DAY – 1 Insta 75 Days Revision Plan 2.0 -2024: Subject – Polity

Answer: c

Explanation:

• According to Article 164 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor appoints Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. This is a well-established constitutional convention and aligns with judicial interpretations. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Governor can dismiss a Minister only on the advice of the Chief Minister. This is rooted in the principle that the Chief Minister has the discretion to choose and dismiss Ministers. Judicial rulings, such as in Shamsher Singh vs State Of Punjab (1974) and Nabam Rebia vs Deputy Speaker (2017), have reinforced this limitation on the Governor’s discretionary powers. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Governor’s power to dismiss a Minister is indeed limited by the need to act on the advice of the Chief Minister. This has been upheld by judicial interpretations, confirming that the Governor cannot act independently in this regard. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

• Article 123 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President [Article 213 – Governor] to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament.
• RC Cooper Case 1970: If an Ordinance is issued solely to bypass the Parliament, the President’s decision to promulgate the Ordinance can be challenged.
• D C Wadhwa v. State of Bihar 1986: If the Government ignores the legislature and repromulgate an Ordinance, it would be a colourable exercise of power.
• Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar 2017: A seven-judge Bench of the SC held that the satisfaction of the President under Article 123 is not immune from judicial scrutiny; not a parallel source of law-making or an independent legislative authority. It reiterated that the Governor’s power to issue an Ordinance is in the nature of an emergency power. Repeated re-promulgations without bringing the Ordinance to the legislature would be unconstitutional.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: c

Explanation:

• Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a statutory body of the Government of India responsible for enforcing the Competition Act, 2002, it was duly constituted in March 2009.
• The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 (MRTP Act) was repealed and replaced by the Competition Act, 2002, on the recommendations of the Raghavan committee.
• The CCI is established under the Competition Act, 2002, which makes it a statutory body. Additionally, it performs quasi-judicial functions, such as adjudicating cases related to anti-competitive practices and issuing penalties.
• According to Section 10(1) of the Competition Act, 2002:
• The Chairperson and other Members of the CCI shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which they enter their office.
• They are eligible for reappointment.
• They shall hold office until they attain the age of 65 years.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Answer: c

Explanation:

• The telecommunications sector is subject to CCI’s jurisdiction. While there is sector-specific regulation by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), anti-competitive practices within the sector can be scrutinized by CCI.
• The agriculture sector, including agri-business and markets, falls under CCI’s purview. CCI has investigated cases related to agricultural commodities and markets.
• The defense sector is typically considered outside the jurisdiction of CCI due to national security concerns. Defense procurement and related activities are highly regulated and handled directly by the government, often with specific exemptions from general competition law.
• The pharmaceutical sector is a significant focus area for CCI, especially concerning issues like price fixing, market allocation, and abuse of dominant position.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

• Recently, The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister approved the Terms of Reference (ToR) for the Sixteenth Finance Commission.
• The commission will make recommendations on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, allocation among the States, grants-in-aid, and measures to supplement Panchayats’ resources for a five-year period starting April 1, 2026
• The Terms of Reference (ToR) of the 16^th Finance Commission has the mandate to review the current financing structures related to Disaster Management initiatives. This involves examining how funds are allocated and used for disaster management and recommending improvements. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Terms of Reference for the Finance Commission include evaluating the funds created under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. This involves reviewing the provisions and structures set by the Act for financing disaster management and suggesting any necessary changes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The 16^th Finance Commission’s role does not include mandating a fixed percentage of the GDP to be allocated for disaster management. Instead, it makes recommendations on the principles for allocating funds, which the government may consider, but it does not set a fixed percentage of GDP allocation. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Recently, the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) emphasised the importance of executing the recommendations of the Idate Commission report, to address the concerns of Nomadic, Semi-Nomadic, and De-Notified Tribes (NTs, SNTs, and DNTs) in India.
• Additionally, it recommended excluding DNTs/NTs/SNTs from SC/ST/OBC categories and creating tailored policies for them.
• It was established in 2014 under the leadership of Bhiku Ramji Idate, to compile a statewide catalogue of Denotified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs).
• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answer: c

Explanation:

• The members of the Ethics Committee are appointed by the Speaker for a period of one year.
• The 15-member Committee’s function is to examine every complaint relating to unethical conduct of a Member of Lok Sabha referred to it by the Speaker and make such recommendations as it may deem fit. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The late Speaker, G M C Balayogi, constituted an ad hoc Ethics Committee in 2000, which became a permanent part of the House only in 2015. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Speaker indeed has the authority to refer any complaint against a Member of Parliament to the Ethics Committee for examination and investigation. This mechanism ensures that allegations of misconduct are thoroughly investigated in a fair and impartial manner. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• While an expelled MP does have the option to challenge the decision in a court of law, it’s not necessarily a matter of right. The grounds for challenging such a decision are limited, typically including claims of unconstitutionality, gross illegality, or a denial of natural justice. The Supreme Court may review the decision based on these grounds, but it’s not an automatic right of the expelled MP. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Answer: c

Explanation:

• The Indian Constitution has adopted universal adult franchise as a basis of elections to the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies. Every citizen who is not less than 18 years of age has a right to vote without any discrimination of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, wealth, and so on. The voting age was reduced to 18 years from 21 years in 1989 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988.
• The introduction of universal adult franchise by the Constitution-makers was a bold experiment and highly remarkable in view of the vast size of the country, its huge population, high poverty, social inequality and overwhelming illiteracy.
• Universal adult franchise makes democracy broad-based, enhances the self-respect and prestige of the common people, upholds the principle of equality, enables minorities to protect their interests and opens up new hopes and vistas for weaker sections. Hence, statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
• A responsible government is one in which there is a degree of accountability towards parliament. There is also the fundamental concept of Bicameralism. Though universal adult franchise upholds democracy, it does not ensure a responsible government. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

• Following categories of foreign nationals are eligible for registration as Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Cardholder:
• Who was a citizen of India at the time of, or at any time after the commencement of, the Constitution i.e. 26.01.1950; or
• who was eligible to become a citizen of India on 26.01.1950; or
• who belonged to a territory that became part of India after 15.08.1947; or
• who is a child or a grandchild or a great-grandchild of such a citizen; or
• who is a minor child of such persons mentioned above; or
• who is a minor child and whose both parents are citizens of India or one of the parents is a citizen of India; or
• Spouse of foreign origin of a citizen of India or spouse of foreign origin of an Overseas Citizen of India Cardholder registered under the Citizenship Act, 1955 and whose marriage has been registered and subsisted for a continuous period of not less than two years immediately preceding the presentation of the application.
• Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Following benefits will be allowed to an OCI: (a) Multi-purpose, multiple entry, and lifelong visa for visiting India. (b) Exemption from registration with local police authority for any length of stay in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• OCI is not to be misconstrued as ‘dual citizenship’. OCI does not confer political rights. The registered Overseas Citizens of India shall not be entitled to the rights which are conferred only to citizens of India, such as the right under article 16 of the Constitution with regard to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with the law.
• This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State but also against private persons.
• Article 23 provides for an exception to this provision. It permits the State to impose compulsory service for public purposes, as for example, military service or social service, for which it is not bound to pay. However, in imposing such service, the State is not permitted to make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class.
• State government teachers are also engaged in non-teaching activities during the elections or Census data collection.
• Article 23 prohibits begar and other ‘similar forms of forced labour’ like ‘bonded labour’. The term ‘forced labour’ means compelling a person to work against his will. The word ‘force’ includes not only physical or legal force but also force arising from the compulsion of economic circumstances that is, working for less than the minimum wage. As this right is available to both citizens and non- citizens, the case in option (b) is a violation of Article 23.
• Denial of employment to an eligible candidate is a violation of Article 16. It violates the Right to Equality in public employment.
• An increase in the Dearness Allowance (DA) of Central Government employees and many state government employees was put on hold due to COVID 19. This does not violate Article 23.
• Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

• A is true. In the FPTP system, it is possible for a party to win the majority of seats in the legislature without securing a majority of the total votes cast across all constituencies. This happens because the FPTP system counts the winner in each constituency as the candidate who receives the most votes, regardless of whether that total constitutes an absolute majority (over 50%).
• R is true. The FPTP system declares the candidate with the highest number of votes in a constituency the winner, even if they have not received a majority of the total votes. This means that a candidate can win with a plurality of votes if there are multiple candidates splitting the vote.
• R is the correct explanation of A. Because in the FPTP system each candidate only needs to receive the highest number of votes in their respective constituency to win, this system can result in a party winning many constituencies (and thus a majority of seats) with only a plurality of votes in each, not necessarily a majority of total votes nationwide. This discrepancy explains why a party can secure a majority of seats without a majority of the overall vote.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: c

Explanation:

• The Election Commission of India (ECI) regulates the use of media by political parties during elections. It sets guidelines for political advertisements on radio and television to ensure fair play. This includes allocating time slots to parties and ensuring that broadcasts do not violate the Model Code of Conduct. This is done to prevent any unfair advantage that might arise from unregulated media usage. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The ECI is responsible for creating and updating the electoral rolls, which include registering all eligible voters. Additionally, the ECI has been instrumental in the creation and distribution of Electronic Photo Identity Cards (EPICs) to voters, which helps in ensuring that only registered voters can vote, thereby reducing electoral fraud. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The ECI has the authority to cancel or postpone elections in a constituency if it believes that the election process has been compromised due to malpractices like rigging, booth capturing, violence, or any other irregularities. This power is crucial for maintaining the integrity of elections and ensuring that results are a true reflection of the voters’ will. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• While the ECI enforces the Model Code of Conduct (MCC), it does not have the authority to impose fines directly. Instead, the ECI can take actions such as issuing warnings, disqualifying candidates, and reporting violations to law enforcement agencies for further action. The MCC is a set of guidelines that political parties and candidates must follow to ensure free and fair elections. Enforcement is typically through advisories, censures, or recommending action to other authorities rather than direct financial penalties. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Answer: c

Explanation:

Administrative machinery for the conduct of elections in India

• Part IV provide for delegation of functions of Election Commission i.e. the functions of the Election Commission under the Constitution, the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and Representation of the People Act, 1951 Act or under the rules made there under may be performed also by a Deputy Election Commissioner or by the Secretary to the Election Commission on the basis of directions as may be given by the Election Commission in this behalf.
• Chief Electoral Officer: The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an Officer of the Government of the State/Union Territory as the Chief Electoral Officer in consultation with that State Government/Union Territory Administration.
• Chief Electoral Officer of a State/ Union Territory is authorized to supervise the election work in the State/Union Territory subject to the overall superintendence, direction and control of the Election Commission.
• Observer: The Election Commission may nominate an Observer who shall be an officer of Government to watch the conduct of election or elections in a constituency or a group of constituencies. Earlier, the appointment of Observers was made under the plenary powers of the Commission.
• But with the amendments made to the Representation of the People Act, 1951 in 1996, these are now statutory appointments. They report directly to the Commission. The Observer has the power to direct the returning officer for the constituency or for any of the constituencies for which he has been nominated, to stop the counting of votes at any time before the declaration of the result or not to declare the result if in his opinion booth capturing has taken place.
• In case of stopping the counting of votes or non-declaration of result, a report shall be sent by the Observer to the EC, which issue appropriate directions.
• District Election Officer: The EC nominates an Officer of the State Government as the District Election Officer in consultation with the State Government.
• The district election officer is authorized to coordinate and supervise all work in the district or in the area within his jurisdiction in connection with the conduct of all elections to Parliament and the Legislature of the State subject to the superintendence, direction and control of the chief electoral officer.
• With the previous approval of the Election Commission, DEO provides a sufficient number of polling stations for every constituency the whole or greater part of which lies within his jurisdiction, and publishes a list showing the polling stations so provided and the polling areas or groups of voters for which they have respectively been provided

• Returning Officer: The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an officer of the Government or a local authority as the Returning Officer for each of the assembly and parliamentary constituencies in consultation with the State Government/Union Territory Administration.
• Same person can be appointed as the returning officer for more than one constituency. In addition, the Election Commission of India may appoint one or more Assistant Returning Officers for each of the assembly and parliamentary constituencies to assist the Returning Officer in the performance of his functions in connection with the conduct of elections. Every such person must be an officer of Government or of a local authority.
• Every assistant returning officer, subject to the control of the returning officer, is competent to perform all or any of the functions of the returning officer except functions which relate the scrutiny of nominations unless the returning officer is unavoidably prevented from performing the said function. While Returning officer may always include an assistant returning officer in performing any function which he is authorized to perform him.
• It is the general duty of the returning officer at any election to do all such acts and things as may be necessary for effectually conducting the election in the manner provided by RPA, 1951and rules or orders made there under.
• Presiding Officer: The district election officer appoints a presiding officer for each polling station. If a polling officer is absent from the polling station, the presiding officer may appoint any person who is present at the polling station other than a person who has been employed by or on behalf of, or has been otherwise working for, a candidate in or about the election, to be the polling officer during the absence of the former officer, and inform the district election officer accordingly.
• Same person can be the presiding officer for more than one polling station in the same premises. It is the general duty of the presiding officer at a polling station to keep order thereat and to see that the poll is fairly taken.
• Polling Officer: A polling officer performs all or any of the functions of a presiding officer based upon his direction.
• If the presiding officer is absent from the polling station due to illness or other unavoidable cause, his functions shall be performed by such polling officer as has been previously authorized by the district election officer to perform such functions during any such absence. It is the duty of the polling officers at a polling station to assist the presiding officer for such station in the performance of his functions.
• The returning officer, assistant returning officer, presiding officer, polling officer, and any other officer appointed so and any police officer designated for the time being by the State Government, for the conduct of any election shall be deemed to be on deputation to the Election Commission during the election period and such officers shall be subject to the control, superintendence and discipline of the Election Commission.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Answer: c

Explanation:

• Observer: The Election Commission may nominate an Observer who shall be an officer of Government to watch the conduct of election or elections in a constituency or a group of constituencies. Earlier, the appointment of Observers was made under the plenary powers of the Commission.
• But with the amendments made to the Representation of the People Act, 1951 in 1996, these are now statutory appointments. They report directly to the Commission. The Observer has the power to direct the returning officer for the constituency or for any of the constituencies for which he has been nominated, to stop the counting of votes at any time before the declaration of the result or not to declare the result if in his opinion booth capturing has taken place.
• In case of stopping the counting of votes or non-declaration of result, a report shall be sent by the Observer to the EC, which issue appropriate directions.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Answer: a

Explanation:

• The Election Commission of India nominates an officer of the Government or a local authority as the Returning Officer for each of the assembly and parliamentary constituencies in consultation with the State Government/Union Territory Administration.
• The Returning Officer is indeed responsible for overseeing the counting of votes and officially declaring the election results for the constituency. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Assistant Returning Officers are appointed by the Election Commission, not by the Returning Officer. The Returning Officer may work with Assistant Returning Officers, but they do not have the authority to appoint them. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Returning Officer is not responsible for overseeing campaign activities of candidates. This duty falls under the jurisdiction of election observers. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The appointment of Presiding Officers is done by the District Election Officer not by the Returning Officer. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The collegium system is the way by which judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed and transferred.

The collegium system is not rooted in the Constitution or a specific law promulgated by Parliament; it has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court.

Statement 2 is not correct: The Supreme Court Collegium is a five-member body, which is headed by the incumbent CJI and comprises the four other senior judges of the court at that time.

Statement 3 is not correct: Judges of the higher judiciary are appointed only through the collegium system, and the government has a role only after names have been decided by the collegium.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: In 1975, the Supreme Court in the case of Indira Gandhi v Raj Narain recognised that free and fair elections are a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution of India, and any laws or policies that would violate this principle could be struck down.

Though free and fair elections have been placed on the highest constitutional pedestal, the Supreme Court has held that the rights to elect and be elected do not enjoy the same status.

Section 8 of the Representation of People Act, 1951 (RP Act) is titled “Disqualification on conviction for certain offences” if a person is convicted of any of the offences in the exhaustive list provided in the provision.

Statement 2 is correct: The Election Commission of India (ECI) is empowered under Section 11 of the RP Act to “remove” or “reduce” the period of disqualification.

The Chandrayaan-3 mission’s successful soft landing on the Moon marks India’s significant achievement, becoming the fourth nation in history to reach the lunar surface.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is incorrect.

Instruments and Experiments on Chandrayaan 3: 

Lander Experiments:

• Radio Anatomy of Moon Bound Hypersensitive Ionosphere and Atmosphere (RAMBHA): This experiment studies the electrons and ions near the moon’s surface, investigating their behaviour and changes over time.
• Chandra’s Surface Thermo Physical Experiment (ChaSTE): ChaSTE focuses on the thermal properties of the lunar surface near the polar region, contributing to our understanding of temperature variations.

Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA): ILSA measures lunar quakes near the landing site, analyzing the composition of the Moon’s crust and mantle through seismic activity. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• LASER Retroreflector Array (LRA): This passive experiment, provided by NASA, acts as a target for lasers, enabling precise measurements for future missions.

Rover Experiments:

• LASER-Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS): LIBS determines the chemical and mineral composition of the lunar surface, offering insights into its geological makeup.
• Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS): APXS identifies elements like magnesium, aluminium, silicon, and more in the lunar soil and rocks, contributing to our understanding of lunar materials.

About Luna 25: Russia’s Lunar Mission:

Luna 25 was a Russian lunar mission launched by Roscosmos on August 11, 2023. The mission aimed to soft-land a lander near the moon’s south pole to study moondust, moon soil, and the atmosphere. However, the mission encountered a glitch and crashed on the moon’s surface on August 20, ending in failure.

About LVM3: 

Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3) (previously known as GSLV-MK III) is a three-stage launch vehicle consisting of two solid propellants S200 strap-ons on its sides and a core stage comprising L110 liquid stage and C25 cryogenic stage. The vehicle is also dubbed as one of the heaviest for its ability to carry satellites up to 8,000 kg.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Government has been at the forefront of promoting Alternative Dispute Resolution Systems. The enabling legal framework for resolution of disputes through Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) has been provided under Section 89, Civil Procedure Code, 1908.

Section 89 recognises, Arbitration, Conciliation, Mediation and Judicial Settlement including settlement through Lok Adalat.

The Government has established Fast Track Courts for dealing with cases of heinous crimes, cases involving senior citizens, women, children, HIV/AIDS etc. and property related cases pending for more than five years.

Statement 2 is correct: To reduce pendency and unclogging of the courts, the Government has recently amended various laws like the Negotiable Instruments (Amendment) Act, 2018, the Specific Relief (Amendment) Act, 2018 and the Criminal Laws (Amendment) Act, 2018.

Lok Adalats have come up as a viable Alternative Disputes Resolution Mechanism available to common people. It is a forum where the disputes/ cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably.

Statement 3 is not correct: Under the Legal Services Authorities (LSA) Act, 1987, an award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding on all parties and no appeal lies against thereto before any court. Lok Adalat is not a permanent establishment.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The PREFIRE (Polar Radiant Energy in the Far-InfraRed Experiment) mission will study heat loss to space in Earth’s polar regions.

A mission designed for a pair of tiny satellites to measure a little-studied portion of the radiant energy emitted by Earth.

Statement 2 is correct: It provides significant clues about sea ice loss, ice-sheet melting, and a warming Arctic – the region that behaves like our planet’s thermostat, as it regulates the climate by venting excess energy received in the tropics.

Statement 3 is not correct: The National Aeronautics and Space Administration/NASA (NOT ESA) has prepared to launch its new climate science mission, the Polar Radiant Energy in the Far-Infrared Experiment (PREFIRE), which aims to capture brand new data on how heat is lost to space from Earth’s Polar Regions.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Fiat money is a government-issued currency that is not backed by a physical commodity, such as gold or silver, but rather by the government that issued it.

Statement 2 is not correct: The value of fiat money is derived from the relationship between supply and demand and the stability of the issuing government, rather than the worth of a commodity backing it.

Fiat money gives central banks greater control over the economy because they can control how much money is printed.

Statement 3 is correct: Most modern paper currencies, such as the U.S. dollar, are fiat currencies.

One danger of fiat money is that governments can print too much of it, resulting in hyperinflation.

Answer: a

Curative Petition

It is the last judicial resort available for redressal of grievances in court which is normally decided by judges in-chamber. It is only in rare cases that such petitions are given an open-court hearing.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The concept of curative petition was first evolved by the Supreme Court of India in the matter of Rupa Ashok Hurra vs. Ashok Hurra and Anr. (2002) where the question was whether an aggrieved person is entitled to any relief against the final judgement/order of the Supreme Court, after dismissal of a review petition.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

To entertain the curative petitions, the Supreme Court has laid down certain specific conditions:

• The petitioner will have to establish that there was a genuine violation of principles of natural justice and fear of the bias of the judge and judgement that adversely affected him.
• The petition shall state specifically that the grounds mentioned had been taken in the review petition and that it was dismissed by circulation.
• The petition is to be sent to the three senior most judges and judges of the bench who passed the judgement affecting the petition, if available.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• If the majority of the judges on the above bench agree that the matter needs hearing, then it would be sent to the same bench (as far as possible) and the court could impose “exemplary costs” to the petitioner if his plea lacks merit.

Answer: a

Article 326 of the Indian Constitution has inherited the provisions regarding the right to vote.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Representation of the People Act of 1951 states that individuals in the lawful custody of the police and those serving a sentence of imprisonment after conviction cannot vote. Although persons under preventive detention can cast their vote through postal ballots.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Undertrial prisoners are excluded from participating in elections even if their names are on the electoral rolls.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Answer: c

The chairperson and members are appointed by the president on the recommendations of a six-member committee consisting of the prime minister as its head, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, leaders of the Opposition in both the Houses of Parliament and the Central home minister. Further, a sitting judge of the Supreme Court or a sitting chief justice of a high court can be appointed only after consultation with the chief justice of India.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Answer: c

The expenses of by-election of Lok Sabha are borne by the Election Commission of India.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: The Kaziranga National Park represents one of the last unmodified natural areas in the north-eastern region of India. It is located in the State of Assam as the single largest undisturbed and representative area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain.

Statement 2 is correct: In the year 1985, the park was declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.  Along with the iconic Greater one-horned rhinoceros, the park is the breeding ground of elephants, wild water buffalo, and swamp deer.

The park is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for the conservation of avifaunal species.

Statement 3 is correct: The park’s location at the junction of the Australasia and Indo-Asian flyway means that the park’s wetlands play a crucial role for the conservation of globally threatened migratory bird species.

Answer: b

List of female judges in Supreme Court of India

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 2 is wrong as going beyond input is required to aid growth from
Low income to middle income country.

Solution: B) 18: 25

By the deducing the information given above, we can get the following table

The ratio between total cars produced on Monday to that on Wednesday

= 540/750 = 18 : 25

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Option A) Only I and II are sufficient

From statement I,

juice and water in A = 3: 2

juice and water in B = 4: 3

So, Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

From statement II,

Vessel B mixture = 28

Ratio of the juice and water in A = 17: 12

So, Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question

From statement III,

Mixture of C = 10

Ratio of juice and water in C = 5: 4

So, Statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question

From I and II

juice in 28 liters of B = 4/7 * 28 = 16 liters

Water in 28 liters of B = 3/7 * 28 = 12 liters

3x + 16/2x + 12 = 17/12

34x + 204 = 36x + 192

2x = 12

x = 6

juice in vessel A = 3 * 6 = 18 liters

So, Statement I and II are necessary to answer the question.

Option A) Only I and II are sufficient

From statement I,

p1/p3 = 4/5

p1/p4 = 1/3

So, Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

From Statement II,

p2 + p3 + p4 = 125

(p1 – 5)/(p4 – 5) = 3/11

So, Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question

From statement III,

p4 = 300/100 * p1

p4: p1 = 3: 1

2x = 40

x = 20

p1= 20 years

p4 = 3 * 20 = 60 years

So, Statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question

From statement I and II,

p1 and p4’s present age be x and 3x respectively

(p1 – 5)/(p4 – 5) = 3/11

(x – 5)/(3x – 5) = 3/11

= > 11x – 55 = 9x – 15

= > 2x = 40

= > x = 20

Present age of p1 and p4 is 20 and 60 years respectively

p3’s present age = 20/4 * 5 = 25 years

p2’s present age = 125 – (25 + 60) = 125 – 85 = 40 years

Sum of the ages of p1 and p2 = (20 + 40) = 60 years

Hence, statement I and II alone is sufficient to answer the given question.

Option D) 4

There are 4 male members as M,N and R are male while between P and S there has to be one male and one female-being a married couple.

Solution: c)

Justification:  Article 226 of the Constitution of India gives High Courts the power to issue writs, orders, and directions to enforce fundamental rights and other purposes. This includes the power to issue writs to any person or authority, including the government.

Article 226 gives High Courts extraordinary jurisdiction to address legal injury. This allows the High Court to consider public interest and equity when making decisions.

We will cover more on High Courts of India when covering Laxmikanth’s polity book.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2024/

Solution: d)

Justification:  Article 29 grants the right to conserve distinct language, script, or culture for any section of citizens in India. Protects both religious and linguistic minorities. The term ‘section of citizens’ includes both minorities and the majority.

Article 30(1) empowers religious and linguistic minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. It ensures non-discriminatory aid from the Union government.

Context: The legal dispute over Aligarh Muslim University’s (AMU) minority status is currently under consideration by a seven-judge Supreme Court Bench led by Chief Justice D.Y. Chandrachud.

The dispute over AMU’s minority character originated in legal challenges to the AMU Act of 1920, with significant amendments in 1951 and 1965. Changes included replacing the ‘Lord Rector’ with a ‘Visitor’ (President of India) and allowing non-Muslims in the University Court. The SC’s 1967 ruling held that AMU, being a central university, couldn’t be considered a minority institution. This raised questions about AMU’s minority character, challenging the notion that its establishment solely relied on the efforts of the Muslim minority. In 1981, AMU was recognized as an “institution of national importance” by the Union government.

Following the SC’s 1967 ruling, protests erupted and it led to an amendment affirming AMU’s minority status in 1981. However, the Allahabad High Court nullified the 1981 Act in 2005, rejecting the reservation. In 2019, a three-judge Bench referred the dispute to a seven-judge Bench.

Q Source: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/29/mission-2024-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-29-january-2024/

Solution: d)

Learning: Some important socialist provisions are:

• To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice— social, economic and political—and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
• To secure (a) the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens; (b) the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good; (c) prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production; (d) equal pay for equal work for men and women; (e) preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and (f) opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
• To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
• To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement (Article 41).
• To make provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief (Article 42).

Q Source: Chapter 8: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: a)

Justification: “We, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:

JUSTICE, Social, Economic and Political;

LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;

EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all;

FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;

IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”

Q Source: Chapter 4: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Solution: c)

Justification: There are two provisions in the Constitution that seek to achieve political equality.

• One, no person is to be declared ineligible for inclusion in electoral rolls on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex (Article 325).
• Two, elections to the Lok Sabha and the state assemblies to be on the basis of adult suffrage (Article 326).
• Thus, the right to vote is a constitutional right, not a fundamental right.

Q Source: Chapter 4: Indian Polity: M Laxmikanth

Answer: d

The Places of Worship Act, 1991, prohibits “conversion of any place of worship” and provides “for the maintenance of the religious character of any place of worship as it existed on the 15th day of August 1947, and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto”.

Hence, statement I is incorrect.

Section 3 of the Act bars the conversion of places of worship. It states, “No person shall convert any place of worship of any religious denomination or any section thereof into a place of worship of a different section of the same religious denomination or of a different religious denomination or any section thereof.”

Section 4(1) of the Act states that “the religious character of a place of worship existing on the 15th day of August, 1947 shall continue to be the same as it existed on that day”.

Section 4(2) of the Act further states that “any suit, appeal or other proceeding with respect to the conversion of the religious character of any place of worship, existing on the 15th day of August, 1947, is pending before any court, tribunal or other authority, the same shall abate, and no suit, appeal or other proceeding with respect to any such matter shall lie on or after such commencement in any court, tribunal or other authority, the same shall abate, and no suit, appeal or other proceeding with respect to any such matter shall lie on or after such commencement in any court, tribunal or other authority”.

However, suits, appeals and legal proceedings can be initiated with respect to the conversion of the religious character of any place of worship after the commencement of the Act, if the change of status took place after the cut-off date of August 15, 1947.

Hence, statement II is correct.

The original Gyanvapi mosque suit was filed in 1991 in the Varanasi district court for the restoration of the ancient temple at the site where the Gyanvapi mosque currently stands.

Section 5 of the Act stipulates that the particular law does not apply to Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid case or any suit, appeal or other proceeding relating to it.

Answer: a

Parole and furlough are two provision which are covered under Section – 432 of Criminal Procedure Code 1973.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

In case of parole, a specific justification is necessary while it is not in case of furlough.​

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Parole is the temporary release of the prisoner and same is furlough but parole is granted on the request of the prisoner and can be denied whereas furlough is a basic right of a prisoner.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Answer: a

Collegium system in India was introduced in Second Judge Case of 1993.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

In third Judge Case, 1998, Supreme court stated that the consultation process to be adopted by the CJI requires ‘consultation of plurality judges’. The CJI should consult a collegium of four senior most judges of the Supreme Court. Even if two judges give an adverse opinion, they should not send the recommendation to the government.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Answer: d

Interestingly, certain recommendations of the Committee were not accepted by the Congress Party and hence, not incorporated in the Constitution. These include:
1. The Parliament may provide for the imposition of such penalty or punishment as may be considered appropriate for any non-compliance with or refusal to observe any of the duties.

Hence, statement I is incorrect.

2. No law imposing such penalty or punishment shall be called in question in any court on the ground of infringement of any of Fundamental Rights or on the ground of repugnancy to any other provision of the Constitution.
3. Duty to pay taxes should also be a Fundamental Duty of the citizens.

Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental duties are also non-justiciable. The Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts. Moreover, there is not legal sanction against their violation. However, the Parliament is free to enforce them by suitable legislation.

Hence, statement II is correct.

Answer: a

Rafah is a Palestinian city in the southern Gaza Strip. It is the capital of the Rafah Governorate of the State of Palestine, located 30 kilometers south-west of Gaza City.

Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

Varzaqan is a city in the Central District of Varzaqan County East Azerbaijan province, Iran, serving as capital of both the county and the district. It is also the administrative center for Ozomdel-e Jonubi Rural District.

Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

Paletwa is one of the westernmost towns of Myanmar, in Chin State 18 kilometres from the border with Bangladesh.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.