INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024
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Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
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Question 1 of 40
1. Question
1 pointsWhich clinical scoring system is used to assist in the diagnosis of DRESS Syndrome?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Recently, the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) has issued a drug safety alert for doctors and patients about the use of painkiller mefenamic acid can lead to Drug Reactions with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms (DRESS) Syndrome.
- About the DRESS Syndrome:
- It is a type of drug allergy that can occur as a reaction to a large variety of medications.
- It is sometimes referred to as DIHS (Drug Induced Hypersensitivity Syndrome).
- This syndrome causes a diverse array of clinical symptoms, anywhere from 2 to 8 weeks after initiating the offending drugs
- Symptoms:
- Patients typically present with a rash, fever, and eosinophilia but can have a variety of symptoms including liver, lung, or kidney involvement.
- Also have a visceral involvement (hepatitis, pneumonitis, myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis, and colitis) which is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in this syndrome.
- Treatment:
- The most important step to treat DRESS Syndrome is to stop the medication involved in the reaction, and sometimes, no further treatment is needed.
- It is largely supportive and symptomatic; corticosteroids are often used and sometimes immunosuppressants like cyclosporine.
- The RegiSCAR score is specifically developed to diagnose DRESS Syndrome by assessing a combination of clinical features and laboratory findings unique to this condition. Other scoring systems like SCORTEN, SOFA, and APACHE II are designed for other purposes and are not used in the diagnosis of DRESS Syndrome.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Recently, the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) has issued a drug safety alert for doctors and patients about the use of painkiller mefenamic acid can lead to Drug Reactions with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms (DRESS) Syndrome.
- About the DRESS Syndrome:
- It is a type of drug allergy that can occur as a reaction to a large variety of medications.
- It is sometimes referred to as DIHS (Drug Induced Hypersensitivity Syndrome).
- This syndrome causes a diverse array of clinical symptoms, anywhere from 2 to 8 weeks after initiating the offending drugs
- Symptoms:
- Patients typically present with a rash, fever, and eosinophilia but can have a variety of symptoms including liver, lung, or kidney involvement.
- Also have a visceral involvement (hepatitis, pneumonitis, myocarditis, pericarditis, nephritis, and colitis) which is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in this syndrome.
- Treatment:
- The most important step to treat DRESS Syndrome is to stop the medication involved in the reaction, and sometimes, no further treatment is needed.
- It is largely supportive and symptomatic; corticosteroids are often used and sometimes immunosuppressants like cyclosporine.
- The RegiSCAR score is specifically developed to diagnose DRESS Syndrome by assessing a combination of clinical features and laboratory findings unique to this condition. Other scoring systems like SCORTEN, SOFA, and APACHE II are designed for other purposes and are not used in the diagnosis of DRESS Syndrome.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 2 of 40
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to the Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC):
- The IPC promotes the rational use of branded medicines by publishing the National Formulary of India.
- The IPC prescribes standards for the identity, purity, and strength of drugs required for human and veterinary health care.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission is an autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, of India.
- It is created to set standards of drugs in the country.
- Functions:
- Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for treatment of diseases prevailing in this region.
- It publishes official documents for improving Quality of Medicines by way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP).
- It further promotes rational use of generic medicines by publishing National Formulary of India
- It prescribes standards for identity, purity and strength of drugs essentially required from the health-care perspective of human beings and animals.
- It also provides IP Reference Substances (IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP.
- The IPC promotes the rational use of generic medicines, not branded medicines, by publishing the National Formulary of India. The focus on generic medicines aims to ensure affordable and accessible medication. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- The IPC indeed prescribes standards for the identity, purity, and strength of drugs required for both human and veterinary health care. These standards are crucial for ensuring the safety and efficacy of medications. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission is an autonomous Institution of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, of India.
- It is created to set standards of drugs in the country.
- Functions:
- Its basic function is to update regularly the standards of drugs commonly required for treatment of diseases prevailing in this region.
- It publishes official documents for improving Quality of Medicines by way of adding new and updating existing monographs in the form of Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP).
- It further promotes rational use of generic medicines by publishing National Formulary of India
- It prescribes standards for identity, purity and strength of drugs essentially required from the health-care perspective of human beings and animals.
- It also provides IP Reference Substances (IPRS) which act as a fingerprint for identification of an article under test and its purity as prescribed in IP.
- The IPC promotes the rational use of generic medicines, not branded medicines, by publishing the National Formulary of India. The focus on generic medicines aims to ensure affordable and accessible medication. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- The IPC indeed prescribes standards for the identity, purity, and strength of drugs required for both human and veterinary health care. These standards are crucial for ensuring the safety and efficacy of medications. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 3 of 40
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Geospatial Intelligence:
- Geospatial technology uses tools like GIS, GPS, and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis.
- Digital twins are virtual replicas of real systems, used for modeling and predicting outcomes in Geospatial Intelligence.
- Geospatial Intelligence plays an important role in the development of autonomous vehicles by providing ground-level details.
- There is a lack of skilled manpower in India, affecting the deployment of geospatial services.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Geospatial Intelligence uses tools like GIS (Geographic Information System), GPS (Global Positioning System) and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis.
- These tools capture spatial information about objects, events and phenomena (indexed to their geographical location on earth, geotag). The location data may be Static or Dynamic. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Digital twins are virtual replicas of real-world systems, processes, or objects. They are used extensively in Geospatial Intelligence for:
- Modeling: Simulating real-world conditions and scenarios.
- Predicting Outcomes: Forecasting the impact of various factors on the real system.
- Applications: Effective in urban planning, disaster management, and environmental monitoring by allowing stakeholders to test and analyze different strategies in a virtual environment.
- Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Geospatial Intelligence is integral to the development of autonomous vehicles:
- Ground-Level Details: Provides precise and detailed mapping of the terrain, road networks, traffic patterns, and obstacles.
- Navigation and Safety: Enhances the vehicle’s ability to navigate safely and efficiently by integrating real-time spatial data.
- Examples: High-resolution maps and real-time data feeds are essential for the functioning of autonomous driving systems in companies like Tesla, Google (Waymo), and others.
- Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Geospatial Intelligence is integral to the development of autonomous vehicles:
- Ground-Level Details: Provides precise and detailed mapping of the terrain, road networks, traffic patterns, and obstacles.
- Navigation and Safety: Enhances the vehicle’s ability to navigate safely and efficiently by integrating real-time spatial data.
- Examples: High-resolution maps and real-time data feeds are essential for the functioning of autonomous driving systems in companies like Tesla, Google (Waymo), and others.
- Hence, statement 4 is correct.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Geospatial Intelligence uses tools like GIS (Geographic Information System), GPS (Global Positioning System) and Remote Sensing for geographic mapping and analysis.
- These tools capture spatial information about objects, events and phenomena (indexed to their geographical location on earth, geotag). The location data may be Static or Dynamic. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Digital twins are virtual replicas of real-world systems, processes, or objects. They are used extensively in Geospatial Intelligence for:
- Modeling: Simulating real-world conditions and scenarios.
- Predicting Outcomes: Forecasting the impact of various factors on the real system.
- Applications: Effective in urban planning, disaster management, and environmental monitoring by allowing stakeholders to test and analyze different strategies in a virtual environment.
- Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Geospatial Intelligence is integral to the development of autonomous vehicles:
- Ground-Level Details: Provides precise and detailed mapping of the terrain, road networks, traffic patterns, and obstacles.
- Navigation and Safety: Enhances the vehicle’s ability to navigate safely and efficiently by integrating real-time spatial data.
- Examples: High-resolution maps and real-time data feeds are essential for the functioning of autonomous driving systems in companies like Tesla, Google (Waymo), and others.
- Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Geospatial Intelligence is integral to the development of autonomous vehicles:
- Ground-Level Details: Provides precise and detailed mapping of the terrain, road networks, traffic patterns, and obstacles.
- Navigation and Safety: Enhances the vehicle’s ability to navigate safely and efficiently by integrating real-time spatial data.
- Examples: High-resolution maps and real-time data feeds are essential for the functioning of autonomous driving systems in companies like Tesla, Google (Waymo), and others.
- Hence, statement 4 is correct.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 4 of 40
4. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ’Metaverse’, consider the following statements:
- The term Metaverse was coined by Mark Zuckerberg.
- The Metaverse is nothing but an extension of our real world into the digital realm.
- In the Metaverse, people can socialize with others, engage in various activities, and even conduct business or trade.
How many of the above are incorrect?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
- The term “metaverse” first appeared in author Neal Stephenson’s 1992 science-fiction novel Snowcrash, which describes a future where millions of people use virtual avatars to participate in a cyberspace realm. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- Metaverse refers to a virtual or digital universewhere people can interact with each other and digital objects in a shared online space.The metaverse is essentially an interconnected network of virtual worlds, augmented reality, and virtual reality environments accessible through the internet The metaverse is an extension of our real world into the digital realm providing an immersive multi-user experience for anyone accessing it around the globe. The metaverse aims to offer a seamless and immersive experience, blurring the lines between the physical and digital worlds. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- In this digital realm, users can create avatars, socialize with others, engage in various activities,explore virtual landscapes, and even conduct business or trade virtual goods and services. Elements of the metaverse include virtual reality (VR) platforms, augmented reality (AR) experiences, online games, social media, virtual commerce, and virtual art galleries, among others. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
- The term “metaverse” first appeared in author Neal Stephenson’s 1992 science-fiction novel Snowcrash, which describes a future where millions of people use virtual avatars to participate in a cyberspace realm. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- Metaverse refers to a virtual or digital universewhere people can interact with each other and digital objects in a shared online space.The metaverse is essentially an interconnected network of virtual worlds, augmented reality, and virtual reality environments accessible through the internet The metaverse is an extension of our real world into the digital realm providing an immersive multi-user experience for anyone accessing it around the globe. The metaverse aims to offer a seamless and immersive experience, blurring the lines between the physical and digital worlds. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- In this digital realm, users can create avatars, socialize with others, engage in various activities,explore virtual landscapes, and even conduct business or trade virtual goods and services. Elements of the metaverse include virtual reality (VR) platforms, augmented reality (AR) experiences, online games, social media, virtual commerce, and virtual art galleries, among others. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
-
Question 5 of 40
5. Question
1 pointsThree identical vessels A, B and C are filled with water, mercury and kerosene respectively. The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom of the vessels. If the three taps are opened simultaneously, then which vessel is emptied first?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Three identical vessels A, B, and C are filled with water, mercury, and kerosene respectively. The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom.
- Water (Vessel A): Water has a lower density compared to both mercury and kerosene.
- Mercury (Vessel B): Mercury is denser than water but less dense than kerosene.
- Kerosene (Vessel C): Kerosene is the least dense among the three liquids.
- The speed at which a fluid flows out of a vessel through a tap is inversely proportional to the fluid’s density. Therefore, the vessel with the least dense fluid will empty first.
- Given this, kerosene in Vessel C will flow out the fastest, followed by mercury in Vessel B, and finally, water in Vessel A will flow out the slowest.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Three identical vessels A, B, and C are filled with water, mercury, and kerosene respectively. The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom.
- Water (Vessel A): Water has a lower density compared to both mercury and kerosene.
- Mercury (Vessel B): Mercury is denser than water but less dense than kerosene.
- Kerosene (Vessel C): Kerosene is the least dense among the three liquids.
- The speed at which a fluid flows out of a vessel through a tap is inversely proportional to the fluid’s density. Therefore, the vessel with the least dense fluid will empty first.
- Given this, kerosene in Vessel C will flow out the fastest, followed by mercury in Vessel B, and finally, water in Vessel A will flow out the slowest.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 6 of 40
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following best describes ‘Facultative parthenogenesis’?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Recently, scientists have documented the first-known instance of a “virgin birth” by a crocodile, which had been living in isolation for 16 years at Costa Rican Zoo. Scientists found DNA sequences showing it was a result of facultative parthenogenesis or reproduction without the genetic contribution of males.
- Facultative parthenogenesis is the term for when a female can produce offspring either sexually or via asexual reproduction. The phenomenon of FP has also been documented in other species of fish, birds, lizards and snakes. The scientists said this is the first-known example of a crocodile.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Recently, scientists have documented the first-known instance of a “virgin birth” by a crocodile, which had been living in isolation for 16 years at Costa Rican Zoo. Scientists found DNA sequences showing it was a result of facultative parthenogenesis or reproduction without the genetic contribution of males.
- Facultative parthenogenesis is the term for when a female can produce offspring either sexually or via asexual reproduction. The phenomenon of FP has also been documented in other species of fish, birds, lizards and snakes. The scientists said this is the first-known example of a crocodile.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
-
Question 7 of 40
7. Question
1 pointsWhat is ‘Scary Barbie’, recently seen in news?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Astronomers have detected a supermassive black hole devouring a star – and they’ve nicknamed it “Scary Barbie,” because of its terrifying power. Scientists called it one of the “most luminous, energetic, long-lasting transient objects” found lurking in a forgotten corner of the night sky.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Astronomers have detected a supermassive black hole devouring a star – and they’ve nicknamed it “Scary Barbie,” because of its terrifying power. Scientists called it one of the “most luminous, energetic, long-lasting transient objects” found lurking in a forgotten corner of the night sky.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 8 of 40
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Project Kusha:
- Project Kusha aims to provide the Indian Air Force (IAF) with a long-range air defense system.
- Project Kusha aims to surpass the capabilities of the Iron Dome.
- Project Kusha and Iron Dome are developed by the same organization.
- Project Kusha will be operationalized in 2024.
How many of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- In a significant move towards enhancing its air defence capabilities, India is embarking on an ambitious project called ‘Project Kusha.’
- ‘Project Kusha’ is set to provide the Indian Air Force (IAF) with a long-range air defence system, with deployment targeted for 2028-29.
- The long-range surface-to-air defence system (LR-SAM) incorporates advanced long-range surveillance and fire control radars, which empower the IAF to effectively monitor airspace and fend off enemy threats.
- Interceptor missiles, with ranges of 150 km, 200 km, and 350 km, provide the ability to detect and strike hostile targets at different distances. It will also be effective in providing strategic and tactical cover. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Drawing parallels with Israel’s renowned Iron Dome system, ‘Project Kusha’ is expected to not only match but potentially surpass the capabilities of its Israeli counterpart. It aims to detect and destroy various hostile targets, including cruise missiles, stealth fighter jets, and drones at extended ranges. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Kusha is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India, while the Iron Dome is developed by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Project Kusha is targeted for deployment by 2028-29. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- In a significant move towards enhancing its air defence capabilities, India is embarking on an ambitious project called ‘Project Kusha.’
- ‘Project Kusha’ is set to provide the Indian Air Force (IAF) with a long-range air defence system, with deployment targeted for 2028-29.
- The long-range surface-to-air defence system (LR-SAM) incorporates advanced long-range surveillance and fire control radars, which empower the IAF to effectively monitor airspace and fend off enemy threats.
- Interceptor missiles, with ranges of 150 km, 200 km, and 350 km, provide the ability to detect and strike hostile targets at different distances. It will also be effective in providing strategic and tactical cover. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Drawing parallels with Israel’s renowned Iron Dome system, ‘Project Kusha’ is expected to not only match but potentially surpass the capabilities of its Israeli counterpart. It aims to detect and destroy various hostile targets, including cruise missiles, stealth fighter jets, and drones at extended ranges. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Kusha is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India, while the Iron Dome is developed by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Project Kusha is targeted for deployment by 2028-29. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 9 of 40
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the direct-to-mobile (D2M) technology:
- The science behind D2M is similar to that of an FM radio.
- D2M uses the internet to stream multimedia content.
- D2M captures territorial digital TV signals using mobile phones.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Indian telecom operators have asked the government to auction the spectrum that will be used for direct-to-mobile (D2M) technology services.
- The science behind D2M is similar to that of an FM radio, where a receiver within the device can tap into different radio frequencies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- This new-age technology is a combination of broadband and broadcast that uses mobile phones to capture territorial digital TV signals. D2M does not rely on the internet to stream multimedia content; instead, it captures territorial digital TV signals directly on mobile devices. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- D2M technology involves using mobile phones to directly receive digital TV signals broadcast over the air. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Indian telecom operators have asked the government to auction the spectrum that will be used for direct-to-mobile (D2M) technology services.
- The science behind D2M is similar to that of an FM radio, where a receiver within the device can tap into different radio frequencies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- This new-age technology is a combination of broadband and broadcast that uses mobile phones to capture territorial digital TV signals. D2M does not rely on the internet to stream multimedia content; instead, it captures territorial digital TV signals directly on mobile devices. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- D2M technology involves using mobile phones to directly receive digital TV signals broadcast over the air. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 10 of 40
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about multimodal AI:
- Multimodal AI combines multiple types of data to create more accurate determinations.
- Multimodal AI systems use video, audio, speech, images, text, and traditional numerical data sets.
Which of the above given statements is/are NOT correct?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Multimodal AI refers to artificial intelligence systems that integrate and analyze multiple types or modes of data simultaneously to make determinations, draw conclusions, or make predictions.
- By leveraging different types of data such as video, audio, speech, images, text, and numerical data sets, multimodal AI systems can capture a richer understanding of the context and content of the information being processed.
- Combining diverse data modalities allows the AI system to extract complementary information from each data type, leading to more accurate and robust determinations compared to single-modal AI systems.
- Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Multimodal AI refers to artificial intelligence systems that integrate and analyze multiple types or modes of data simultaneously to make determinations, draw conclusions, or make predictions.
- By leveraging different types of data such as video, audio, speech, images, text, and numerical data sets, multimodal AI systems can capture a richer understanding of the context and content of the information being processed.
- Combining diverse data modalities allows the AI system to extract complementary information from each data type, leading to more accurate and robust determinations compared to single-modal AI systems.
- Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 11 of 40
11. Question
1 pointsWhat significant concept does Foucault pendulum demonstrate?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- A Foucault pendulum has been installed inside the new Parliament which is designed by the National Council of Science Museums, Kolkata
- The Foucault pendulum was invented by Léon Foucault in the mid-19th century and provided the first laboratory demonstration in history to show that the Earth spins on its axis. As the pendulum swings back and forth, its apparent change in direction over time is due to the rotation of the Earth beneath it, a phenomenon known as the Coriolis Effect.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- A Foucault pendulum has been installed inside the new Parliament which is designed by the National Council of Science Museums, Kolkata
- The Foucault pendulum was invented by Léon Foucault in the mid-19th century and provided the first laboratory demonstration in history to show that the Earth spins on its axis. As the pendulum swings back and forth, its apparent change in direction over time is due to the rotation of the Earth beneath it, a phenomenon known as the Coriolis Effect.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 12 of 40
12. Question
1 pointsWhat are Xenobots?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Xenobots are a groundbreaking advancement in the field of robotics and biotechnology. They are tiny, living robots created from stem cells obtained from frog embryos. These stem cells are carefully assembled and manipulated to produce living organisms that exhibit specific behaviors and functionalities.
- Xenobots can be programmed to perform a wide range of tasks. This programming involves using computer algorithms to guide the behavior and function of the Xenobots.
- One of the remarkable features of Xenobots is their ability to exhibit complex behaviors and interactions despite their simple biological composition. By harnessing the power of living cells, Xenobots can adapt and respond to their environment, making them ideal candidates for applications in biomedicine, environmental remediation, and even exploration.
- In biomedicine, Xenobots hold promise for applications such as targeted drug delivery, where they can navigate through the body to deliver medication to specific sites or tissues. They could also be used in regenerative medicine to repair damaged tissues or organs by stimulating cell growth and regeneration.
- In environmental remediation, Xenobots could be deployed to clean up pollutants or remove harmful substances from water sources or contaminated areas. Their ability to sense and respond to environmental cues makes them valuable tools for tasks such as cleaning up oil spills or removing microplastics from oceans.
- While Xenobots are indeed microscopic robots, their current applications and research focus are primarily in biotechnology, regenerative medicine, and environmental cleanup. There is ongoing research into potential applications in various fields, including space exploration, but it is not their primary focus.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Xenobots are a groundbreaking advancement in the field of robotics and biotechnology. They are tiny, living robots created from stem cells obtained from frog embryos. These stem cells are carefully assembled and manipulated to produce living organisms that exhibit specific behaviors and functionalities.
- Xenobots can be programmed to perform a wide range of tasks. This programming involves using computer algorithms to guide the behavior and function of the Xenobots.
- One of the remarkable features of Xenobots is their ability to exhibit complex behaviors and interactions despite their simple biological composition. By harnessing the power of living cells, Xenobots can adapt and respond to their environment, making them ideal candidates for applications in biomedicine, environmental remediation, and even exploration.
- In biomedicine, Xenobots hold promise for applications such as targeted drug delivery, where they can navigate through the body to deliver medication to specific sites or tissues. They could also be used in regenerative medicine to repair damaged tissues or organs by stimulating cell growth and regeneration.
- In environmental remediation, Xenobots could be deployed to clean up pollutants or remove harmful substances from water sources or contaminated areas. Their ability to sense and respond to environmental cues makes them valuable tools for tasks such as cleaning up oil spills or removing microplastics from oceans.
- While Xenobots are indeed microscopic robots, their current applications and research focus are primarily in biotechnology, regenerative medicine, and environmental cleanup. There is ongoing research into potential applications in various fields, including space exploration, but it is not their primary focus.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 13 of 40
13. Question
1 pointsWhere is the World Economic Forum (WEF) establishing its Center for the Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR)?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF) has chosen Hyderabad, Telangana for establishing its Center for the Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR).
- The C4IR Telangana will be an autonomous, non-profit organization with a thematic focus on healthcare and life sciences.
- Hence option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF) has chosen Hyderabad, Telangana for establishing its Center for the Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR).
- The C4IR Telangana will be an autonomous, non-profit organization with a thematic focus on healthcare and life sciences.
- Hence option (c) is correct.
-
Question 14 of 40
14. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following best describes ‘Biologics’?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
- A biologic drug (biologics) is a product that is produced from living organisms or contain components of living organisms. Biologic drugs include a wide variety of products derived from human, animal, or microorganisms by using biotechnology.
- Types of biologic drugs include vaccines, blood, blood components, cells, allergens, genes, tissues, and recombinant proteins.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
- A biologic drug (biologics) is a product that is produced from living organisms or contain components of living organisms. Biologic drugs include a wide variety of products derived from human, animal, or microorganisms by using biotechnology.
- Types of biologic drugs include vaccines, blood, blood components, cells, allergens, genes, tissues, and recombinant proteins.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
-
Question 15 of 40
15. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Yellow Fever, consider the following statements:
- The yellow fever virus is transmitted by the same mosquito that spreads the Zika, Chikungunya and Dengue virus.
- It is endemic to East Asian and South Asian countries.
- The fatality rate of yellow fever is very low.
How many of the above are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Yellow fever is an acute viral haemorrhagic disease transmitted by infected mosquitoes. The yellow fever virus is transmitted by infected mosquitoes, most commonly from the Aedes species – the same mosquito that spreads the Zika, Chikungunya and Dengue virus. Haemogogus mosquitoes also spread it and are mostly found in the jungle. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- As per WHO, Yellow fever occurs in 47 endemic countries in Africa in Central and South America. Around 90% of cases reported every year occur in Sub-Saharan Africa. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- Symptoms of yellow fever include fever, headache, jaundice, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, jaundice, which gives the skin and whites of the eyes a yellow tinge, kidney failure, liver failure, hemorrhage, bleeding from the nose, mouth, and eyes. Between 20 percent and 50 percent of people who develop toxic stage symptoms die within two weeks. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Yellow fever is an acute viral haemorrhagic disease transmitted by infected mosquitoes. The yellow fever virus is transmitted by infected mosquitoes, most commonly from the Aedes species – the same mosquito that spreads the Zika, Chikungunya and Dengue virus. Haemogogus mosquitoes also spread it and are mostly found in the jungle. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- As per WHO, Yellow fever occurs in 47 endemic countries in Africa in Central and South America. Around 90% of cases reported every year occur in Sub-Saharan Africa. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- Symptoms of yellow fever include fever, headache, jaundice, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, jaundice, which gives the skin and whites of the eyes a yellow tinge, kidney failure, liver failure, hemorrhage, bleeding from the nose, mouth, and eyes. Between 20 percent and 50 percent of people who develop toxic stage symptoms die within two weeks. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
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Question 16 of 40
16. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following fuels is used in solid propellent chambers of PSLV?
Correct
Solution: d
Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (HTPB) is a translucent, waxy liquid that reacts with isocyanates to form polyurethane polymers. It’s a hard, rubbery material that binds together fuel and oxidizer in solid rocket fuel. It is used in solid propellent chambers of PSLV.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: d
Hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (HTPB) is a translucent, waxy liquid that reacts with isocyanates to form polyurethane polymers. It’s a hard, rubbery material that binds together fuel and oxidizer in solid rocket fuel. It is used in solid propellent chambers of PSLV.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
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Question 17 of 40
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the followings:
- South Korea
- Israel
- India
- Japan
How many of the above countries have operational ICBMs?
Correct
Solution: b
An intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) is a ballistic missile with a range greater than 5,500 Kilo-metres (3,400 mi), primarily designed for nuclear weapons delivery (delivering one or more thermonuclear warheads). Most modern designs support multiple independently targetable reentry vehicle (MIRVs), allowing a single missile to carry several warheads, each of which can strike a different target. The United States, Russia, China, France, India, the United Kingdom, Israel, and North Korea are the only countries known to have operational ICBMs.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: b
An intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) is a ballistic missile with a range greater than 5,500 Kilo-metres (3,400 mi), primarily designed for nuclear weapons delivery (delivering one or more thermonuclear warheads). Most modern designs support multiple independently targetable reentry vehicle (MIRVs), allowing a single missile to carry several warheads, each of which can strike a different target. The United States, Russia, China, France, India, the United Kingdom, Israel, and North Korea are the only countries known to have operational ICBMs.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
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Question 18 of 40
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the followings:
- Adding lime
- Distillation
- Chelation
- Adding washing soda
How many of the above methods can be used for removing the permanent hardness of water?
Correct
Solution: d
Hardness of Water is caused due to the presence of soluble bicarbonates, chlorides, and sulfates of calcium and magnesium. Hard water is water that does not lather when soap is added. There might be some small health benefits in drinking hard water.
Washing soda is used to remove the water’s permanent hardness. Chlorides and sulphates are converted to insoluble carbonates when washing soda is added.
Lime absorbs the carbon dioxide and precipitates the insoluble calcium carbonate.
Chelating agents like ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) bind to the non-tolerable ions in hard water.
Distillation can be used to eliminate both temporary and permanent hardness.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: d
Hardness of Water is caused due to the presence of soluble bicarbonates, chlorides, and sulfates of calcium and magnesium. Hard water is water that does not lather when soap is added. There might be some small health benefits in drinking hard water.
Washing soda is used to remove the water’s permanent hardness. Chlorides and sulphates are converted to insoluble carbonates when washing soda is added.
Lime absorbs the carbon dioxide and precipitates the insoluble calcium carbonate.
Chelating agents like ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) bind to the non-tolerable ions in hard water.
Distillation can be used to eliminate both temporary and permanent hardness.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
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Question 19 of 40
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the followings:
- Vinegar
- Human Blood
- Baking Soda
- Orange Juice
How many of the above substances will turn a red litmus paper into blue?
Correct
Solution: b
Litmus paper is used to test acidic and basic nature of the solution. On solution being basic, red litmus turns blue in colour.
Human Blood and Baking Soda both are basic in nature hence, they turn a red litmus paper into blue.
Orange Juice and Vinegar are acidic in nature. Hence, they turn a blue litmus paper into red.
Incorrect
Solution: b
Litmus paper is used to test acidic and basic nature of the solution. On solution being basic, red litmus turns blue in colour.
Human Blood and Baking Soda both are basic in nature hence, they turn a red litmus paper into blue.
Orange Juice and Vinegar are acidic in nature. Hence, they turn a blue litmus paper into red.
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Question 20 of 40
20. Question
1 pointsBowman’s capsule and glomerulus are associated with –
Correct
Solution: a
Bowman’s capsule is a two-walled pouch that covers the glomerulus. The space in between the walls of the capsule is called Bowman’s space. Bowman’s capsule is known by other names, including the glomerular capsule, the Malpighian capsule and the renal corpuscular capsule. The Bowman’s capsule is located in the cortex, the outer part of the kidney.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: a
Bowman’s capsule is a two-walled pouch that covers the glomerulus. The space in between the walls of the capsule is called Bowman’s space. Bowman’s capsule is known by other names, including the glomerular capsule, the Malpighian capsule and the renal corpuscular capsule. The Bowman’s capsule is located in the cortex, the outer part of the kidney.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
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Question 21 of 40
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the followings:
- Plutonium-239
- Uranium-235
- Thorium-232
- Uranium-238
- Americium
How many of the above are the examples of the Fissile Material?
Correct
Solution: b
Fissile materials are atomic nuclei that can undergo nuclear fission, or splitting, when hit by low-energy neutrons. This process releases large amounts of energy and is the key component of nuclear weapons and other nuclear explosive devices. The three primary fissile materials are uranium-233, uranium-235, americium and plutonium-239.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Thorium-232 and Uranium-238 are fertile materials.
Incorrect
Solution: b
Fissile materials are atomic nuclei that can undergo nuclear fission, or splitting, when hit by low-energy neutrons. This process releases large amounts of energy and is the key component of nuclear weapons and other nuclear explosive devices. The three primary fissile materials are uranium-233, uranium-235, americium and plutonium-239.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Thorium-232 and Uranium-238 are fertile materials.
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Question 22 of 40
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following diseases:
- Lyme Disease
- Rotavirus
- Pernicious anaemia
- HIV
- Syphilis
An ELISA test may be used to diagnose how many of the above diseases?
Correct
Solution: a
An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a laboratory test that detects antibodies in the blood. It’s a solid-phase enzyme immunoassay that uses antibodies to detect the presence of a ligand in a liquid sample. It is used to diagnose:-
- Bacterial infections: Lyme disease, brucellosis and syphilis.
- Viral infections: HIV, hepatitis A, B, and C.
- Fungal infections: Yeast infections (candida)
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: a
An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a laboratory test that detects antibodies in the blood. It’s a solid-phase enzyme immunoassay that uses antibodies to detect the presence of a ligand in a liquid sample. It is used to diagnose:-
- Bacterial infections: Lyme disease, brucellosis and syphilis.
- Viral infections: HIV, hepatitis A, B, and C.
- Fungal infections: Yeast infections (candida)
Hence, option (a) is correct.
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Question 23 of 40
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Aqua regia:
- It is a mixture of concentrated sulfuric acid and nitric acid.
- Freshly prepared aqua regia is colorless, but it turns yellow, orange or red within seconds from the formation.
- It can dissolve all metals including gold and platinum.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: a
Aqua Regia (Latin for “royal water”) is an acidic, corrosive, and oxidative mixture of three parts concentrated hydrochloric acid (HCl) and one part concentrated nitric acid (HNO3).
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Freshly prepared aqua regia is colorless, but it turns yellow, orange or red within seconds from the formation.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
This acid was named by alchemists because it can dissolve the noble metals gold and platinum. Tantalum, iridium and a few other metals are not dissolved by it.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: a
Aqua Regia (Latin for “royal water”) is an acidic, corrosive, and oxidative mixture of three parts concentrated hydrochloric acid (HCl) and one part concentrated nitric acid (HNO3).
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Freshly prepared aqua regia is colorless, but it turns yellow, orange or red within seconds from the formation.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
This acid was named by alchemists because it can dissolve the noble metals gold and platinum. Tantalum, iridium and a few other metals are not dissolved by it.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 24 of 40
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the followings:
- Urine
- Blood
- Brain cells
- Feces
- Saliva
In how many of the above, DNA of a human can be found?
Correct
Solution: d
DNA is contained in blood, semen, skin cells, tissue, organs, muscle, brain cells, bone, teeth, hair, saliva, mucus, perspiration, fingernails, urine, feces etc.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: d
DNA is contained in blood, semen, skin cells, tissue, organs, muscle, brain cells, bone, teeth, hair, saliva, mucus, perspiration, fingernails, urine, feces etc.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
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Question 25 of 40
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Nuclear fusion does not involve the release of carbon dioxide.
- Nuclear fission is the source of energy for the sun.
- Nuclear Fusion does not create any long-lived radioactive nuclear waste.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: b
Nuclear fusion does not release carbon dioxide (CO2) or other harmful atmospheric emissions. This process is similar to the sun’s process, where two hydrogen atoms are combined at a high temperature.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The sun’s energy comes from the process of nuclear fusion, which is the conversion of hydrogen nuclei into helium. This process occurs in the sun’s core, where the temperature and pressure are very high, causing hydrogen atoms to fuse into helium atoms and release energy in the form of gamma rays.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Nuclear fusion reactors don’t produce long-lived radioactive nuclear waste because the activation of components is low enough to recycle or reuse the materials within 100 years.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: b
Nuclear fusion does not release carbon dioxide (CO2) or other harmful atmospheric emissions. This process is similar to the sun’s process, where two hydrogen atoms are combined at a high temperature.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The sun’s energy comes from the process of nuclear fusion, which is the conversion of hydrogen nuclei into helium. This process occurs in the sun’s core, where the temperature and pressure are very high, causing hydrogen atoms to fuse into helium atoms and release energy in the form of gamma rays.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Nuclear fusion reactors don’t produce long-lived radioactive nuclear waste because the activation of components is low enough to recycle or reuse the materials within 100 years.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 26 of 40
26. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Smart contracts are digital contracts stored on a blockchain that are automatically executed when predetermined terms and conditions are met.
- Smart contracts permit trusted transactions and agreements to be carried out among disparate, anonymous parties without the need for a central authority.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: Excerpt from Investopedia:
A smart contract is a self-executing program that automates the actions required in an agreement or contract. Once completed, the transactions are trackable and irreversible. The best way to envision a smart contract is to think of a vending machine—when you insert the correct amount of money and push an item’s button, the program (the smart contract) activates the machine to dispense your chosen item.
Smart contracts permit trusted transactions and agreements to be carried out among disparate, anonymous parties without the need for a central authority, legal system, or external enforcement mechanism.
While blockchain technology has come to be thought of primarily as the foundation for Bitcoin, it has evolved far beyond underpinning a virtual currency.
Q Source: Emerging technologies
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: Excerpt from Investopedia:
A smart contract is a self-executing program that automates the actions required in an agreement or contract. Once completed, the transactions are trackable and irreversible. The best way to envision a smart contract is to think of a vending machine—when you insert the correct amount of money and push an item’s button, the program (the smart contract) activates the machine to dispense your chosen item.
Smart contracts permit trusted transactions and agreements to be carried out among disparate, anonymous parties without the need for a central authority, legal system, or external enforcement mechanism.
While blockchain technology has come to be thought of primarily as the foundation for Bitcoin, it has evolved far beyond underpinning a virtual currency.
Q Source: Emerging technologies
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Question 27 of 40
27. Question
1 pointsLaser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO)- India is designed to measure changes in distance of gravitational waves at the smallest scale of the length of a
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Question 28 of 40
28. Question
1 pointsA maser flare in the atmosphere can be a sign of
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: A maser is the microwave (radio frequency) equivalent of laser. The word stands for “microwave amplification by stimulated emission of radiation”. Masers are observed using radio telescopes and most of them are observed at centimetre wavelength: they are very compact. A maser flare can be a sign of an extraordinary event such as the formation of a star.
Maser Monitoring Organisation (M2O): After the first detection of an accretion burst, in 2016, astronomers from around the world agreed in 2017 to coordinate their efforts to observe more. This led to the formation of the Maser Monitoring Organisation (M2O). The primary goal of M2O is to make the astronomy community aware of the importance of Maser monitoring. It is also to increase the number of sources monitored, the number of transitions monitored at, and increase cadence of observation.
Q Source: Insights modules
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: A maser is the microwave (radio frequency) equivalent of laser. The word stands for “microwave amplification by stimulated emission of radiation”. Masers are observed using radio telescopes and most of them are observed at centimetre wavelength: they are very compact. A maser flare can be a sign of an extraordinary event such as the formation of a star.
Maser Monitoring Organisation (M2O): After the first detection of an accretion burst, in 2016, astronomers from around the world agreed in 2017 to coordinate their efforts to observe more. This led to the formation of the Maser Monitoring Organisation (M2O). The primary goal of M2O is to make the astronomy community aware of the importance of Maser monitoring. It is also to increase the number of sources monitored, the number of transitions monitored at, and increase cadence of observation.
Q Source: Insights modules
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Question 29 of 40
29. Question
1 pointsMethanol is a scalable and sustainable fuel, that can be produced from a variety of feedstocks like
- Indian High Ash Coal
- municipal solid waste
- carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: Unlike CNG, using methanol as a transportation fuel would require minimal alteration in the vehicles. Methanol is a clean-burning fuel that produces fewer smog causing emissions — such as sulphur oxides (SOx), nitrogen oxides (NOx) and particulate matter — and can improve air quality and related human health issues. Methanol is most commonly produced on a commercial scale from natural gas. It can also be produced from renewable sources such as biomass and recycled carbon dioxide.
As a high-octane vehicle fuel, methanol offers excellent acceleration and power. It also improves vehicle efficiency.
Advantages of methanol: Methanol is a clean burning drop in fuel which can replace both petrol & diesel in transportation &LPG, Wood, Kerosene in cooking fuel. It can also replace diesel in Railways, Marine Sector, Gensets, Power Generation and Methanol based reformers could be an ideal complement to Hybrid and Electric Mobility. Methanol is a scalable and sustainable fuel, that can be produced from a variety of feedstocks like Natural Gas, Coal (Indian High Ash Coal), Bio-mass, Municipal Solid waste and most importantly from CO2
Q Source: Insights modules
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: Unlike CNG, using methanol as a transportation fuel would require minimal alteration in the vehicles. Methanol is a clean-burning fuel that produces fewer smog causing emissions — such as sulphur oxides (SOx), nitrogen oxides (NOx) and particulate matter — and can improve air quality and related human health issues. Methanol is most commonly produced on a commercial scale from natural gas. It can also be produced from renewable sources such as biomass and recycled carbon dioxide.
As a high-octane vehicle fuel, methanol offers excellent acceleration and power. It also improves vehicle efficiency.
Advantages of methanol: Methanol is a clean burning drop in fuel which can replace both petrol & diesel in transportation &LPG, Wood, Kerosene in cooking fuel. It can also replace diesel in Railways, Marine Sector, Gensets, Power Generation and Methanol based reformers could be an ideal complement to Hybrid and Electric Mobility. Methanol is a scalable and sustainable fuel, that can be produced from a variety of feedstocks like Natural Gas, Coal (Indian High Ash Coal), Bio-mass, Municipal Solid waste and most importantly from CO2
Q Source: Insights modules
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Question 30 of 40
30. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- The Euclid telescope, developed by the European Space Agency aims to investigate dark energy and dark matter.
- The IceCube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica detects neutrinos emitted by astrophysical sources.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: Euclid telescope mission to investigate dark energy and dark matter:
- The Euclid telescope, developed by the European Space Agency, aims to investigate dark energy and dark matter.
- Dark energy and dark matter are believed to constitute 95% of the known universe.
- It will survey galaxies up to 10 billion light years away and precisely measure their distances.
Neutrino Observatory’s view of the Milky Way and its cosmic insights:
- The IceCube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica detected neutrinos emitted by astrophysical sources.
- Neutrinos are “ghost particles” ideal for studying high-energy processes in the universe.
- Researchers analyzed data from ten years and identified nearly 60,000 neutrino events.
- The findings offer insights into cosmic rays and pro- vide a basis for future advancements.
Q Source: Insights modules
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: Euclid telescope mission to investigate dark energy and dark matter:
- The Euclid telescope, developed by the European Space Agency, aims to investigate dark energy and dark matter.
- Dark energy and dark matter are believed to constitute 95% of the known universe.
- It will survey galaxies up to 10 billion light years away and precisely measure their distances.
Neutrino Observatory’s view of the Milky Way and its cosmic insights:
- The IceCube Neutrino Observatory in Antarctica detected neutrinos emitted by astrophysical sources.
- Neutrinos are “ghost particles” ideal for studying high-energy processes in the universe.
- Researchers analyzed data from ten years and identified nearly 60,000 neutrino events.
- The findings offer insights into cosmic rays and pro- vide a basis for future advancements.
Q Source: Insights modules
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Question 31 of 40
31. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Nidoviruses form a phylogenetically compact but diverse group of enveloped positive-stranded RNA viruses.
Statement-II:
Nidoviruses can infect a broad range of hosts, including lower organisms like birds, and fish but excludes humans.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct: Nidoviruses form a phylogenetically compact but diverse group of enveloped positive-stranded RNA viruses with the largest RNA genome known.
Statement-II is not correct: They infect a broad range of hosts, including humans, other mammals, birds, fish, and shrimps.
Nidovirus infection starts by binding to a receptor on the cell surface, and fusion of the viral and cellular membranes mediated by one of the major surface glycoproteins.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct: Nidoviruses form a phylogenetically compact but diverse group of enveloped positive-stranded RNA viruses with the largest RNA genome known.
Statement-II is not correct: They infect a broad range of hosts, including humans, other mammals, birds, fish, and shrimps.
Nidovirus infection starts by binding to a receptor on the cell surface, and fusion of the viral and cellular membranes mediated by one of the major surface glycoproteins.
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Question 32 of 40
32. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following statements is correct about the “PraVaHa Software” recently seen in the news?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: The Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD) software “Parallel RANS Solver for Aerospace Vehicle Aero-thermo-dynamic Analysis” (PraVaHa) is developed in VSSC to simulate external and internal flows on launch vehicles, winged & nonwinged re-entry vehicles.
- Initial aerodynamic design studies for launch vehicles demand evaluation of a large number of configurations.
- Any aerospace vehicle while moving through the earth’s atmosphere during ‘launch’ or ‘re-entry’ is subjected to severe aerodynamic and aerothermal loads in terms of external pressure and heat flux.
- PraVaHa has been used extensively in the Gaganyaan program for aerodynamic analysis of human-rated launch vehicles, viz, HLVM3, Crew Escape System [CES], and Crew Module [CM].
- It is designed to make use of CPU as well as GPU architecture of available and upcoming supercomputing facilities.
- The software framework is quite flexible & secure enough, to have collaborative development with academic institutes and government labs.
- Currently, the PraVaHa code is operational to simulate airflow for Perfect Gas & Real Gas conditions.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: The Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD) software “Parallel RANS Solver for Aerospace Vehicle Aero-thermo-dynamic Analysis” (PraVaHa) is developed in VSSC to simulate external and internal flows on launch vehicles, winged & nonwinged re-entry vehicles.
- Initial aerodynamic design studies for launch vehicles demand evaluation of a large number of configurations.
- Any aerospace vehicle while moving through the earth’s atmosphere during ‘launch’ or ‘re-entry’ is subjected to severe aerodynamic and aerothermal loads in terms of external pressure and heat flux.
- PraVaHa has been used extensively in the Gaganyaan program for aerodynamic analysis of human-rated launch vehicles, viz, HLVM3, Crew Escape System [CES], and Crew Module [CM].
- It is designed to make use of CPU as well as GPU architecture of available and upcoming supercomputing facilities.
- The software framework is quite flexible & secure enough, to have collaborative development with academic institutes and government labs.
- Currently, the PraVaHa code is operational to simulate airflow for Perfect Gas & Real Gas conditions.
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Question 33 of 40
33. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Cellulose:
- It is composed of glucose sugars.
- Cooking cellulose does not make it more digestible.
- It is the main component of wood.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: Cellulose is composed of glucose sugars. While the structure of cellulose is similar to starch, cellulose it is not affected by cooking the way starch absorbs the cooking liquid and swells.
- Cellulose is so durable that it is considered indigestible fiber. Cooking cellulose does not make it more digestible.
- However, as the cell structure weakens, it allows digestive enzymes to engulf the nutrients that are contained within the cells.
- Cellulose is the main component of wood where it represents about half of the cell wall material.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: Cellulose is composed of glucose sugars. While the structure of cellulose is similar to starch, cellulose it is not affected by cooking the way starch absorbs the cooking liquid and swells.
- Cellulose is so durable that it is considered indigestible fiber. Cooking cellulose does not make it more digestible.
- However, as the cell structure weakens, it allows digestive enzymes to engulf the nutrients that are contained within the cells.
- Cellulose is the main component of wood where it represents about half of the cell wall material.
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Question 34 of 40
34. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Radio-frequency identification (RFID) technology:
- It is a wireless tracking method that uses tags and readers to track objects.
- Passive tags are the only RFID tags that are commercially available.
- Passive RFID tags do not have a battery and are powered by the reader.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Radio-frequency identification (RFID) is a technology that uses radio waves to automatically identify various tagged objects.
Statement 1 is correct: Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) is a wireless tracking method that uses tags and readers to track objects.
Statement 2 is not correct: Passive tags, semi-passive tags, and active tags are the three types of RFID tags that are commercially available.
The internal circuit of active tags is powered by a power source.
Statement 3 is correct: Passive RFID tags do not have a battery and are powered by the reader.
Batteries are being used to power active RFID tags. It also utilises its own power supply to send the response to the reader.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Radio-frequency identification (RFID) is a technology that uses radio waves to automatically identify various tagged objects.
Statement 1 is correct: Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) is a wireless tracking method that uses tags and readers to track objects.
Statement 2 is not correct: Passive tags, semi-passive tags, and active tags are the three types of RFID tags that are commercially available.
The internal circuit of active tags is powered by a power source.
Statement 3 is correct: Passive RFID tags do not have a battery and are powered by the reader.
Batteries are being used to power active RFID tags. It also utilises its own power supply to send the response to the reader.
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Question 35 of 40
35. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Hydroxyurea:
- It is mostly referred to as an inhibitor of ribonucleotide reductase.
- It is effective in treating the chronic myeloproliferative disorders.
- It is considered a staple agent in sickle anaemia therapy.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Hydroxyurea (HU) is mostly referred to as an inhibitor of ribonucleotide reductase (RNR) and as the agent that is commonly used to arrest cells in the S-phase of the cycle by inducing replication stress.
Statement 2 is correct: It is a well-known and widely used drug, one which has proved to be effective in treating chronic myeloproliferative disorders.
Statement 3 is correct: It is considered a staple agent in sickle anaemia therapy and recently a promising factor in preventing cognitive decline in Alzheimer’s disease.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Hydroxyurea (HU) is mostly referred to as an inhibitor of ribonucleotide reductase (RNR) and as the agent that is commonly used to arrest cells in the S-phase of the cycle by inducing replication stress.
Statement 2 is correct: It is a well-known and widely used drug, one which has proved to be effective in treating chronic myeloproliferative disorders.
Statement 3 is correct: It is considered a staple agent in sickle anaemia therapy and recently a promising factor in preventing cognitive decline in Alzheimer’s disease.
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Question 36 of 40
36. Question
1 pointsOn Monday, the Environmental Protection Agency released its list of counties, areas or tribal lands that are exceeding daily standards for fine particle pollution caused by emissions from vehicles, industry and wood stoves, among other sources. The pollutants in question are extremely small, measuring at one thirtieth the diameter of a human hair. The particles can get deep into the lungs, even entering the bloodstream, and are blamed for respiratory problems, especially in children and elderly.
A logical conclusion from the above paragraph is that
Correct
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is the correct conclusion from the paragraph. The list has been released to increase awareness as a first step. Other repercussions cannot be inferred. Options (a) and (c) are hence incorrect. Option (b) cannot be inferred as we do not know about the past.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is the correct conclusion from the paragraph. The list has been released to increase awareness as a first step. Other repercussions cannot be inferred. Options (a) and (c) are hence incorrect. Option (b) cannot be inferred as we do not know about the past.
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Question 37 of 40
37. Question
1 pointsWhat is the value of 12 – 22 + 32 – 42 +…. + 92 -102?
Correct
Solution: D) -55
Using formula a2 – b2 = (a-b)(a+b)
12 – 22 + 32 – 42 +..+ 92 -102 = (1-2)(1+2) + (3-4)(3+4) + (5-6)(5+6) + (7-8)(7+8) + (9-10)(9+10)
=(-3) + (-7) + (-11) + (-11) + (-15) + (-19) = -55
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D) -55
Using formula a2 – b2 = (a-b)(a+b)
12 – 22 + 32 – 42 +..+ 92 -102 = (1-2)(1+2) + (3-4)(3+4) + (5-6)(5+6) + (7-8)(7+8) + (9-10)(9+10)
=(-3) + (-7) + (-11) + (-11) + (-15) + (-19) = -55
Hence, option (d) is correct.
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Question 38 of 40
38. Question
1 pointsIn an interview the probability of Praveen to get selected is 0.4. The probability of Geetha to get selected is 0.5. The probability of Sam to get selected is 0.6. The probability of Suresh to get selected is 0.8. What is the probability that at least 2 of them got selected on that day?
Correct
Solution: A) 0.806
Required probability=1 – no one got selected – 1 got selected
No one got selected = (1-0.4) x (1-0.5) x (1-0.6) x (1-0.8) = 0.024
1 got selected= 0.4 x ((1 -0.5) x (1-0.6) x (1- 0.8) ) + 0.5 x ((1-0.4) x (1 -0.6) x (1-0.8)) +0.6 x ((1-0.4) x (1-0.5) x (1 -0.8)) + 0.8 x ((1-0.4) x (1-0.5) x (1-0.6))
= 0.016 + 0.024 + 0.036 + 0.096 = 0.17
So, Required probability = 1 – 0.024 – 0.17 = 0.806Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: A) 0.806
Required probability=1 – no one got selected – 1 got selected
No one got selected = (1-0.4) x (1-0.5) x (1-0.6) x (1-0.8) = 0.024
1 got selected= 0.4 x ((1 -0.5) x (1-0.6) x (1- 0.8) ) + 0.5 x ((1-0.4) x (1 -0.6) x (1-0.8)) +0.6 x ((1-0.4) x (1-0.5) x (1 -0.8)) + 0.8 x ((1-0.4) x (1-0.5) x (1-0.6))
= 0.016 + 0.024 + 0.036 + 0.096 = 0.17
So, Required probability = 1 – 0.024 – 0.17 = 0.806Hence, option (a) is correct.
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Question 39 of 40
39. Question
1 pointsPointing to a girl, Mala said, ‘She is the granddaughter of my grandfather’s only son’. How is the girl related to Mala?
Correct
Solution: D) Cannot be determined
The granddaughter of Mala’s grandfather’s only son is either a niece or daughter of Mala. Hence, cannot be determined
Incorrect
Solution: D) Cannot be determined
The granddaughter of Mala’s grandfather’s only son is either a niece or daughter of Mala. Hence, cannot be determined
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Question 40 of 40
40. Question
1 pointsDirections for the following : Study the following information to answer the question given below:
What is the distinction in direct enlists and promote Assistants?
Correct
Solution:- A) 210
Total number of assistant= 15% of 7000 = (15/100*7000) =1050.
Number of direct recruits= 40% of 1050= (40/100*1050) =420
Number of promote associates = (1050-420) =630.
Required difference = (630-420) =210
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution:- A) 210
Total number of assistant= 15% of 7000 = (15/100*7000) =1050.
Number of direct recruits= 40% of 1050= (40/100*1050) =420
Number of promote associates = (1050-420) =630.
Required difference = (630-420) =210
Hence, option (a) is correct.
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