of Odisha’s celebrated Baliyatra, commemorating trade links with regions like Java, Sumatra, and Bali.
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following features of the World Economic Forum (WEF):
- It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
- The WEF’s Global Competitiveness Report assesses the economic competitiveness of countries.
- The Energy Transition Index is one of the WEF’s flagship publications.
- The WEF facilitates global initiatives such as stakeholder dialogues on climate change and technological innovation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
The WEF is headquartered in Cologny, Switzerland, not Geneva. Its reports and initiatives focus on competitiveness, energy transition, and global cooperation.
About World Economic Forum (WEF):
- Established in: The WEF was founded in 1971 as the European Management Forum, later renamed the World Economic Forum in 1987.
- Headquarters: The WEF is headquartered in Cologny, Switzerland.
- Established by: German economist Klaus Schwab, who introduced the concept of “stakeholder capitalism”.
- Aim:
- To improve the state of the world by fostering public-private cooperation.
- To address global economic, social, and environmental challenges through collaboration among stakeholders.
- 2025 Theme: “Collaboration for the Intelligent Age”
- Functions:
- Global Dialogues: Organizes the Annual Meeting in Davos, where leaders brainstorm on solutions to pressing global issues.
- Publications and Rankings: Regularly releases reports like the Global Competitiveness Report, Global Gender Gap Report, Future of Jobs Report and Energy Transition Index.
- Policy Advocacy: Promotes sustainability, inclusive development, and technological innovation.
- Diplomatic Initiatives: Facilitates dialogues, such as the historic 1992 meeting between Nelson Mandela and South African President de Klerk.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
The WEF is headquartered in Cologny, Switzerland, not Geneva. Its reports and initiatives focus on competitiveness, energy transition, and global cooperation.
About World Economic Forum (WEF):
- Established in: The WEF was founded in 1971 as the European Management Forum, later renamed the World Economic Forum in 1987.
- Headquarters: The WEF is headquartered in Cologny, Switzerland.
- Established by: German economist Klaus Schwab, who introduced the concept of “stakeholder capitalism”.
- Aim:
- To improve the state of the world by fostering public-private cooperation.
- To address global economic, social, and environmental challenges through collaboration among stakeholders.
- 2025 Theme: “Collaboration for the Intelligent Age”
- Functions:
- Global Dialogues: Organizes the Annual Meeting in Davos, where leaders brainstorm on solutions to pressing global issues.
- Publications and Rankings: Regularly releases reports like the Global Competitiveness Report, Global Gender Gap Report, Future of Jobs Report and Energy Transition Index.
- Policy Advocacy: Promotes sustainability, inclusive development, and technological innovation.
- Diplomatic Initiatives: Facilitates dialogues, such as the historic 1992 meeting between Nelson Mandela and South African President de Klerk.
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB):
- It was established under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962.
- It functions as an autonomous body under the Atomic Energy Commission.
- It oversees the safety of nuclear installations and radiological facilities in India.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
- The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) was established in 1983, not under the Atomic Energy Act of 1962 but through a notification issued by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). Therefore, the first statement is incorrect.
- AERB functions as an autonomous body under the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC), ensuring that its decisions and operations are impartial and independent.
- Its primary mandate is to oversee the safety of nuclear installations, radiological facilities, and the proper implementation of safety standards in India. This includes licensing, safety monitoring, and enforcement in facilities handling radioactive materials.
- The second and third statements are correct, as the AERB plays a critical role in protecting workers, the public, and the environment from potential hazards associated with nuclear and radiological activities. By maintaining rigorous safety measures, the AERB ensures India’s compliance with international safety standards and supports the peaceful use of nuclear energy.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
- The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB) was established in 1983, not under the Atomic Energy Act of 1962 but through a notification issued by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). Therefore, the first statement is incorrect.
- AERB functions as an autonomous body under the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC), ensuring that its decisions and operations are impartial and independent.
- Its primary mandate is to oversee the safety of nuclear installations, radiological facilities, and the proper implementation of safety standards in India. This includes licensing, safety monitoring, and enforcement in facilities handling radioactive materials.
- The second and third statements are correct, as the AERB plays a critical role in protecting workers, the public, and the environment from potential hazards associated with nuclear and radiological activities. By maintaining rigorous safety measures, the AERB ensures India’s compliance with international safety standards and supports the peaceful use of nuclear energy.
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhat is the primary cause of frequent disputes along the India-Bangladesh border?
Correct
Solution: a)
- The primary cause of frequent disputes along the India-Bangladesh border lies in unresolved riverine boundaries and conflicting claims over enclaves. The fluid nature of riverine borders, especially along stretches like the Comilla-Tripura area, often leads to disagreements about land ownership and jurisdiction.
- Additionally, enclaves—pockets of land belonging to one country but located within the territory of another—exacerbated tensions for decades. Many of these issues were significantly mitigated through the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) of 2015, which aimed to resolve enclave disputes by facilitating land exchanges and clarifying boundary demarcations.
- However, challenges persist in certain riverine regions where natural shifts in river courses create new ambiguities. Other issues like illegal migration and smuggling compound border tensions, but they are secondary to the primary territorial disputes.
- The resolution of these disputes relies on continued dialogue, joint border management, and the implementation of mutually agreed boundary settlements.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
- The primary cause of frequent disputes along the India-Bangladesh border lies in unresolved riverine boundaries and conflicting claims over enclaves. The fluid nature of riverine borders, especially along stretches like the Comilla-Tripura area, often leads to disagreements about land ownership and jurisdiction.
- Additionally, enclaves—pockets of land belonging to one country but located within the territory of another—exacerbated tensions for decades. Many of these issues were significantly mitigated through the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) of 2015, which aimed to resolve enclave disputes by facilitating land exchanges and clarifying boundary demarcations.
- However, challenges persist in certain riverine regions where natural shifts in river courses create new ambiguities. Other issues like illegal migration and smuggling compound border tensions, but they are secondary to the primary territorial disputes.
- The resolution of these disputes relies on continued dialogue, joint border management, and the implementation of mutually agreed boundary settlements.
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the US AI Export Rule’s impact on India:
- It places a cap on the number of advanced AI chips that India can import.
- It encourages self-reliance in AI hardware manufacturing in India.
- It includes India in Tier 1, indicating its strategic partnership with the U.S.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
- The US AI Export Rule impacts India by imposing restrictions on the number of advanced AI chips that can be imported, aligning with the first statement. This move aims to prevent the misuse of cutting-edge AI technology while indirectly encouraging countries like India to enhance self-reliance in AI hardware manufacturing, making the second statement correct.
- However, the third statement is incorrect because India is categorized as a Tier 2 nation under this rule, reflecting a closer but not the most privileged level of strategic partnership with the United States.
- Tier 2 nations face stricter controls compared to Tier 1 countries, which are considered more aligned with U.S. strategic interests.
- This classification affects India’s access to certain advanced technologies, further motivating domestic innovation and development in AI-related sectors.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
- The US AI Export Rule impacts India by imposing restrictions on the number of advanced AI chips that can be imported, aligning with the first statement. This move aims to prevent the misuse of cutting-edge AI technology while indirectly encouraging countries like India to enhance self-reliance in AI hardware manufacturing, making the second statement correct.
- However, the third statement is incorrect because India is categorized as a Tier 2 nation under this rule, reflecting a closer but not the most privileged level of strategic partnership with the United States.
- Tier 2 nations face stricter controls compared to Tier 1 countries, which are considered more aligned with U.S. strategic interests.
- This classification affects India’s access to certain advanced technologies, further motivating domestic innovation and development in AI-related sectors.
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Nautor Land:
- It is applicable only to tribal regions in India.
- It allows land leasing for non-agricultural purposes, such as mining.
- It was first implemented in the Northeast region of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: d)
- Nautor Land policies do not apply exclusively to tribal regions, making the first statement incorrect. These policies focus on agricultural activities rather than non-agricultural uses such as mining, making the second statement incorrect as well.
- Additionally, the concept of Nautor Land originated in Jammu and Kashmir rather than the Northeast region, rendering the third statement incorrect.
- Nautor Land policies typically involve granting land rights to individuals for agricultural purposes, especially in hilly or forested areas, to promote development while maintaining sustainable land use.
Incorrect
Solution: d)
- Nautor Land policies do not apply exclusively to tribal regions, making the first statement incorrect. These policies focus on agricultural activities rather than non-agricultural uses such as mining, making the second statement incorrect as well.
- Additionally, the concept of Nautor Land originated in Jammu and Kashmir rather than the Northeast region, rendering the third statement incorrect.
- Nautor Land policies typically involve granting land rights to individuals for agricultural purposes, especially in hilly or forested areas, to promote development while maintaining sustainable land use.
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following accurately describes the significance of being removed from the U.S. Entity List?
Correct
Solution: c)
Being removed from the U.S. Entity List is significant as it eases restrictions on trade and technology transfer previously imposed by the United States. However, this does not mean that entities are free from all global restrictions or licensing requirements, as international agreements or specific export controls may still apply. Removal primarily signals an improvement in bilateral relations, opening up opportunities for enhanced trade and access to U.S. technologies. However, it does not grant automatic, unrestricted access to all U.S. technologies or military alliances.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Being removed from the U.S. Entity List is significant as it eases restrictions on trade and technology transfer previously imposed by the United States. However, this does not mean that entities are free from all global restrictions or licensing requirements, as international agreements or specific export controls may still apply. Removal primarily signals an improvement in bilateral relations, opening up opportunities for enhanced trade and access to U.S. technologies. However, it does not grant automatic, unrestricted access to all U.S. technologies or military alliances.
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