INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024
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Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
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Question 1 of 40
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following:
- Improvements in sanitation and health conditions.
- Increase in agricultural productivity.
- Advances in education and technology.
- Government policies on population control.
How many of the above given factors contribute to the changes observed during demographic transition?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Demographic transition theory describes the transformation of a society’s population from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates as it progresses from a pre-industrial to an industrialized economic system. This transition occurs in four stages:
- Stage 1: High Birth and Death Rates
- Stage 2: Declining Death Rates
- Stage 3: Declining Birth Rates
- Stage 4: Low Birth and Death Rates
- All four given factors contribute to the changes observed during demographic transition:
- Improvements in sanitation and health conditions: This factor is crucial during the second stage of demographic transition, where reduced mortality rates are observed due to better health care and sanitation.
- Increase in agricultural productivity: This factor can influence population growth by providing a more stable food supply, reducing mortality due to famine, and supporting larger populations during earlier stages of demographic transition.
- Advances in education and technology: These are significant during the final stages of demographic transition, where higher literacy rates and technological know-how lead to lower fertility rates as people deliberately control family size.
- Government policies on population control: These policies directly impact fertility rates by promoting family planning measures, which help in managing and controlling population growth across different stages of demographic transition.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Demographic transition theory describes the transformation of a society’s population from high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates as it progresses from a pre-industrial to an industrialized economic system. This transition occurs in four stages:
- Stage 1: High Birth and Death Rates
- Stage 2: Declining Death Rates
- Stage 3: Declining Birth Rates
- Stage 4: Low Birth and Death Rates
- All four given factors contribute to the changes observed during demographic transition:
- Improvements in sanitation and health conditions: This factor is crucial during the second stage of demographic transition, where reduced mortality rates are observed due to better health care and sanitation.
- Increase in agricultural productivity: This factor can influence population growth by providing a more stable food supply, reducing mortality due to famine, and supporting larger populations during earlier stages of demographic transition.
- Advances in education and technology: These are significant during the final stages of demographic transition, where higher literacy rates and technological know-how lead to lower fertility rates as people deliberately control family size.
- Government policies on population control: These policies directly impact fertility rates by promoting family planning measures, which help in managing and controlling population growth across different stages of demographic transition.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 2 of 40
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Monsoon rains account for over 70% of India’s annual rainfall.
- Approximately 60% of India’s net arable land lacks irrigation and relies on monsoon rains.
Which of the above given statements accurately describe the impact of the monsoon on India’s agriculture and economy?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The monsoon’s role in India is multifaceted, impacting water resources, agricultural productivity, rural employment, food security, and overall economic health. Its significance cannot be overstated, as over 70% of the annual rainfall occurs during this period, and approximately 60% of the net arable land depends on it. Variability in the monsoon can lead to significant socio-economic consequences, highlighting the need for robust water management and irrigation infrastructure to mitigate the effects of poor monsoon seasons.
- Hence, option(c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The monsoon’s role in India is multifaceted, impacting water resources, agricultural productivity, rural employment, food security, and overall economic health. Its significance cannot be overstated, as over 70% of the annual rainfall occurs during this period, and approximately 60% of the net arable land depends on it. Variability in the monsoon can lead to significant socio-economic consequences, highlighting the need for robust water management and irrigation infrastructure to mitigate the effects of poor monsoon seasons.
- Hence, option(c) is correct.
-
Question 3 of 40
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements are accurate in comparing the climatic phenomena associated with the northeast monsoon and the retreating monsoon?
- The northeast monsoon winds blow from the sea to the land.
- The retreating monsoon winds blow from the land to the sea.
- Cyclonic storms during the northeast monsoon often affect the Coromandel Coast.
- The retreating monsoon season is marked by the southward shift of the ITCZ.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
- During the northeast monsoon season, winds blow from the northeast towards the southwest, bringing moisture-laden air from the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean towards the land. This wind pattern results in rainfall over coastal and inland areas of South India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The retreating monsoon is characterized by the withdrawal of the southwest monsoon winds, which blow from the land towards the sea. As the monsoon season ends, the winds reverse their direction, carrying dry air from the land out to the Indian Ocean, leading to a decrease in rainfall and the onset of dry conditions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The Coromandel Coast, located along the south eastern coast of India, is frequently affected by cyclonic storms during the northeast monsoon season. These storms, which form over the Bay of Bengal, bring heavy rainfall and strong winds to the region, often causing flooding and other damage. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- The retreating monsoon season coincides with the southward movement of the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), a belt of low pressure near the Equator where trade winds converge. As the monsoon winds weaken and the low-pressure area associated with the ITCZ moves southward, rainfall decreases over the Indian subcontinent. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
- During the northeast monsoon season, winds blow from the northeast towards the southwest, bringing moisture-laden air from the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean towards the land. This wind pattern results in rainfall over coastal and inland areas of South India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The retreating monsoon is characterized by the withdrawal of the southwest monsoon winds, which blow from the land towards the sea. As the monsoon season ends, the winds reverse their direction, carrying dry air from the land out to the Indian Ocean, leading to a decrease in rainfall and the onset of dry conditions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The Coromandel Coast, located along the south eastern coast of India, is frequently affected by cyclonic storms during the northeast monsoon season. These storms, which form over the Bay of Bengal, bring heavy rainfall and strong winds to the region, often causing flooding and other damage. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- The retreating monsoon season coincides with the southward movement of the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), a belt of low pressure near the Equator where trade winds converge. As the monsoon winds weaken and the low-pressure area associated with the ITCZ moves southward, rainfall decreases over the Indian subcontinent. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 4 of 40
4. Question
1 pointsThere are two places A and B. A is located on 50°E longitude while B is located on 10°W longitude. If winds blow with equal speed at these two places then:
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Coriolis force is an apparent force caused by the earth’s rotation. The Coriolis force is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the northern hemisphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere. This is also known as ‘Ferrel’s Law’.
- The Coriolis force is absent at the equator but increases progressively towards the poles.The magnitude of Coriolis force depends on the speed of wind and latitude (and not longitude) where the wind blows. The information about latitude is not given in the question text. Hence, it cannot be determined that wind at which place will experience more Coriolis force.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Coriolis force is an apparent force caused by the earth’s rotation. The Coriolis force is responsible for deflecting winds towards the right in the northern hemisphere and towards the left in the southern hemisphere. This is also known as ‘Ferrel’s Law’.
- The Coriolis force is absent at the equator but increases progressively towards the poles.The magnitude of Coriolis force depends on the speed of wind and latitude (and not longitude) where the wind blows. The information about latitude is not given in the question text. Hence, it cannot be determined that wind at which place will experience more Coriolis force.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 5 of 40
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following best describes ‘‘Vauclusian Spring’?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Types of springs:
- In areas of tilted strata, where permeable and impermeable rocks alternate; water emerges at the base of the permeable layers.
- In well jointed rocks, water comes through the joints.
- In limestone or Chalk escarpments, water issues at the foot of the scarp as Scrap-foot spring.
- In Karst regions, river often disappears underground. Such river water flows through passages in the rock by solution re-emerging when limestone gives place to some impermeable rock. They are called as Vauclusian Springs or Resurgence.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Types of springs:
- In areas of tilted strata, where permeable and impermeable rocks alternate; water emerges at the base of the permeable layers.
- In well jointed rocks, water comes through the joints.
- In limestone or Chalk escarpments, water issues at the foot of the scarp as Scrap-foot spring.
- In Karst regions, river often disappears underground. Such river water flows through passages in the rock by solution re-emerging when limestone gives place to some impermeable rock. They are called as Vauclusian Springs or Resurgence.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 6 of 40
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following countries:
- Ecuador
- Brazil
- Argentina
- Bolivia
Which of the above given countries are part of the ‘Lithium triangle’ which contain roughly half the world’s known lithium?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- In January 2024, The Ministry of Mines, Government of India through the state-owned Khanij Bidesh India Ltd (KABIL), has entered into a draft exploration and development agreement with Argentinean miner CAMYEN for possible acquisition and development of five-odd lithium blocks.
- The company has also entered into a non-disclosure agreement with Chilean miner ENAMI for “possible exploration, extraction, processing and commercialisation” of the mineral.
- Lithium triangle made up of Argentina, Bolivia and Chile—contain roughly half the world’s known lithium.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- In January 2024, The Ministry of Mines, Government of India through the state-owned Khanij Bidesh India Ltd (KABIL), has entered into a draft exploration and development agreement with Argentinean miner CAMYEN for possible acquisition and development of five-odd lithium blocks.
- The company has also entered into a non-disclosure agreement with Chilean miner ENAMI for “possible exploration, extraction, processing and commercialisation” of the mineral.
- Lithium triangle made up of Argentina, Bolivia and Chile—contain roughly half the world’s known lithium.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 7 of 40
7. Question
1 pointsWhat is the significance of the Fujiwhara effect in meteorology?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- The western coast of the United States recently experienced Hurricane Hilary, which transformed into a sub-tropical storm upon reaching the US.
- California had an exceptionally wet winter with multiple ‘atmospheric river’ storms, and the area also witnessed the intriguing phenomenon of the ‘Fujiwhara effect’ during one of these storms, where two low-pressure areas interacted in an unexpected manner.
About The Fujiwhara effect:
- The “Fujiwhara effect,” where two cyclones (or hurricanes) spinning in the same direction interact in a dance-like manner around a common centre.
- If one cyclone is stronger, it can absorb the weaker one.
- When of similar strength, they might merge or rotate around each other. In some rare instances, the two cyclones could merge into a mega-cyclone with significant destructive potential.
- The Fujiwhara effect was first described by Japanese meteorologist Sakuhei Fujiwhara in 1921.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- The western coast of the United States recently experienced Hurricane Hilary, which transformed into a sub-tropical storm upon reaching the US.
- California had an exceptionally wet winter with multiple ‘atmospheric river’ storms, and the area also witnessed the intriguing phenomenon of the ‘Fujiwhara effect’ during one of these storms, where two low-pressure areas interacted in an unexpected manner.
About The Fujiwhara effect:
- The “Fujiwhara effect,” where two cyclones (or hurricanes) spinning in the same direction interact in a dance-like manner around a common centre.
- If one cyclone is stronger, it can absorb the weaker one.
- When of similar strength, they might merge or rotate around each other. In some rare instances, the two cyclones could merge into a mega-cyclone with significant destructive potential.
- The Fujiwhara effect was first described by Japanese meteorologist Sakuhei Fujiwhara in 1921.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 8 of 40
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following countries:
- Bahrain
- Kuwait
- Qatar
- Saudi Arabia
- UAE
- Oman
How many of the above countries borders the Persian Gulf?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Iran recently seized two a vessel near the strategically significant Strait of Hormuz.
- Strait of Hormuz, also called Strait of Ormuz is a channel linking the Persian Gulf (west) with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea.
- The strait is 35 to 60 miles (55 to 95 km) wide and separates Iran (north) from the Arabian Peninsula (south).
- The Strait of Hormuz is the world’s most important oil chokepoint because of the large volumes of oil that flow through the strait.
- The Persian Gulf is located in Southwest Asia. It is an extension of the Indian Ocean located between Iran and the Arabian Peninsula.
- Countries with a coastline on the Persian Gulf are (clockwise, from the north): Iran, Oman (exclave of Musandam), United Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, and Qatar on a peninsula off the Saudi coast, Bahrain on an island, Kuwait, and Iraq in the northwest.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Iran recently seized two a vessel near the strategically significant Strait of Hormuz.
- Strait of Hormuz, also called Strait of Ormuz is a channel linking the Persian Gulf (west) with the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea.
- The strait is 35 to 60 miles (55 to 95 km) wide and separates Iran (north) from the Arabian Peninsula (south).
- The Strait of Hormuz is the world’s most important oil chokepoint because of the large volumes of oil that flow through the strait.
- The Persian Gulf is located in Southwest Asia. It is an extension of the Indian Ocean located between Iran and the Arabian Peninsula.
- Countries with a coastline on the Persian Gulf are (clockwise, from the north): Iran, Oman (exclave of Musandam), United Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, and Qatar on a peninsula off the Saudi coast, Bahrain on an island, Kuwait, and Iraq in the northwest.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 9 of 40
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to pressure belts:
- Equatorial low-pressure belt
- Sub-tropical high-pressure belt
- Sub polar low-pressure belt
- Polar high-pressure belt
Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Thermally-induced pressure belts are formed due to incoming solar radiation. These include Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt and Polar High-Pressure Belt.
- Dynamically Induced Pressure Belts are formed due to the rotation of Earth. These include the Subtropical High-Pressure Belt and Subpolar Low-Pressure Belt.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Thermally-induced pressure belts are formed due to incoming solar radiation. These include Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt and Polar High-Pressure Belt.
- Dynamically Induced Pressure Belts are formed due to the rotation of Earth. These include the Subtropical High-Pressure Belt and Subpolar Low-Pressure Belt.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
-
Question 10 of 40
10. Question
1 pointsIn which region of India is the stage of groundwater extraction the highest according to the Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report 2023?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), a key governmental organization is responsible for assessing and managing groundwater resources in India. It publishes the Dynamic Ground Water Resources Assessment of India report jointly and States/UTs.
- The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) is a subordinate office of the Ministry of Water Resources and is the National Apex Agency entrusted with the responsibilities of providing scientific inputs for management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation and regulation of groundwater resources of the country.
- It was established in 1970 by renaming the Exploratory Tube wells Organization under the Ministry of Agriculture and later on merged with the Groundwater Wing of the Geological Survey of India during 1972.
- The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), publishes the Dynamic Ground Water Resources Assessment of India report jointly and States/UTs.
- India is the largest user of groundwater in the world, extracting groundwater to the tune of 241.1 billion cubic meter (bcm) per year. It is about 25% of the global groundwater extraction.
- As per, Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report 2023,the total annual ground water recharge for the entire country is 449.08 billion cubic meters (BCM), marking an increase of 11.48 BCM compared to the previous year (2022) and annual ground water extraction for the entire country is 241.34 BCM.
- Agriculture is the predominant consumer of groundwater resources, accounting for about 87% of the total annual groundwater extraction.
- Stage of ground water extraction stands at 59.23%.Out of total 6553 assessment units, 1006 have been categorized as ‘Over-exploited’, 260 as ‘Critical’, 885 as ‘Semi-critical’, and 4793 units as ‘Safe’. There are 158 assessment units, which are completely saline.
- The stage of groundwater extraction is very high in states like Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, and Daman & Diu, where it is more than 100%.
- In Delhi, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, and UTs of Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, and Puducherry, the stage of groundwater extraction is between 60-100%. In other states, the stage of ground water extraction is below 60%.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), a key governmental organization is responsible for assessing and managing groundwater resources in India. It publishes the Dynamic Ground Water Resources Assessment of India report jointly and States/UTs.
- The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) is a subordinate office of the Ministry of Water Resources and is the National Apex Agency entrusted with the responsibilities of providing scientific inputs for management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation and regulation of groundwater resources of the country.
- It was established in 1970 by renaming the Exploratory Tube wells Organization under the Ministry of Agriculture and later on merged with the Groundwater Wing of the Geological Survey of India during 1972.
- The Central Ground Water Board (CGWB), publishes the Dynamic Ground Water Resources Assessment of India report jointly and States/UTs.
- India is the largest user of groundwater in the world, extracting groundwater to the tune of 241.1 billion cubic meter (bcm) per year. It is about 25% of the global groundwater extraction.
- As per, Dynamic Ground Water Resource Assessment Report 2023,the total annual ground water recharge for the entire country is 449.08 billion cubic meters (BCM), marking an increase of 11.48 BCM compared to the previous year (2022) and annual ground water extraction for the entire country is 241.34 BCM.
- Agriculture is the predominant consumer of groundwater resources, accounting for about 87% of the total annual groundwater extraction.
- Stage of ground water extraction stands at 59.23%.Out of total 6553 assessment units, 1006 have been categorized as ‘Over-exploited’, 260 as ‘Critical’, 885 as ‘Semi-critical’, and 4793 units as ‘Safe’. There are 158 assessment units, which are completely saline.
- The stage of groundwater extraction is very high in states like Haryana, Punjab, Rajasthan, Dadra & Nagar Haveli, and Daman & Diu, where it is more than 100%.
- In Delhi, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, and UTs of Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, and Puducherry, the stage of groundwater extraction is between 60-100%. In other states, the stage of ground water extraction is below 60%.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 11 of 40
11. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements about the ocean currents are correct?
- Ocean currents are strongest near the surface.
- Surface currents constitute about 10% of all the water in the ocean.
- Warm currents are usually observed on the west coast of continents in low and middle latitudes.
- The oceanic circulation pattern roughly corresponds to the earth’s atmospheric circulation pattern.
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Usually, the currents are strongest near the surface and may attain speeds over five knots.” This means the surface currents experience the greatest movement and speed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Surface currents constitute about 10 per cent of all the water in the ocean, these waters are the upper 400 m of the ocean. This indicates that a relatively small proportion of ocean water is involved in surface currents. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Warm currents bring warm water into cold water areas and are usually observed on the east coast of continents in the low and middle latitudes. Warm currents are typically found along the east coasts of continents in these latitudes, not the west coasts. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Oceanic circulation refers to the large-scale movement of water within the oceans, driven by a combination of factors including wind, temperature, salinity, and the Coriolis effect. The primary components of oceanic circulation are surface currents and deep-water currents. In the Northern Hemisphere, surface currents are deflected to the right, creating clockwise circulation. In the Southern Hemisphere, surface currents are deflected to the left, resulting in counter clockwise
- The oceanic circulation pattern roughly corresponds to the earth’s atmospheric circulation pattern” is correct because the movement of ocean currents is closely tied to atmospheric circulation patterns which is clock wise in northern hemisphere and counter clock wise in southern hemisphere. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Usually, the currents are strongest near the surface and may attain speeds over five knots.” This means the surface currents experience the greatest movement and speed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Surface currents constitute about 10 per cent of all the water in the ocean, these waters are the upper 400 m of the ocean. This indicates that a relatively small proportion of ocean water is involved in surface currents. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Warm currents bring warm water into cold water areas and are usually observed on the east coast of continents in the low and middle latitudes. Warm currents are typically found along the east coasts of continents in these latitudes, not the west coasts. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Oceanic circulation refers to the large-scale movement of water within the oceans, driven by a combination of factors including wind, temperature, salinity, and the Coriolis effect. The primary components of oceanic circulation are surface currents and deep-water currents. In the Northern Hemisphere, surface currents are deflected to the right, creating clockwise circulation. In the Southern Hemisphere, surface currents are deflected to the left, resulting in counter clockwise
- The oceanic circulation pattern roughly corresponds to the earth’s atmospheric circulation pattern” is correct because the movement of ocean currents is closely tied to atmospheric circulation patterns which is clock wise in northern hemisphere and counter clock wise in southern hemisphere. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 12 of 40
12. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are depositional landforms created by glaciers?
- Cirques
- Drumlins
- Eskers
- Outwash plains
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Cirques are erosional landforms, not depositional. They are deep, long, and wide troughs or basins with steep walls formed at the heads of glacial valleys due to the accumulated ice cutting through the mountain tops.
- Drumlins are depositional landforms. They are smooth, oval-shaped ridge-like features composed mainly of glacial till. They are formed due to the deposition of rock debris beneath a glacier.
- Eskers are also depositional landforms. They are sinuous ridges formed by streams of meltwater flowing beneath glaciers, which deposit coarse materials like boulders and blocks along with some finer rock debris.
- Outwash plains are depositional landforms as well. They are broad, flat areas of glacio-fluvial deposits found beyond the limits of glaciers, formed by the deposition of gravel, silt, sand, and clay carried by meltwater streams.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Cirques are erosional landforms, not depositional. They are deep, long, and wide troughs or basins with steep walls formed at the heads of glacial valleys due to the accumulated ice cutting through the mountain tops.
- Drumlins are depositional landforms. They are smooth, oval-shaped ridge-like features composed mainly of glacial till. They are formed due to the deposition of rock debris beneath a glacier.
- Eskers are also depositional landforms. They are sinuous ridges formed by streams of meltwater flowing beneath glaciers, which deposit coarse materials like boulders and blocks along with some finer rock debris.
- Outwash plains are depositional landforms as well. They are broad, flat areas of glacio-fluvial deposits found beyond the limits of glaciers, formed by the deposition of gravel, silt, sand, and clay carried by meltwater streams.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 13 of 40
13. Question
1 pointsIn the context of temperature inversion, what is the term used to describe the cold air flowing down the slopes of hills and mountains under the influence of gravity?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
- In the context of temperature inversion, the term “air drainage” refers to the movement of cold air flowing down the slopes of hills and mountains under the influence of gravity.
- This phenomenon occurs because cold air is denser and heavier than warm air. As a result, during night-time, especially under clear skies and still air conditions, the surface cools down rapidly.
- The cold air then moves downward due to gravity, collecting in low-lying areas such as valleys and creating a layer of colder air beneath warmer air. This process is distinct from other heat transfer mechanisms such as advection, convection, and radiation.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
- In the context of temperature inversion, the term “air drainage” refers to the movement of cold air flowing down the slopes of hills and mountains under the influence of gravity.
- This phenomenon occurs because cold air is denser and heavier than warm air. As a result, during night-time, especially under clear skies and still air conditions, the surface cools down rapidly.
- The cold air then moves downward due to gravity, collecting in low-lying areas such as valleys and creating a layer of colder air beneath warmer air. This process is distinct from other heat transfer mechanisms such as advection, convection, and radiation.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
-
Question 14 of 40
14. Question
1 pointsWhich type of wind circulation is associated with high-pressure systems?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- High-pressure systems are associated with descending air masses where air descends towards the surface. In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis force causes the descending air to rotate clockwise around the center of the high-pressure system. In the Southern Hemisphere, the rotation is counter clockwise. This wind circulation pattern around high-pressure systems is known as anti- cyclonic circulation.
- Cyclonic circulation, on the other hand, is associated with low-pressure systems where air ascends at the center and rotates counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
- Geostrophic winds occur when the pressure gradient force and the Coriolis force are balanced, resulting in winds blowing parallel to isobars at higher altitudes.
- Monsoonal winds are seasonal winds driven by differential heating between land and sea.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- High-pressure systems are associated with descending air masses where air descends towards the surface. In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis force causes the descending air to rotate clockwise around the center of the high-pressure system. In the Southern Hemisphere, the rotation is counter clockwise. This wind circulation pattern around high-pressure systems is known as anti- cyclonic circulation.
- Cyclonic circulation, on the other hand, is associated with low-pressure systems where air ascends at the center and rotates counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
- Geostrophic winds occur when the pressure gradient force and the Coriolis force are balanced, resulting in winds blowing parallel to isobars at higher altitudes.
- Monsoonal winds are seasonal winds driven by differential heating between land and sea.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 15 of 40
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following:
- Type of soil
- Minimum support price
- Land holding size
- Irrigational facilities
How many of the above are determinants of cropping pattern?
Correct
Answers: d
Solution:
Factors Determining Cropping Pattern:
Soil: The components of soil and the climatic influence of a region determine the type of crop that would be grown using a specific type of soil.
Climate: The dry regions, where rainfall is scarce and monsoons are unpredictable, rely on jowar and bajra. Rice is grown in flood-prone areas.
Irrigation facilities: Cropping patterns are also influenced byirrigation. Wherever water is available, not only can a different crop be grown, but also double or triple cropping.
Government Policies has the ability to influence cropping patterns through legislative and administrative measures. MSP, Food Crops Acts, Land Use Acts, intensive paddy schemes, cotton and oilseed schemes, and subsidies all have an impact on cropping patterns.
Size of Farm: There is also a positive relationship between farm size and cropping pattern. Small farmers may choose cash crops after meeting their own food needs in order to maximise their monetary income. Farmers on large farms, on the other hand, prefer to follow cropping patterns that maximise their income.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answers: d
Solution:
Factors Determining Cropping Pattern:
Soil: The components of soil and the climatic influence of a region determine the type of crop that would be grown using a specific type of soil.
Climate: The dry regions, where rainfall is scarce and monsoons are unpredictable, rely on jowar and bajra. Rice is grown in flood-prone areas.
Irrigation facilities: Cropping patterns are also influenced byirrigation. Wherever water is available, not only can a different crop be grown, but also double or triple cropping.
Government Policies has the ability to influence cropping patterns through legislative and administrative measures. MSP, Food Crops Acts, Land Use Acts, intensive paddy schemes, cotton and oilseed schemes, and subsidies all have an impact on cropping patterns.
Size of Farm: There is also a positive relationship between farm size and cropping pattern. Small farmers may choose cash crops after meeting their own food needs in order to maximise their monetary income. Farmers on large farms, on the other hand, prefer to follow cropping patterns that maximise their income.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
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Question 16 of 40
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
Assertion (A): In polar winters, the troposphere above the poles cannot be distinguished from other layers of atmosphere.
Reason (R): The troposphere is thicker in the summer and thinner in the winter all around the planet.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: The troposphere is thicker at the equator than at the poles because the equator is warmer. The convection currents of air expand the thickness of the troposphere (atmosphere).
Thus the simple reason is thermal expansion of the atmosphere at the equator and thermal contraction near the poles.
Also, the rotation of the earth causes centrifugal force which is strongest near the equator and pushes the atmosphere to greater heights.
The thickness of the troposphere also varies with season. The troposphere is thicker in the summer and thinner in the winter all around the planet.
At the poles in winter, the atmosphere is uniformly very cold and the troposphere cannot be distinguished from other layers.
Q Source: AR: NCERT 11th Fundamentals of Physical Geography
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: The troposphere is thicker at the equator than at the poles because the equator is warmer. The convection currents of air expand the thickness of the troposphere (atmosphere).
Thus the simple reason is thermal expansion of the atmosphere at the equator and thermal contraction near the poles.
Also, the rotation of the earth causes centrifugal force which is strongest near the equator and pushes the atmosphere to greater heights.
The thickness of the troposphere also varies with season. The troposphere is thicker in the summer and thinner in the winter all around the planet.
At the poles in winter, the atmosphere is uniformly very cold and the troposphere cannot be distinguished from other layers.
Q Source: AR: NCERT 11th Fundamentals of Physical Geography
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Question 17 of 40
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
Assertion (A): During photosynthesis, phytoplankton quickly absorb nutrients from the top layers of the ocean which causes the unavailability of nutrients in the top layer, unless there is intermixing of ocean layers.
Reason (R): Phytoplankton in the open ocean need both sunlight and nutrients to be able to photosynthesize, and sunlight is only available in the uppermost layers.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Phytoplankton in the open ocean need both sunlight and nutrients (such as nitrate and phosphate) to be able to photosynthesize.
- Sunlight is only available in the uppermost layers.
- During photosynthesis, the nutrients are quickly used up by phytoplankton so they are not available for long periods in the upper layers under normal circumstances.
This is indeed the case in tropical waters, and as a result they are very unproductive.
- To escape this problem the seawater needs to be mixed regularly to bring the nutrient rich deep waters up to the sunlight zone where the phytoplankton can grow.
This is one of the reasons why areas where cold and warm currents meet are very productive; the collision of currents causes mixing.
Q Source: Page 124: Fundamentals of Physical Geography: 11th NCERT
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Phytoplankton in the open ocean need both sunlight and nutrients (such as nitrate and phosphate) to be able to photosynthesize.
- Sunlight is only available in the uppermost layers.
- During photosynthesis, the nutrients are quickly used up by phytoplankton so they are not available for long periods in the upper layers under normal circumstances.
This is indeed the case in tropical waters, and as a result they are very unproductive.
- To escape this problem the seawater needs to be mixed regularly to bring the nutrient rich deep waters up to the sunlight zone where the phytoplankton can grow.
This is one of the reasons why areas where cold and warm currents meet are very productive; the collision of currents causes mixing.
Q Source: Page 124: Fundamentals of Physical Geography: 11th NCERT
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Question 18 of 40
18. Question
1 pointsWho among the following can trade on the E-NAM (National Agriculture Market)?
- Individual farmers
- Agriculture exporters
- Bulk buyers and processors
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: d)
Justification: It is an online trading platform for agriculture produce aiming to help farmers, traders, and buyers with online trading and getting a better price by smooth marketing.
The Portal is managed by Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC).
On the ENAM platform, farmers can opt to trade directly on their own through the mobile app or through registered commission agents.
NAM has the following advantages:
- For the farmers, NAM promises more options for sale. It would increase his access to markets through warehouse-based sales and thus obviate the need to transport his produce to the mandi.
- For the local trader in the mandi / market, NAM offers the opportunity to access a larger national market for secondary trading.
- Bulk buyers, processors, exporters etc. benefit from being able to participate directly in trading at the local mandi / market level through the NAM platform, thereby reducing their intermediation costs.
- The gradual integration of all the major mandis in the States into NAM will ensure common procedures for issue of licences, levy of fee and movement of produce.
- The NAM will also facilitate the emergence of value chains in major agricultural commodities across the country and help to promote scientific storage and movement of agri goods.
Q Source: Insights modules
Incorrect
Solution: d)
Justification: It is an online trading platform for agriculture produce aiming to help farmers, traders, and buyers with online trading and getting a better price by smooth marketing.
The Portal is managed by Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC).
On the ENAM platform, farmers can opt to trade directly on their own through the mobile app or through registered commission agents.
NAM has the following advantages:
- For the farmers, NAM promises more options for sale. It would increase his access to markets through warehouse-based sales and thus obviate the need to transport his produce to the mandi.
- For the local trader in the mandi / market, NAM offers the opportunity to access a larger national market for secondary trading.
- Bulk buyers, processors, exporters etc. benefit from being able to participate directly in trading at the local mandi / market level through the NAM platform, thereby reducing their intermediation costs.
- The gradual integration of all the major mandis in the States into NAM will ensure common procedures for issue of licences, levy of fee and movement of produce.
- The NAM will also facilitate the emergence of value chains in major agricultural commodities across the country and help to promote scientific storage and movement of agri goods.
Q Source: Insights modules
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Question 19 of 40
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- Anticyclonic regions are low pressure zones with the wind flowing anti-clockwise around them in the southern hemisphere, and clockwise in the northern hemisphere.
- Cloudy conditions and precipitation often exist at the periphery of anticyclones.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: An anti-cyclone — also known as a high pressure area — is a large atmospheric circulation system with the wind flowing clockwise around it in the Northern Hemisphere, and counter-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
The extents are generally large and the effects are also pronounced.
Statement 2: Anticyclones form from air masses cooling more than their surroundings, which causes the air to contract slightly making the air denser. Since dense air weighs more, the weight of the atmosphere overlying a location increases, causing increased surface air pressure.
Winds are of moderate speed, and at the outer edges, cloudy and precipitation conditions exist.
Cloudy conditions and precipitation exists at the periphery of anticyclones. Otherwise, such a high pressure region generally shows fine and clear weather.
Q Source: AR: 11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Justification: Statement 1: An anti-cyclone — also known as a high pressure area — is a large atmospheric circulation system with the wind flowing clockwise around it in the Northern Hemisphere, and counter-clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
The extents are generally large and the effects are also pronounced.
Statement 2: Anticyclones form from air masses cooling more than their surroundings, which causes the air to contract slightly making the air denser. Since dense air weighs more, the weight of the atmosphere overlying a location increases, causing increased surface air pressure.
Winds are of moderate speed, and at the outer edges, cloudy and precipitation conditions exist.
Cloudy conditions and precipitation exists at the periphery of anticyclones. Otherwise, such a high pressure region generally shows fine and clear weather.
Q Source: AR: 11th NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography
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Question 20 of 40
20. Question
1 pointsIndirect subsidies under the WTO Agreement on Agriculture include
- subsidies given by the government on fertilizers and seeds
- minimum support price extended by the government
- farm loan waivers by the government
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Agriculture subsidies can be direct or indirect farm subsidies taking account the instruments used in providing them.
Direct Farm subsidies involve giving cash to the farmers. India provides direct subsidies in a limited form which include giving food subsidy or MSP-based procurement, etc. These are the kinds of subsidies in which direct cash incentives are paid to the farmers in order to make their products more competitive in the global markets. However, such direct subsidies are more common in developed countries like US and Europe.
Indirect farm subsidies: These are the farm subsidies which are provided in the form of cheaper credit facilities, farm loan waivers, reduction in irrigation and electricity bills, fertilizers, seeds and pesticides subsidy as well as the investments in agricultural research, environmental assistance, farmer training, etc. These subsidies are also provided to make farm products more competitive in the global market. The subsidies provided on the fertilizers as ‘input’ subsidies are in the form of indirect subsidies. But if the government does not incentivize the farmer by an effective cost reduction in prices of the fertilizers, but provides direct cash incentives after the produce, is known as a direct subsidy
Q Source: Ch on Agriculture – Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Agriculture subsidies can be direct or indirect farm subsidies taking account the instruments used in providing them.
Direct Farm subsidies involve giving cash to the farmers. India provides direct subsidies in a limited form which include giving food subsidy or MSP-based procurement, etc. These are the kinds of subsidies in which direct cash incentives are paid to the farmers in order to make their products more competitive in the global markets. However, such direct subsidies are more common in developed countries like US and Europe.
Indirect farm subsidies: These are the farm subsidies which are provided in the form of cheaper credit facilities, farm loan waivers, reduction in irrigation and electricity bills, fertilizers, seeds and pesticides subsidy as well as the investments in agricultural research, environmental assistance, farmer training, etc. These subsidies are also provided to make farm products more competitive in the global market. The subsidies provided on the fertilizers as ‘input’ subsidies are in the form of indirect subsidies. But if the government does not incentivize the farmer by an effective cost reduction in prices of the fertilizers, but provides direct cash incentives after the produce, is known as a direct subsidy
Q Source: Ch on Agriculture – Indian Economy: Ramesh Singh
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Question 21 of 40
21. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Auroras, consider the following statements:
- These are formed due to an active interaction between solar winds and the Earth’s magnetosphere.
- These are seen only in the high-latitude regions of the South Pole and hence cannot be seen in India.
- These act as indicators of geomagnetic storms and directly impact high frequency radio communications.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Auroras are bright and colourful lights, formed due to an active interaction in space between charged solar winds and the Earth’s magnetosphere.
Solar winds are ejections of charged particles from the Sun’s atmosphere, mostly composed of protons and electrons.
The magnetosphere is the region surrounding the Earth where the dominant magnetic field is the Earth’s, rather than the magnetic field of interplanetary space.
A crimson glow lit up the dark sky in parts of Ladakh in a rare stable auroral red arc event at the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve in the high Himalayas due to the strong solar magnetic storms launched towards Earth.
Statement 2 is not correct: Auroras near the North Pole, are called an aurora borealis or northern lights. Auroras near the South Pole are called an aurora australis or the Southern Lights.
Statement 3 is correct: The aurora is an indicator of the current geomagnetic storm conditions and provides situational awareness for a number of technologies.
The aurora directly impacts HF radio communication and GPS/GNSS satellite navigation. It is closely related to the ground induce currents that impact electric power transition.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Auroras are bright and colourful lights, formed due to an active interaction in space between charged solar winds and the Earth’s magnetosphere.
Solar winds are ejections of charged particles from the Sun’s atmosphere, mostly composed of protons and electrons.
The magnetosphere is the region surrounding the Earth where the dominant magnetic field is the Earth’s, rather than the magnetic field of interplanetary space.
A crimson glow lit up the dark sky in parts of Ladakh in a rare stable auroral red arc event at the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve in the high Himalayas due to the strong solar magnetic storms launched towards Earth.
Statement 2 is not correct: Auroras near the North Pole, are called an aurora borealis or northern lights. Auroras near the South Pole are called an aurora australis or the Southern Lights.
Statement 3 is correct: The aurora is an indicator of the current geomagnetic storm conditions and provides situational awareness for a number of technologies.
The aurora directly impacts HF radio communication and GPS/GNSS satellite navigation. It is closely related to the ground induce currents that impact electric power transition.
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Question 22 of 40
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Galactic tides are caused by the gravitational forces within a galaxy arising due to the interactions between celestial objects like gas clouds.
- Galactic tides do not disrupt the orbits of stars over aeons and hence do not produce long-term changes in galactic structure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Galactic tides are caused by gravitational forces within a galaxy, arising in the interactions between celestial objects like stars and gas clouds. These tidal forces influence various aspects of a galaxy’s evolution.
They can reshape a galaxy structure by creating tidal tails and bridges, promoting star formation, and disrupting smaller star systems.
Statement 2 is not correct: Over aeons, galactic tides also disrupt the orbits of stars, leading to long-term changes in galactic structure. Galactic tides also have a say in the ways in which proximate galaxies do and don’t interact.
Galactic tides also affect the supermassive black holes at galaxy centres, leading to events that change the ways in which these cosmic beasts interact with nearby stars.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Galactic tides are caused by gravitational forces within a galaxy, arising in the interactions between celestial objects like stars and gas clouds. These tidal forces influence various aspects of a galaxy’s evolution.
They can reshape a galaxy structure by creating tidal tails and bridges, promoting star formation, and disrupting smaller star systems.
Statement 2 is not correct: Over aeons, galactic tides also disrupt the orbits of stars, leading to long-term changes in galactic structure. Galactic tides also have a say in the ways in which proximate galaxies do and don’t interact.
Galactic tides also affect the supermassive black holes at galaxy centres, leading to events that change the ways in which these cosmic beasts interact with nearby stars.
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Question 23 of 40
23. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Eucalyptus Tree, consider the following statements:
- It is superior to other trees for wood production on infertile dry sites.
- It occurs on various soil types from red or black soils to sandy alluvial soils.
- It can grow well in high rainfall areas and grows well in salt-affected areas.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Eucalyptus camaldulensis is a common and widespread tree species.
Statement 1 is correct: The success of Eucalyptus is attributed to its superiority to other trees in production of wood on infertile dry sites, its tolerance of extreme drought and high temperature.
Statement 2 is correct: This species occurs on a variety of soil types from red or black soils to sandy alluvial soils.
Statement 3 is correct: It is a best suitable tree species for the areas which received rainfall from 250 to 600 mm at the same time it can also grow well in high rainfall areas which receives as high as 1250 mm. It can also grow well in salt affected areas.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Eucalyptus camaldulensis is a common and widespread tree species.
Statement 1 is correct: The success of Eucalyptus is attributed to its superiority to other trees in production of wood on infertile dry sites, its tolerance of extreme drought and high temperature.
Statement 2 is correct: This species occurs on a variety of soil types from red or black soils to sandy alluvial soils.
Statement 3 is correct: It is a best suitable tree species for the areas which received rainfall from 250 to 600 mm at the same time it can also grow well in high rainfall areas which receives as high as 1250 mm. It can also grow well in salt affected areas.
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Question 24 of 40
24. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following rivers does not drain into the Baltic Sea?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: The Neva River drains into the Baltic Sea.
The second largest river draining into the Baltic Sea is the Vistula.
The River Narva flows through Estonia and Russia and drains into the Baltic Sea.
The Volga River is the world’s 18th longest and Europe’s longest river, from its source to the mouth in the Caspian Sea.
It is the longest river flowing into the Caspian Sea, the world’s largest closed basin.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: The Neva River drains into the Baltic Sea.
The second largest river draining into the Baltic Sea is the Vistula.
The River Narva flows through Estonia and Russia and drains into the Baltic Sea.
The Volga River is the world’s 18th longest and Europe’s longest river, from its source to the mouth in the Caspian Sea.
It is the longest river flowing into the Caspian Sea, the world’s largest closed basin.
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Question 25 of 40
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Geographical locations in news- Located in
- Darfur Region- Israel
- Afar Triangle- East Africa
- Lake Kariba- Indonesia
- Mount Ruang- Japan
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The name “Darfur” is derived from “dar fur,” meaning “the land of the Fur” in Arabic. Escalating violence across the Darfur region in Sudan has sparked fears that the atrocities committed two decades ago could be repeated.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: East Africa is home to Africa’s longest geological feature, the Great Rift Valley. The northernmost part of the Great Rift Valley features a large geological depression known as the Afar Triangle.
The Afar Triangle is East Africa’s most geologically active region and is made up of active volcanoes, salt lakes, and lava lakes.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Lake Kariba is a lake in central Africa, between Zambia and Zimbabwe. It was formed by damming the Zambezi River in the Kariba Gorge.
Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Mount Ruang is a volcano in Indonesia that recently erupted spewing fiery lava and ash thousands of feet into the night sky.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Pair 1 is not correctly matched: The name “Darfur” is derived from “dar fur,” meaning “the land of the Fur” in Arabic. Escalating violence across the Darfur region in Sudan has sparked fears that the atrocities committed two decades ago could be repeated.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: East Africa is home to Africa’s longest geological feature, the Great Rift Valley. The northernmost part of the Great Rift Valley features a large geological depression known as the Afar Triangle.
The Afar Triangle is East Africa’s most geologically active region and is made up of active volcanoes, salt lakes, and lava lakes.
Pair 3 is not correctly matched: Lake Kariba is a lake in central Africa, between Zambia and Zimbabwe. It was formed by damming the Zambezi River in the Kariba Gorge.
Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Mount Ruang is a volcano in Indonesia that recently erupted spewing fiery lava and ash thousands of feet into the night sky.
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Question 26 of 40
26. Question
1 pointsThe scientists have now developed a tool to measure above-ground biomass carbon. They used a satellite system-based technique that, instead of using the common high-resolution photography, opts for passive microwave signals. This system will help monitor changes caused by dry years, which lead to carbon losses, which, in turn exacerbate climate change.
Which of the following statement is the most logical and critical corollary to the above passage?
Correct
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
B is correct as the passage talks about how the new technology will help us monitor carbon losses better. This, in turn, will help us understand the impact of human pressure on CC.
Incorrect
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
B is correct as the passage talks about how the new technology will help us monitor carbon losses better. This, in turn, will help us understand the impact of human pressure on CC.
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Question 27 of 40
27. Question
1 pointsA boat takes total 10 hours to cover the distance of 84 km in upstream and 84 km in downstream. If the speed of boat is increased by 12km/hr, then the new upstream speed is doubled of its usual speed. Find the time taken by boat to cover 140 km in downstream.
Correct
Option A) 5 hours
Let speed of boat = x km/hr
speed of stream = y km/hr
downstream speed = x + y
upstream speed = x – y
new speed of boat = x + 12
upstream speed = x + 12 – y
2 (x – y ) = x + 12 – y
x – y = 12
upstream speed = 12
time taken by boat to cover 84 km in upstream 84/12 = 7
time taken by boat in downstream = 10 – 7 = 3
downstream speed = 84/3 = 28 km
time taken by boat to cover 140 km in downstream = 140/28 = 5 hours
Incorrect
Option A) 5 hours
Let speed of boat = x km/hr
speed of stream = y km/hr
downstream speed = x + y
upstream speed = x – y
new speed of boat = x + 12
upstream speed = x + 12 – y
2 (x – y ) = x + 12 – y
x – y = 12
upstream speed = 12
time taken by boat to cover 84 km in upstream 84/12 = 7
time taken by boat in downstream = 10 – 7 = 3
downstream speed = 84/3 = 28 km
time taken by boat to cover 140 km in downstream = 140/28 = 5 hours
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Question 28 of 40
28. Question
1 pointsIn which direction is point G with respect to point H?
Statement I: Point B is 3 m to the east of point A. Point E is 6 m to the east of point D. Point B is 4 m to the north of point C. Point F is 5 m to the west of point G. Point E is 5 m to the north of point F. Point H is 11 m to the east of point C. Point B is 3 m to the south of point D.
Statement II: A person starts from point G in east direction. He walks 4 m and takes a right turn and walks 7 m. Now he takes a left turn and walks 3 m before turning to his right. Next he walks 6 m and takes a right turn. Next he walks for 7 m and stops at point H.
Correct
Option C) If the data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Solution:
So from both statements alone, G is north of H.
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Question 29 of 40
29. Question
1 points- Statements: Some hotels are restaurants
All dhabas are restaurants
No shops are restaurants
All motels are dhabas
Conclusions: I. Some hotels are shops
Some hotels are not shops
III. No dhabas are shops
IV. Some shops are not motels
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Question 30 of 40
30. Question
1 pointsThe length, breadth and height of a room are 363m, 528m and 693m respectively. What is the longest tape that can measure the three dimensions of the room exactly?
Correct
Solution: D) 33 m
Maximum length of tape
= HCF of 363m, 528m and 693m
363 can be simplified as 3 * 11 * 11
528 can be simplified as 2 * 2 * 2 * 2 * 3 * 11
693 can be simplified as 3 * 3 * 7 * 11
HCF of 363m, 528m and 693m = 3 * 11= 33 metreIncorrect
Solution: D) 33 m
Maximum length of tape
= HCF of 363m, 528m and 693m
363 can be simplified as 3 * 11 * 11
528 can be simplified as 2 * 2 * 2 * 2 * 3 * 11
693 can be simplified as 3 * 3 * 7 * 11
HCF of 363m, 528m and 693m = 3 * 11= 33 metre -
Question 31 of 40
31. Question
1 pointsConsider the following Passes of Himalaya:
- Niti Pass
- Chang-La Pass
- Jelep-La Pass
- Aghil Pass
Which one of the followings is a correct chronological order of the above passes from east to west?
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Question 32 of 40
32. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Ports in India:
- There are total 200 major and non-major ports present in the India.
- Gujarat has the maximum ports followed by Kerala.
- Around 95 per cent of India’s trading by volume and 68 per cent by value is done through maritime transport.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
India has a coastline spanning 7517 kilometres, forming one of the biggest peninsulas in the world. According to the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, around 95 per cent of India’s trading by volume and 68 per cent by value is done through maritime transport. It is serviced by 13 major ports (12 Government-owned and one private) and 187 notified minor and intermediate ports. India’s major ports handled highest ever cargo of 795 million tonne in FY23. India has 13 major ports – Deendayal (Kandla), Mumbai, Mormugao, New Mangalore, Cochin, Chennai, Ennore (Kamarajar), Tuticorin (V O Chidambaranar), Visakhapatnam, Paradip and Kolkata (including Haldia) and Jawaharlal Nehru Port. Port Blair which was notified as major port in 2010 was removed of its status recently. The total 200 major and non-major ports are present in the following States: Maharashtra (53); Gujarat (40); Kerala (21); Tamil Nadu (15); Andhra Pradesh (13); Karnataka (10) and others (50).
Hence, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
Around 95 per cent of India’s trading by volume and 68 per cent by value is done through maritime transport.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
India has a coastline spanning 7517 kilometres, forming one of the biggest peninsulas in the world. According to the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, around 95 per cent of India’s trading by volume and 68 per cent by value is done through maritime transport. It is serviced by 13 major ports (12 Government-owned and one private) and 187 notified minor and intermediate ports. India’s major ports handled highest ever cargo of 795 million tonne in FY23. India has 13 major ports – Deendayal (Kandla), Mumbai, Mormugao, New Mangalore, Cochin, Chennai, Ennore (Kamarajar), Tuticorin (V O Chidambaranar), Visakhapatnam, Paradip and Kolkata (including Haldia) and Jawaharlal Nehru Port. Port Blair which was notified as major port in 2010 was removed of its status recently. The total 200 major and non-major ports are present in the following States: Maharashtra (53); Gujarat (40); Kerala (21); Tamil Nadu (15); Andhra Pradesh (13); Karnataka (10) and others (50).
Hence, statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
Around 95 per cent of India’s trading by volume and 68 per cent by value is done through maritime transport.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 33 of 40
33. Question
1 pointsConsider the following Plateaus of India:
- Malwa Plateau
- Chotanagpur Plateau
- Baghelkhand Plateau
- Dandakaranya
How many of the above Plateaus are situated at the same longitude?
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Question 34 of 40
34. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD):
- In IOD, the eastern Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer (positive phase) and then colder (negative phase) than the western part of the ocean.
- A negative phase sees greater precipitation in the western Indian Ocean region.
- The IOD phenomenon was first identified by climate researchers in 1999.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Indian Ocean Dipole
The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD), also known as the Indian Nino, is an irregular oscillation of sea surface temperatures in which the western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer (positive phase) and then colder (negative phase) than the eastern part of the ocean.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The IOD involves an aperiodic oscillation of sea-surface temperatures (SST), between “positive”, “neutral” and “negative” phases. A positive phase sees greater-than-average sea-surface temperatures and greater precipitation in the western Indian Ocean region, with a corresponding cooling of waters in the eastern Indian Ocean—which tends to cause droughts in adjacent land areas of Indonesia and Australia. The negative phase of the IOD brings about the opposite conditions, with warmer water and greater precipitation in the eastern Indian Ocean, and cooler and drier conditions in the west.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The IOD phenomenon was first identified by climate researchers in 1999.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Indian Ocean Dipole
The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD), also known as the Indian Nino, is an irregular oscillation of sea surface temperatures in which the western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer (positive phase) and then colder (negative phase) than the eastern part of the ocean.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The IOD involves an aperiodic oscillation of sea-surface temperatures (SST), between “positive”, “neutral” and “negative” phases. A positive phase sees greater-than-average sea-surface temperatures and greater precipitation in the western Indian Ocean region, with a corresponding cooling of waters in the eastern Indian Ocean—which tends to cause droughts in adjacent land areas of Indonesia and Australia. The negative phase of the IOD brings about the opposite conditions, with warmer water and greater precipitation in the eastern Indian Ocean, and cooler and drier conditions in the west.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The IOD phenomenon was first identified by climate researchers in 1999.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 35 of 40
35. Question
1 pointsConsider the following Glaciers:
- Kangto Glacier
- Zemu Glacier
- Nubra Glacier
- Rathong Glacier
- Bara Shigri Glacier
How many of the above Glaciers are located in the Western Himalayan Region?
Correct
Answer: a
The Western Himalayan Range comprises the majority of the Indian Himalayas and includes the Indian states of Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand and UTs Jammu & Kashmir and .
- Kangto Glacier is located in Arunchal Pradesh.
- Zemu Glacier is located in Sikkim.
- Nubra Glacier is located in Ladakh.
- Rathong Glacier is located in Sikkim.
- Bara Shigri Glacier is located in Himachal Pradesh.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
The Western Himalayan Range comprises the majority of the Indian Himalayas and includes the Indian states of Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand and UTs Jammu & Kashmir and .
- Kangto Glacier is located in Arunchal Pradesh.
- Zemu Glacier is located in Sikkim.
- Nubra Glacier is located in Ladakh.
- Rathong Glacier is located in Sikkim.
- Bara Shigri Glacier is located in Himachal Pradesh.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
-
Question 36 of 40
36. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the longitudinal division of Himalaya, consider the following pairs:
- Eastern Himalayas : Between the Tista and Brahmaputra rivers
- Nepal Himalayas : Between the Kali and Ramganga rivers
- Kumaun Himalayas : Between the Indus and Satluj gorges
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: a
Eastern Himalayas or Assam Himalayas
- It is located between the Tista and Brahmaputra rivers in the west and east, respectively with total length of 750 kilometres.
Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
The Central Himalayas or Nepal Himalayas:
- It is situated between the Kali and Tista it is 800 kilometres in length.
Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
The Kumaun Himalayas
- It stretches for 320 kilometres between the Satluj and Kali gorges.
Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Eastern Himalayas or Assam Himalayas
- It is located between the Tista and Brahmaputra rivers in the west and east, respectively with total length of 750 kilometres.
Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
The Central Himalayas or Nepal Himalayas:
- It is situated between the Kali and Tista it is 800 kilometres in length.
Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
The Kumaun Himalayas
- It stretches for 320 kilometres between the Satluj and Kali gorges.
Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.
-
Question 37 of 40
37. Question
1 pointsThe Labyrinth Island, sometimes remains in news, is situated in
Correct
Answer: d
The Islands
There are two major island groups in India – one in the Bay of Bengal and the other in the Arabian Sea. The Bay of Bengal Island groups consist of about 572 islands/islets. These are situated roughly between 6°°N-14°°N and 92°°E -94°°E. The two principal groups of islets include the Ritchie’s archipelago and the Labrynth island. The entire group of island is divided into two broad categories – the Andaman in the north and the Nicobar in the south.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
The Islands
There are two major island groups in India – one in the Bay of Bengal and the other in the Arabian Sea. The Bay of Bengal Island groups consist of about 572 islands/islets. These are situated roughly between 6°°N-14°°N and 92°°E -94°°E. The two principal groups of islets include the Ritchie’s archipelago and the Labrynth island. The entire group of island is divided into two broad categories – the Andaman in the north and the Nicobar in the south.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 38 of 40
38. Question
1 pointsConsider the following Dams:
- Pakal Dul
- Dulhasti
- Salal
- Baglihar
How many of the above dams are situated on Chenab River?
Correct
Answer: c
Hence, option (c) is correct.
https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=dams_in_jammu_and_kashmir
Incorrect
Answer: c
Hence, option (c) is correct.
https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=dams_in_jammu_and_kashmir
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Question 39 of 40
39. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following tributaries of Brahmaputra River joins it from the left side?
Correct
Answer: d
In India, Brahmaputra River flows for 916 km. The principal tributaries of the river joining from right are the Lohit, the Dibang, the Subansiri, the Jiabharali, the Dhansiri, the Manas, the Torsa, the Sankosh and the Teesta whereas the Burhidihing, the Desang, the Dikhow, the Dhansiri and the Kopili joins it from left.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
In India, Brahmaputra River flows for 916 km. The principal tributaries of the river joining from right are the Lohit, the Dibang, the Subansiri, the Jiabharali, the Dhansiri, the Manas, the Torsa, the Sankosh and the Teesta whereas the Burhidihing, the Desang, the Dikhow, the Dhansiri and the Kopili joins it from left.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 40 of 40
40. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Soils in India:
- The laterite soil develops in areas with low temperature and moderate rainfall.
- Black soil are rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime.
- Alluvial soil is found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
Answer: a
Laterite Soil: Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘later’ which means brick. The laterite soil develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The black soils are made up of extremely fine i.e. clayey material. They are well-known for their capacity to hold moisture. In addition, they are rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Alluvial Soils: This is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems– the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Laterite Soil: Laterite has been derived from the Latin word ‘later’ which means brick. The laterite soil develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The black soils are made up of extremely fine i.e. clayey material. They are well-known for their capacity to hold moisture. In addition, they are rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Alluvial Soils: This is the most widely spread and important soil. In fact, the entire northern plains are made of alluvial soil. These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems– the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. These soils also extend in Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor. Alluvial soil is also found in the eastern coastal plains particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri rivers.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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