INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024
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Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWho was the Congress President during the 15th session in Lucknow in December 1899, where the Congress demanded the cessation of the ‘drain of wealth’ from India to England?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Romesh Chunder Dutt was the President of the 15th session in Lucknow in December 1899. During this session, the Congress demanded the cessation of the ‘drain of wealth’ from India to England. This demand was consistent with Dutt’s own economic critique of British colonial rule, where he, along with Dadabhai Naoroji, highlighted the adverse economic impacts of colonial policies.
- Dadabhai Naoroji was a prominent leader in the Indian National Congress and presided over the 2nd session in Calcutta in 1886 and the 22nd session in Calcutta in 1906. Known as the “Grand Old Man of India,” he formulated the ‘drain theory’ which criticized British economic exploitation, but he did not preside over the 15th session in Lucknow in 1899.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Romesh Chunder Dutt was the President of the 15th session in Lucknow in December 1899. During this session, the Congress demanded the cessation of the ‘drain of wealth’ from India to England. This demand was consistent with Dutt’s own economic critique of British colonial rule, where he, along with Dadabhai Naoroji, highlighted the adverse economic impacts of colonial policies.
- Dadabhai Naoroji was a prominent leader in the Indian National Congress and presided over the 2nd session in Calcutta in 1886 and the 22nd session in Calcutta in 1906. Known as the “Grand Old Man of India,” he formulated the ‘drain theory’ which criticized British economic exploitation, but he did not preside over the 15th session in Lucknow in 1899.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Swami Vivekananda:
- He attended the Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago in 1893, where he gained international fame.
- He founded the Vedanta Society in New York City in 1900 to promote Indian spirituality.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Swami Vivekananda attended the Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago in 1893, where he gained international fame for his eloquent speech on Hinduism and universal brotherhood. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Swami Vivekananda did not found the Vedanta Society in New York City in 1900. The Vedanta Society was actually founded by Swami Vivekananda’s disciple, Swami Abhedananda, in 1897. The society aimed to propagate Vedanta philosophy in the United States. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Swami Vivekananda attended the Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago in 1893, where he gained international fame for his eloquent speech on Hinduism and universal brotherhood. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Swami Vivekananda did not found the Vedanta Society in New York City in 1900. The Vedanta Society was actually founded by Swami Vivekananda’s disciple, Swami Abhedananda, in 1897. The society aimed to propagate Vedanta philosophy in the United States. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- Hence, option (a) is correct.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWhat was the main grievance addressed by the Gurudwara Reform Movement?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Before 1920, Sikh Gurudwaras were governed by Udasi Sikh mahants who treated the Gurudwara offerings and income as their personal income. This led to widespread mismanagement and corruption, causing dissatisfaction among Sikhs. The movement aimed to free Gurudwaras from the control of these corrupt mahants and hand them over to a representative body of Sikhs.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Before 1920, Sikh Gurudwaras were governed by Udasi Sikh mahants who treated the Gurudwara offerings and income as their personal income. This led to widespread mismanagement and corruption, causing dissatisfaction among Sikhs. The movement aimed to free Gurudwaras from the control of these corrupt mahants and hand them over to a representative body of Sikhs.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following:
1. Savitrabhai Phule Founded the first girls’ school in Pune 2. Kamini Roy Founded the Arya Mahila Sabha 3. Swarnakumari Debi Started the Sakhi Samiti for women’s education 4. Lilabati Mitra Activist in the Ilbert Bill agitation How many of the pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Savitribai Phule, along with her husband Jyotirao Phule, established the first girls’ school in Pune in 1848 to promote education among girls. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
- Kamini Roy was active in the Ilbert Bill agitation, organising girls at the Bethune School to hold meetings and wear badges supporting the Bill. She worked with Banga Mahila Samiti in their social reform projects. She was a feminist at an age when merely getting educated was a taboo for a woman. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
- Swarnakumari deb imitating Ramabai’s Arya Mahila Samaj, in 1886, Swarnakumari Debi Rabindranath Tagore’s sister, started Sakhi Samiti (Women’s Friendship League) to spread knowledge among women and widows. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
- Lilabati Mitra’s activism was primarily focused on promoting widow remarriage and supporting the cause of women’s rights, but she was not known for her involvement in the Ilbert Bill agitation. Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Savitribai Phule, along with her husband Jyotirao Phule, established the first girls’ school in Pune in 1848 to promote education among girls. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
- Kamini Roy was active in the Ilbert Bill agitation, organising girls at the Bethune School to hold meetings and wear badges supporting the Bill. She worked with Banga Mahila Samiti in their social reform projects. She was a feminist at an age when merely getting educated was a taboo for a woman. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
- Swarnakumari deb imitating Ramabai’s Arya Mahila Samaj, in 1886, Swarnakumari Debi Rabindranath Tagore’s sister, started Sakhi Samiti (Women’s Friendship League) to spread knowledge among women and widows. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
- Lilabati Mitra’s activism was primarily focused on promoting widow remarriage and supporting the cause of women’s rights, but she was not known for her involvement in the Ilbert Bill agitation. Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding women’s organizations in India during the nineteenth century:
- The Banga Mahila Samaj aimed to spread knowledge among women and widows, advocating for their education and empowerment.
- The Aghorekamini Nari Samiti focused on self-help principles, providing training for women in healthcare and mobilizing against the ill-treatment of women workers by tea planters.
- The Mahila Seva Samaj primarily worked towards abolishing child marriage and purdah.
- The Satara Abalonnati Sabha was a social reform movement dedicated to addressing various societal issues, including women’s rights and education.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Banga Mahila Samaj: This organization aimed to spread knowledge among women and widows, advocating for their education and empowerment. It was formed with the goal of promoting women’s education and providing a support network for newly educated women. The Banga Mahila Samaj played a significant role in encouraging women’s literacy and breaking social barriers that restricted women’s access to education. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Aghorekamini Nari Samiti: This organization focused on self-help principles and provided training for women in healthcare. Additionally, it mobilized against the ill-treatment of women workers by tea planters. The Aghorekamini Nari Samiti was instrumental in empowering women by equipping them with skills in healthcare and advocating for their rights in the workplace, particularly in industries like tea plantations where women faced exploitation and abuse. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Mahila Seva Samaja is an educational institution in Bangalore, Karnataka, established by Parvatiamma Chandrashekar Iyer. It was founded for the upliftment of women and exclusively for the education of women, in 1913. It was officially named as Mahila Seva Samaja in 1915. The management council consisted of only women. It had very humble beginnings. Then in 1916, the then King of Mysore granted the society, about two acres of land to build a school. Since then it has grown into a sought-after institution for educating both boys and girls for elementary as well as high-school grades. Mahatma Gandhi visited the school in 1927. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Satara Abalonnati Sabha was a practical social reform movement dedicated to addressing various societal issues, including women’s rights and education. It aimed to bring about positive changes in society by tackling issues such as caste discrimination, gender inequality, and lack of access to education. While it focused on broader social reforms, it also advocated for the empowerment and upliftment of women. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Banga Mahila Samaj: This organization aimed to spread knowledge among women and widows, advocating for their education and empowerment. It was formed with the goal of promoting women’s education and providing a support network for newly educated women. The Banga Mahila Samaj played a significant role in encouraging women’s literacy and breaking social barriers that restricted women’s access to education. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Aghorekamini Nari Samiti: This organization focused on self-help principles and provided training for women in healthcare. Additionally, it mobilized against the ill-treatment of women workers by tea planters. The Aghorekamini Nari Samiti was instrumental in empowering women by equipping them with skills in healthcare and advocating for their rights in the workplace, particularly in industries like tea plantations where women faced exploitation and abuse. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Mahila Seva Samaja is an educational institution in Bangalore, Karnataka, established by Parvatiamma Chandrashekar Iyer. It was founded for the upliftment of women and exclusively for the education of women, in 1913. It was officially named as Mahila Seva Samaja in 1915. The management council consisted of only women. It had very humble beginnings. Then in 1916, the then King of Mysore granted the society, about two acres of land to build a school. Since then it has grown into a sought-after institution for educating both boys and girls for elementary as well as high-school grades. Mahatma Gandhi visited the school in 1927. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Satara Abalonnati Sabha was a practical social reform movement dedicated to addressing various societal issues, including women’s rights and education. It aimed to bring about positive changes in society by tackling issues such as caste discrimination, gender inequality, and lack of access to education. While it focused on broader social reforms, it also advocated for the empowerment and upliftment of women. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWhich community was primarily involved in the Tana Bhagat movement?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- During the colonial time period, tribal uprisings were taking place in different parts of India due to the local reasons and Tana Bhagat movement is one of them.
- This movement was religious in its initial stage, but gradually targeted the political objectives.
- This movement is considered as an extended part of the Birsa movement.
- Tana Bhagat movement was started in April 1914, under the leadership of Jatra Bhagat.
- Basically Tana Bhagat movement was started to stop the evil practices which were taking place in the Oraon community of Chotanagpur and to oppose the Jamindars policies which were exploiting the Oraon people directly.
- People adopted non-violence as their strategy to make this movement successful as the followers of this movement were influenced by Mahatma Gandhi.
- In April 1914 Jatra Bhagat announced, that he had a direct message from God Dharmesh (God of Oraon community) to revive the Oraon religion, because some bad practices like- exorcism, ghost hunter, animal sacrifices for God and alcoholism etc. have entered in their religion and somehow these practices should be abandoned. So these all religious issues provided the platform for movement in the initial stage.
- Jamindars were exploiting the Oraon community people by taking extra rent of lands. This kind of rebel behaviour of Jamindars agitated the Oraon community.
- Hence, option (c) is correct
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- During the colonial time period, tribal uprisings were taking place in different parts of India due to the local reasons and Tana Bhagat movement is one of them.
- This movement was religious in its initial stage, but gradually targeted the political objectives.
- This movement is considered as an extended part of the Birsa movement.
- Tana Bhagat movement was started in April 1914, under the leadership of Jatra Bhagat.
- Basically Tana Bhagat movement was started to stop the evil practices which were taking place in the Oraon community of Chotanagpur and to oppose the Jamindars policies which were exploiting the Oraon people directly.
- People adopted non-violence as their strategy to make this movement successful as the followers of this movement were influenced by Mahatma Gandhi.
- In April 1914 Jatra Bhagat announced, that he had a direct message from God Dharmesh (God of Oraon community) to revive the Oraon religion, because some bad practices like- exorcism, ghost hunter, animal sacrifices for God and alcoholism etc. have entered in their religion and somehow these practices should be abandoned. So these all religious issues provided the platform for movement in the initial stage.
- Jamindars were exploiting the Oraon community people by taking extra rent of lands. This kind of rebel behaviour of Jamindars agitated the Oraon community.
- Hence, option (c) is correct
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mappila Revolt:
- The Mappilas were the Muslim landlords inhabiting the Malabar region.
- Their grievances centred on lack of security of tenure, high rents, renewal fees and other oppressive exactions.
- There was widespread communal clashes during the revolt.
- The ‘Wagon Tragedy’ was the main trigger for the revolt.
Which of the above given statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Moplah rebellion, also known as the Mappila riots, of 1921: The name Mappilla is given to Malayali-speaking Muslims who reside along the entire length of the Malabar Coast of northern Kerala. Most of the landlords were Namboodiri Brahmins while most of the tenants were Mapillah Muslims. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- Fuelled by the fiery speeches by Muslim religious leaders and anti-British sentiments, the Mopillahs launched a violent rebellion. Their grievances centred on lack of security of tenure, high rents, renewal fees and other oppressive exactions. The Moplah movement merged with the ongoing Khilafat agitation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Numerous acts of violence were reported and a series of persecutions were committed both against the British and the Hindu landlords. While there are some who call it a case of religious fanaticism, there are others who look at it as an instance of struggle against British authority, and then there are others who perceive the Malabar rebellion to be a peasant revolt against unfair practices of the landlords.
- While historians continue to debate on the matter, the broad consensus on the episode notes it to have started off as a struggle against political power, which later took on a communal colour. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- In November 1921, 67 Moplah prisoners were killed when they were being transported in a closed freight wagon from Tirur to the Central Prison in Podanur. They died of suffocation. This event is called the Wagon Tragedy. This was an aftermath of the revolt, not the trigger. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Moplah rebellion, also known as the Mappila riots, of 1921: The name Mappilla is given to Malayali-speaking Muslims who reside along the entire length of the Malabar Coast of northern Kerala. Most of the landlords were Namboodiri Brahmins while most of the tenants were Mapillah Muslims. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- Fuelled by the fiery speeches by Muslim religious leaders and anti-British sentiments, the Mopillahs launched a violent rebellion. Their grievances centred on lack of security of tenure, high rents, renewal fees and other oppressive exactions. The Moplah movement merged with the ongoing Khilafat agitation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Numerous acts of violence were reported and a series of persecutions were committed both against the British and the Hindu landlords. While there are some who call it a case of religious fanaticism, there are others who look at it as an instance of struggle against British authority, and then there are others who perceive the Malabar rebellion to be a peasant revolt against unfair practices of the landlords.
- While historians continue to debate on the matter, the broad consensus on the episode notes it to have started off as a struggle against political power, which later took on a communal colour. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- In November 1921, 67 Moplah prisoners were killed when they were being transported in a closed freight wagon from Tirur to the Central Prison in Podanur. They died of suffocation. This event is called the Wagon Tragedy. This was an aftermath of the revolt, not the trigger. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWhy did Mahatma Gandhi call the proposals of Cripps mission “Post-dated Cheque drawn on a failing bank?”?
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Sir Stafford Cripps, a left-wing Labourite, was in charge of the Cripps mission. He was a member of the British war cabinet and the leader of the House of Commons. The major goal of the Cripps mission in 1942 was to enlist Indian support for British war activities.
- Gandhi called Cripps Mission proposals a “Post-dated Cheque drawn on a failing bank”. This was due to the promise of granting dominion status after the end of the Second World War. Congress wanted immediate independence .The offer of the “Dominion Status” was dead at that moment.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Sir Stafford Cripps, a left-wing Labourite, was in charge of the Cripps mission. He was a member of the British war cabinet and the leader of the House of Commons. The major goal of the Cripps mission in 1942 was to enlist Indian support for British war activities.
- Gandhi called Cripps Mission proposals a “Post-dated Cheque drawn on a failing bank”. This was due to the promise of granting dominion status after the end of the Second World War. Congress wanted immediate independence .The offer of the “Dominion Status” was dead at that moment.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Bhagavati Charan Vohra, consider the following statements:
- He was a chief pamphleteer and propagandist among the most important ideologues of the revolutionary movement.
- He authored “The Philosophy of the Bomb”, which features a debate between revolutionaries and Mahatma Gandhi.
- He was among one of the founders of Naujawan Bharat Sabha.
- He died during the Kakori train robbery.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Bhagwati Charan Vohra is among the lesser-known personages from the Bhagat Singh era of the Indian revolutionary movement. He was a chief pamphleteer and propagandist and among the most important ideologues of the movement. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Though not as popular as Singh and Chandrashekhar Azad, he co-wrote three significant ideological/organisational documents—the manifestos of the Naujawan Bharat Sabha and Hindustan Socialist Republican Association and the most famous document of the HSRA, “The Philosophy of the Bomb”, which features a debate between revolutionaries and Mahatma Gandhi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Vohra, Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev formed the Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926, was elected its propaganda secretary. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Vohra often used to say: “I want to die in such a place and manner that no one may know of it and shed tears”. In a cruel tragedy, history heeded his desire. He died on 28 May 1930 while testing a bomb near the Ravi River. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Bhagwati Charan Vohra is among the lesser-known personages from the Bhagat Singh era of the Indian revolutionary movement. He was a chief pamphleteer and propagandist and among the most important ideologues of the movement. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- Though not as popular as Singh and Chandrashekhar Azad, he co-wrote three significant ideological/organisational documents—the manifestos of the Naujawan Bharat Sabha and Hindustan Socialist Republican Association and the most famous document of the HSRA, “The Philosophy of the Bomb”, which features a debate between revolutionaries and Mahatma Gandhi. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Vohra, Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev formed the Naujawan Bharat Sabha in 1926, was elected its propaganda secretary. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- Vohra often used to say: “I want to die in such a place and manner that no one may know of it and shed tears”. In a cruel tragedy, history heeded his desire. He died on 28 May 1930 while testing a bomb near the Ravi River. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
- Electronic Voting Machine was introduced in India to conduct free and fair elections. Hence, the Indian Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and introduced Section 61-A which lays down the provisions for the use of Electronic Voting Machine by the Election Commission of India to Conduct General and State election in India. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- An Electronic Voting Machine consists of two Units – a Control Unit and a Balloting Unit – joined by a five-meter cable. An EVM is a stand-alone setup, not connected to any network either through wired or wireless technology.
- The Control Unit is with the Presiding Officer or a Polling Officer and the Balloting Unit is placed inside the voting compartment. Instead of issuing a ballot paper, the Polling Officer in-charge of the Control Unit will press the Ballot Button. This will enable the voter to cast his vote by pressing the blue button on the Balloting Unit against the candidate and symbol of his choice. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- Booth-capturing means taking away or damaging of ballot boxes or ballot papers, this cannot be prevented by the use of EVMs as EVMs can also be forcibly taken away or damaged by miscreants. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWhat influence did the Karachi Resolution have on the Indian Constitution?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The Karachi Resolution had a significant influence on the Indian Constitution, particularly in shaping the Directive Principles of State Policy. These principles, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, provide guidelines for the state to achieve socio-economic justice and welfare of its citizens. The socio-economic provisions outlined in the Karachi Resolution, such as state ownership of key industries, relief from agricultural indebtedness, and protection of workers’ rights, reflected the Congress’s vision for a more equitable and just society.
- While the Indian Constitution ultimately adopted a mix of socialist and liberal principles, the influence of the Karachi Resolution can be seen in the emphasis placed on promoting social and economic welfare, ensuring justice, and reducing inequalities.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The Karachi Resolution had a significant influence on the Indian Constitution, particularly in shaping the Directive Principles of State Policy. These principles, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, provide guidelines for the state to achieve socio-economic justice and welfare of its citizens. The socio-economic provisions outlined in the Karachi Resolution, such as state ownership of key industries, relief from agricultural indebtedness, and protection of workers’ rights, reflected the Congress’s vision for a more equitable and just society.
- While the Indian Constitution ultimately adopted a mix of socialist and liberal principles, the influence of the Karachi Resolution can be seen in the emphasis placed on promoting social and economic welfare, ensuring justice, and reducing inequalities.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about unclassed forests.
- Unclassed forests are areas of land that exhibit forest-like characteristics but have not been officially classified or designated as forests by authorities.
- Unclass forests cannot be owned by government bodies.
- Unclassed forests enjoy no legal protection.
How many of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification: Unclassed forests are areas of land that exhibit forest-like characteristics but have not been officially classified or designated as forests by authorities. Despite lacking formal recognition, these areas often possess vegetation and ecosystem features typical of forests. They may be owned by various entities, including government bodies, communities, or private individuals. Varying state definitions of forests result in estimates of deemed forests ranging from 1% to 28% of India’s official forest area.
Despite their unclassified status, these forests were afforded legal protection under the SC order (in Godavarman case, 1996). As per this landmark case and the subsequent Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980, all types of forests, regardless of ownership or notification status, were to be included under forest conservation laws.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification: Unclassed forests are areas of land that exhibit forest-like characteristics but have not been officially classified or designated as forests by authorities. Despite lacking formal recognition, these areas often possess vegetation and ecosystem features typical of forests. They may be owned by various entities, including government bodies, communities, or private individuals. Varying state definitions of forests result in estimates of deemed forests ranging from 1% to 28% of India’s official forest area.
Despite their unclassified status, these forests were afforded legal protection under the SC order (in Godavarman case, 1996). As per this landmark case and the subsequent Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980, all types of forests, regardless of ownership or notification status, were to be included under forest conservation laws.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsThe RBI issued a Draft Master Direction on Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) in 2024, stipulating those entities must obtain prior authorization or registration from the RBI to operate an ETP. This draft regulation is supposed to apply to which of these securities?
- Money market instruments
- Foreign exchange instruments
- Derivatives
How many of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: The RBI released a draft Master Direction for Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs), seeking feedback from stakeholders by May 31.
What are ETPs?
Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are electronic systems that facilitate the trading of various financial instruments such as securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments, derivatives, and more. Unlike recognized stock exchanges, ETPs operate as electronic platforms where buyers and sellers can execute trades electronically.
In India, examples of ETPs include: NSE NOW (NSE’s Online Trading System), BSE Bolt, Currency ETPs, MCX (Multi Commodity Exchange) and NCDEX (National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange)
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: The RBI released a draft Master Direction for Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs), seeking feedback from stakeholders by May 31.
What are ETPs?
Electronic Trading Platforms (ETPs) are electronic systems that facilitate the trading of various financial instruments such as securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments, derivatives, and more. Unlike recognized stock exchanges, ETPs operate as electronic platforms where buyers and sellers can execute trades electronically.
In India, examples of ETPs include: NSE NOW (NSE’s Online Trading System), BSE Bolt, Currency ETPs, MCX (Multi Commodity Exchange) and NCDEX (National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange)
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
1.The Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) is a financing agency for Renewable projects in India.
- It enjoys the ‘Navratna status’, given by the Department of Public Enterprises, Ministry of Finance, and it is not dependent on budgetary support or government guarantees.
- IREDA is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Finance.
- IREDA was initially established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution.
How many of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification: Recently, IREDA (Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency), the financing agency for Renewable projects in India, was conferred with ‘Navratna status’ by the Department of Public Enterprises (Ministry of Finance)
IREDA is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. It was established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987.
This status grants greater autonomy and facilitates quicker decision-making, attracting more investments and skilled talent. As a Navratna PSU, IREDA can operate more efficiently, compete effectively, and achieve sustainable growth.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification: Recently, IREDA (Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency), the financing agency for Renewable projects in India, was conferred with ‘Navratna status’ by the Department of Public Enterprises (Ministry of Finance)
IREDA is under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. It was established as a Non-Banking Financial Institution in 1987.
This status grants greater autonomy and facilitates quicker decision-making, attracting more investments and skilled talent. As a Navratna PSU, IREDA can operate more efficiently, compete effectively, and achieve sustainable growth.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following articles of the constitution grants Indian citizens the fundamental right to practice any profession and carry on any occupation, trade, or business in India?
Correct
Solution: c)
Justification:
Incorrect
Solution: c)
Justification:
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- India ranks as the world’s largest steel-producing country.
- India’s steel industry presently represents nearly one-third of total carbon dioxide emissions from industries in India.
- The Steel Scrap Recycling Policy of 2019, the Perform, Achieve, and Trade (PAT) scheme under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency aim to standardize the steel sector in India.
How many of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Justification:
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Justification:
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
- India is a founding member of the organisation.
- The Council of Heads of States (CHS) is the supreme decision-making body of the SCO.
- The official languages of the SCO are Russian, Chinese and English
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization is a permanent intergovernmental international organization established on June 15, 2001 in Shanghai (PRC) by the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan and the Republic of Uzbekistan. Its predecessor was the mechanism of the Shanghai Five.
Currently, the SCO countries includes:
9 Member States — the Republic of India, the Islamic Republic of Iran, the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Islamic Republic of Pakistan, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, the Republic of Uzbekistan;
3 Observer states – the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan, the Republic of Belarus, Mongolia. In 2022, at the Samarkand SCO Summit, the process of raising the status of the Republic of Belarus within the Organization to the level of a member state has begun;
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The supreme decision-making body of the SCO is the Council of Heads of States (CHS). It meets once a year and decide upon all the important issues of the Organization.
Hence, statement 2 is correct
The Council of Heads of Government (Prime Ministers) (CHG) meets once a year to discuss the strategy of multilateral cooperation and priority areas within the Organization, determine fundamental and topical issues in economic and other spheres, and approve the budget of the SCO.
The official languages of the SCO are Russian and Chinese.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
The Organization has 2 standing bodies — the Secretariat in Beijing and the Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) in Tashkent.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization is a permanent intergovernmental international organization established on June 15, 2001 in Shanghai (PRC) by the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan and the Republic of Uzbekistan. Its predecessor was the mechanism of the Shanghai Five.
Currently, the SCO countries includes:
9 Member States — the Republic of India, the Islamic Republic of Iran, the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People’s Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Islamic Republic of Pakistan, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, the Republic of Uzbekistan;
3 Observer states – the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan, the Republic of Belarus, Mongolia. In 2022, at the Samarkand SCO Summit, the process of raising the status of the Republic of Belarus within the Organization to the level of a member state has begun;
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The supreme decision-making body of the SCO is the Council of Heads of States (CHS). It meets once a year and decide upon all the important issues of the Organization.
Hence, statement 2 is correct
The Council of Heads of Government (Prime Ministers) (CHG) meets once a year to discuss the strategy of multilateral cooperation and priority areas within the Organization, determine fundamental and topical issues in economic and other spheres, and approve the budget of the SCO.
The official languages of the SCO are Russian and Chinese.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
The Organization has 2 standing bodies — the Secretariat in Beijing and the Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) in Tashkent.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Chandrayaan-3 mission:
- It was launched by the launch vehicle named PSLV-C57.
- India is the first nation to soft land on the Moon’s south pole.
- The Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA) measures lunar quakes near the landing site, analyzing the composition of the Moon’s crust and mantle through seismic activity.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Chandrayaan-3 mission’s successful soft landing on the Moon marks India’s significant achievement, becoming the fourth nation in history to reach the lunar surface.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is incorrect.
Instruments and Experiments on Chandrayaan 3:
Lander Experiments:
- Radio Anatomy of Moon Bound Hypersensitive Ionosphere and Atmosphere (RAMBHA): This experiment studies the electrons and ions near the moon’s surface, investigating their behaviour and changes over time.
- Chandra’s Surface Thermo Physical Experiment (ChaSTE): ChaSTE focuses on the thermal properties of the lunar surface near the polar region, contributing to our understanding of temperature variations.
Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA): ILSA measures lunar quakes near the landing site, analyzing the composition of the Moon’s crust and mantle through seismic activity. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- LASER Retroreflector Array (LRA): This passive experiment, provided by NASA, acts as a target for lasers, enabling precise measurements for future missions.
Rover Experiments:
- LASER-Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS): LIBS determines the chemical and mineral composition of the lunar surface, offering insights into its geological makeup.
- Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS): APXS identifies elements like magnesium, aluminium, silicon, and more in the lunar soil and rocks, contributing to our understanding of lunar materials.
About Luna 25: Russia’s Lunar Mission:
Luna 25 was a Russian lunar mission launched by Roscosmos on August 11, 2023. The mission aimed to soft-land a lander near the moon’s south pole to study moondust, moon soil, and the atmosphere. However, the mission encountered a glitch and crashed on the moon’s surface on August 20, ending in failure.
About LVM3:
Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3) (previously known as GSLV-MK III) is a three-stage launch vehicle consisting of two solid propellants S200 strap-ons on its sides and a core stage comprising L110 liquid stage and C25 cryogenic stage. The vehicle is also dubbed as one of the heaviest for its ability to carry satellites up to 8,000 kg.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Chandrayaan-3 mission’s successful soft landing on the Moon marks India’s significant achievement, becoming the fourth nation in history to reach the lunar surface.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is incorrect.
Instruments and Experiments on Chandrayaan 3:
Lander Experiments:
- Radio Anatomy of Moon Bound Hypersensitive Ionosphere and Atmosphere (RAMBHA): This experiment studies the electrons and ions near the moon’s surface, investigating their behaviour and changes over time.
- Chandra’s Surface Thermo Physical Experiment (ChaSTE): ChaSTE focuses on the thermal properties of the lunar surface near the polar region, contributing to our understanding of temperature variations.
Instrument for Lunar Seismic Activity (ILSA): ILSA measures lunar quakes near the landing site, analyzing the composition of the Moon’s crust and mantle through seismic activity. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- LASER Retroreflector Array (LRA): This passive experiment, provided by NASA, acts as a target for lasers, enabling precise measurements for future missions.
Rover Experiments:
- LASER-Induced Breakdown Spectroscope (LIBS): LIBS determines the chemical and mineral composition of the lunar surface, offering insights into its geological makeup.
- Alpha Particle X-ray Spectrometer (APXS): APXS identifies elements like magnesium, aluminium, silicon, and more in the lunar soil and rocks, contributing to our understanding of lunar materials.
About Luna 25: Russia’s Lunar Mission:
Luna 25 was a Russian lunar mission launched by Roscosmos on August 11, 2023. The mission aimed to soft-land a lander near the moon’s south pole to study moondust, moon soil, and the atmosphere. However, the mission encountered a glitch and crashed on the moon’s surface on August 20, ending in failure.
About LVM3:
Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3) (previously known as GSLV-MK III) is a three-stage launch vehicle consisting of two solid propellants S200 strap-ons on its sides and a core stage comprising L110 liquid stage and C25 cryogenic stage. The vehicle is also dubbed as one of the heaviest for its ability to carry satellites up to 8,000 kg.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Millets in India:
- They have higher Glycaemic Index (GI) compared to cereals.
- India is the largest producer as well as the largest exporter of millets in the world
- They are small-seeded grasses belonging to the botanical family Poaceae.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Indian millets are a group of nutritiously rich, drought tolerant and mostly grown in the arid and semi-arid regions of India. They are small-seeded grasses belonging to the botanical family Poaceae. They constitute an important source of food and fodder for millions of resource-poor farmers and play a vital role in ecological and economic security of India. These millets are also known as “coarse cereals” or “cereals of the poor”.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
They are also gluten-free and have a low glycemic index, making them ideal for people with celiac disease or diabetes.
India is the largest producer of millets in the world and Ukraine is largest exporter of millet in the world followed by US and India.
India is the largest producer as well as the largest exporter of cereal products in the world. India’s export of cereals stood at Rs. 111,062.37 Crore / 13,857.95 USD Millions during the year 2022-23. Rice (including Basmati and Non-Basmati) occupy the major share in India’s total cereals export with 80% (in value terms) during the same period. Whereas, other cereals including wheat represent only a 20 % share of total cereals exported from India during this period.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Benefits of Millets: - . Millets are highly adaptive to a wide range of ecological conditions and thrive well in rain-fed; arid climate and they have minimal requirement of water, fertilizers, and pesticides.
- . Health-promoting nutritious crop: Compared to other cereals they have superior micronutrient profile and bioactive flavonoids.
- . Millets have a low Glycaemic Index (GI) and also associatied with the prevention of diabetes.
The glycaemic index (GI) is a way of ranking carbohydrate-containing foods based on how slowly or quickly they are digested and increase blood glucose levels over a period of time – usually 2 hours.
The GI uses glucose or white bread as a reference food – it has a GI score of 100. Carbohydrate-containing foods are then compared with this reference to assign their GI. This ensures all foods compared have the same amount of carbohydrate, gram for gram.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- . They are good source of minerals like iron, zinc, and calcium.
- . Millets are gluten-free and can be consumed by celiac disease patients.
- . Millet has a beneficial effect on the management and prevention of hyperlipidemia and risk of CVD.
- . Millets are found to be helpful with the reduction of weight, BMI, and high blood pressure.
- . In India, Millet is generally consumed with legumes, which creates mutual supplementation of protein, increases the amino acid content, and enhances the overall digestibility of protein.
- . Millet based value-added products in ready to cook, ready to eat category are easily accessible and convenient to the urban population.
- . Millets are used for dual purposes as food as well as fodder, which make it more farming efficient.
- . Millet cultivation helps to reduce the carbon footprint.
The Indian government had suggested to the united nation for declaring the year 2023 as the International Year of Millets (IYOM). India got the support of 72 other countries, on 5th March 2021, United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets. https://apeda.gov.in/apedawebsite/SubHead_Products/Indian_Millets.htm
Incorrect
Solution: A
Indian millets are a group of nutritiously rich, drought tolerant and mostly grown in the arid and semi-arid regions of India. They are small-seeded grasses belonging to the botanical family Poaceae. They constitute an important source of food and fodder for millions of resource-poor farmers and play a vital role in ecological and economic security of India. These millets are also known as “coarse cereals” or “cereals of the poor”.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
They are also gluten-free and have a low glycemic index, making them ideal for people with celiac disease or diabetes.
India is the largest producer of millets in the world and Ukraine is largest exporter of millet in the world followed by US and India.
India is the largest producer as well as the largest exporter of cereal products in the world. India’s export of cereals stood at Rs. 111,062.37 Crore / 13,857.95 USD Millions during the year 2022-23. Rice (including Basmati and Non-Basmati) occupy the major share in India’s total cereals export with 80% (in value terms) during the same period. Whereas, other cereals including wheat represent only a 20 % share of total cereals exported from India during this period.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Benefits of Millets: - . Millets are highly adaptive to a wide range of ecological conditions and thrive well in rain-fed; arid climate and they have minimal requirement of water, fertilizers, and pesticides.
- . Health-promoting nutritious crop: Compared to other cereals they have superior micronutrient profile and bioactive flavonoids.
- . Millets have a low Glycaemic Index (GI) and also associatied with the prevention of diabetes.
The glycaemic index (GI) is a way of ranking carbohydrate-containing foods based on how slowly or quickly they are digested and increase blood glucose levels over a period of time – usually 2 hours.
The GI uses glucose or white bread as a reference food – it has a GI score of 100. Carbohydrate-containing foods are then compared with this reference to assign their GI. This ensures all foods compared have the same amount of carbohydrate, gram for gram.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- . They are good source of minerals like iron, zinc, and calcium.
- . Millets are gluten-free and can be consumed by celiac disease patients.
- . Millet has a beneficial effect on the management and prevention of hyperlipidemia and risk of CVD.
- . Millets are found to be helpful with the reduction of weight, BMI, and high blood pressure.
- . In India, Millet is generally consumed with legumes, which creates mutual supplementation of protein, increases the amino acid content, and enhances the overall digestibility of protein.
- . Millet based value-added products in ready to cook, ready to eat category are easily accessible and convenient to the urban population.
- . Millets are used for dual purposes as food as well as fodder, which make it more farming efficient.
- . Millet cultivation helps to reduce the carbon footprint.
The Indian government had suggested to the united nation for declaring the year 2023 as the International Year of Millets (IYOM). India got the support of 72 other countries, on 5th March 2021, United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets. https://apeda.gov.in/apedawebsite/SubHead_Products/Indian_Millets.htm
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsThe “Bastille Day” signifies which of the following events?
Correct
Solution: D
Bastille Day is a holiday celebrating the storming of the Bastille—a military fortress and prison—on July 14, 1789, in a violent uprising that helped usher in the French Revolution. Besides holding gunpowder and other supplies valuable to revolutionaries, the Bastille also symbolized the callous tyranny of the French monarchy, especially King Louis XVI and his queen, Marie Antoinette.”
Incorrect
Solution: D
Bastille Day is a holiday celebrating the storming of the Bastille—a military fortress and prison—on July 14, 1789, in a violent uprising that helped usher in the French Revolution. Besides holding gunpowder and other supplies valuable to revolutionaries, the Bastille also symbolized the callous tyranny of the French monarchy, especially King Louis XVI and his queen, Marie Antoinette.”
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsHow many of the following nations are members of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC):
- Myanmar
- India
- Cambodia
- Thailand
- Nepal
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: C
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization that was established on 06 June 1997 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration. Initially known as BIST-EC (Bangladesh-India-Sri Lanka-Thailand Economic Cooperation), the organisation is now known as BIMSTEC and comprises seven Member States with the admission of Myanmar on 22 December 1997, and Bhutan and Nepal in February 2004. On 06 June 1997, representatives of the Governments of Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand came together in Bangkok, and signed the ‘Declaration on the Establishment of the Bangladesh–India–Sri Lanka–Thailand Economic Cooperation (BIST-EC)’
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization that was established on 06 June 1997 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration. Initially known as BIST-EC (Bangladesh-India-Sri Lanka-Thailand Economic Cooperation), the organisation is now known as BIMSTEC and comprises seven Member States with the admission of Myanmar on 22 December 1997, and Bhutan and Nepal in February 2004. On 06 June 1997, representatives of the Governments of Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand came together in Bangkok, and signed the ‘Declaration on the Establishment of the Bangladesh–India–Sri Lanka–Thailand Economic Cooperation (BIST-EC)’
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Global Wage Report is a flagship report of “Oxfam India” Organisation that shows the purchasing power of households.
- Government of India has registered Oxfam India as a non-profit organization under the Indian Companies Act, 2013.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The Global Wage Report is a flagship report of the International Labour Organisation (ILO). The Global Wage Report shows that wages and the purchasing power of households have been dented considerably during the past three years, first by the COVID-19 pandemic.
India’s growing inequalities based on caste, religion, gender, class, and geographic location are being worryingly replicated in the digital space, according to Oxfam India’s latest ‘India Inequality Report 2022: Digital Divide’.
The report highlights economic inequality as a key driver of the digital divide.
Statement 2 is correct: Government of India has registered Oxfam India as a non-profit organization under Section 8 of the Indian Companies Act, 2013.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The Global Wage Report is a flagship report of the International Labour Organisation (ILO). The Global Wage Report shows that wages and the purchasing power of households have been dented considerably during the past three years, first by the COVID-19 pandemic.
India’s growing inequalities based on caste, religion, gender, class, and geographic location are being worryingly replicated in the digital space, according to Oxfam India’s latest ‘India Inequality Report 2022: Digital Divide’.
The report highlights economic inequality as a key driver of the digital divide.
Statement 2 is correct: Government of India has registered Oxfam India as a non-profit organization under Section 8 of the Indian Companies Act, 2013.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following statements can be best associated with the Rotterdam Convention?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: The Rotterdam Convention helps Parties to protect themselves against unwanted imports of hazardous chemicals.
- It is a global system open to all countries that allows the exchange of information between countries on trade in hazardous chemicals.
- Therefore, its effective implementation protects people from adverse impact of chemicals at the global level.
The Basel Convention is based on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal.
The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants.
The Geneva Conventions and their Additional Protocols are at the core of international humanitarian law, the body of international law that regulates the conduct of armed conflict and seeks to limit its effects.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: The Rotterdam Convention helps Parties to protect themselves against unwanted imports of hazardous chemicals.
- It is a global system open to all countries that allows the exchange of information between countries on trade in hazardous chemicals.
- Therefore, its effective implementation protects people from adverse impact of chemicals at the global level.
The Basel Convention is based on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal.
The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants.
The Geneva Conventions and their Additional Protocols are at the core of international humanitarian law, the body of international law that regulates the conduct of armed conflict and seeks to limit its effects.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Roche limit is a mathematically determined distance beyond which the planetary rings are not supposed to exist.
Statement-II:
The Roche limit does not exist between the Earth and its moon as it applies only to the Jovian planets like Saturn.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Astronomers have recently found a ring around a dwarf planet, located in the Kuiper Belt at the solar system’s edge, called Quaoar.
- The ring is positioned much further away from the planet than is usual and defies theoretical explanations.
- Statement-I is correct: According to the study, the ring lies far away from the Roche limit which is a mathematically determined distance beyond which rings aren’t supposed to exist.
- Statement-II is incorrect: The Roche limit doesn’t exist between just the Earth and the moon but it is also applicable to any planet and the celestial bodies around it.
- For instance, Saturn. The beautiful rings that you see around the planet are within the Roche limit and therefore, there are no moons in that area
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Astronomers have recently found a ring around a dwarf planet, located in the Kuiper Belt at the solar system’s edge, called Quaoar.
- The ring is positioned much further away from the planet than is usual and defies theoretical explanations.
- Statement-I is correct: According to the study, the ring lies far away from the Roche limit which is a mathematically determined distance beyond which rings aren’t supposed to exist.
- Statement-II is incorrect: The Roche limit doesn’t exist between just the Earth and the moon but it is also applicable to any planet and the celestial bodies around it.
- For instance, Saturn. The beautiful rings that you see around the planet are within the Roche limit and therefore, there are no moons in that area
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Kaziranga National Park:
- It is the single largest undisturbed area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain.
- It has been declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.
- It is located at the junction of the Australasia and Indo-Asian flyway.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Kaziranga National Park represents one of the last unmodified natural areas in the north-eastern region of India. It is located in the State of Assam as the single largest undisturbed and representative area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain.
Statement 2 is correct: In the year 1985, the park was declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO. Along with the iconic Greater one-horned rhinoceros, the park is the breeding ground of elephants, wild water buffalo, and swamp deer.
The park is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for the conservation of avifaunal species.
Statement 3 is correct: The park’s location at the junction of the Australasia and Indo-Asian flyway means that the park’s wetlands play a crucial role for the conservation of globally threatened migratory bird species.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Kaziranga National Park represents one of the last unmodified natural areas in the north-eastern region of India. It is located in the State of Assam as the single largest undisturbed and representative area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain.
Statement 2 is correct: In the year 1985, the park was declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO. Along with the iconic Greater one-horned rhinoceros, the park is the breeding ground of elephants, wild water buffalo, and swamp deer.
The park is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for the conservation of avifaunal species.
Statement 3 is correct: The park’s location at the junction of the Australasia and Indo-Asian flyway means that the park’s wetlands play a crucial role for the conservation of globally threatened migratory bird species.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- It is located on the Balkan Peninsula in South Western Europe.
- It is positioned in the Northern and Western hemispheres of the Earth.
- It shares its maritime borders with Spain and Morocco.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct about the country, Portugal?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Portugal is located on the Iberian Peninsula, in South Western Europe.
- The term “Balkan Countries” collectively refers to those countries that are situated entirely or partially within the Balkan Peninsula.
- The countries that are entirely located within the Balkan Peninsula include North Macedonia, Kosovo, Montenegro, Bulgaria, Albania, and Bosnia and Herzegovina (not Portugal).
Statement 2 is correct: Portugal is geographically positioned in the Northern and Western hemispheres of the Earth.
Situated in the westernmost part of Europe, Portugal is bordered by Spain in the north and east; and by Atlantic Ocean in the south and west.
The small archipelagos of Azores and Madeira are in the south and southwest of Portugal in the Atlantic Ocean.
Statement 3 is not correct: Portugal shares its maritime borders with Morocco (not spain).
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: Portugal is located on the Iberian Peninsula, in South Western Europe.
- The term “Balkan Countries” collectively refers to those countries that are situated entirely or partially within the Balkan Peninsula.
- The countries that are entirely located within the Balkan Peninsula include North Macedonia, Kosovo, Montenegro, Bulgaria, Albania, and Bosnia and Herzegovina (not Portugal).
Statement 2 is correct: Portugal is geographically positioned in the Northern and Western hemispheres of the Earth.
Situated in the westernmost part of Europe, Portugal is bordered by Spain in the north and east; and by Atlantic Ocean in the south and west.
The small archipelagos of Azores and Madeira are in the south and southwest of Portugal in the Atlantic Ocean.
Statement 3 is not correct: Portugal shares its maritime borders with Morocco (not spain).
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsSince Malcolm Gladwell’s book, Outliers, popularized the concept, many now believe that to become world-class in a skill, they must complete 10,000 hours of deliberate practice in order to beat the competition, going as deep as possible into one field. Modern polymaths like Elon Musk, Steve Jobs go against the grain of this popular advice, building atypical combinations of skills and knowledge across fields and then integrating them to create breakthrough ideas and even brand new fields and industries where there is little competition.
Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?
Correct
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
A is wrong as the passage is talking about polymaths which can’t not be generalized for specialists as well. B is wrong as being a polymath was useful even in earlier years as is evident by the examples. C is correct based on the reading of the passage.
Incorrect
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
A is wrong as the passage is talking about polymaths which can’t not be generalized for specialists as well. B is wrong as being a polymath was useful even in earlier years as is evident by the examples. C is correct based on the reading of the passage.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThere are three pipes A,B and C, where A and B are inlet pipes while C is outlet pipe. Find the time taken to fill or empty the tank if A and C are opened.
Statement I: Pipes A and B are opened together can fill the tank in 24 min. while and pipe C is 50% less efficient than pipe B.
Statement II: Capacity of tank is 960 litres and rate of flow of pipe B is 24 litres/min.
Correct
Answer: A
Combining these two Statement I and II, we get
1/A + 1/B = 1/24
=> 1/A + 1/40 = 1/24
=> A = 60 minutes
Time taken by pipe C to fill the tank = 40/0.5 = 80 min.
Required time = (60*80)/(80 – 60) = 240 minutes
Both the statements are necessary.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Combining these two Statement I and II, we get
1/A + 1/B = 1/24
=> 1/A + 1/40 = 1/24
=> A = 60 minutes
Time taken by pipe C to fill the tank = 40/0.5 = 80 min.
Required time = (60*80)/(80 – 60) = 240 minutes
Both the statements are necessary.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsIf the difference between the CI and SI on a sum of money at 5% per annum for 2 years is Rs.15. Find the Simple Interest ?
Correct
Answer: D
15 =P*( 5/100)^2
P = Rs 6000
SI =(6000*5*2)/100 = Rs 600
Incorrect
Answer: D
15 =P*( 5/100)^2
P = Rs 6000
SI =(6000*5*2)/100 = Rs 600
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThree persons covers a certain distance from starting point L. Rakesh starts walking towards east from point L and walks 5 m to reach point Z. From point Z, he walks 8 m north direction and then he takes a left turn and walks 9 m to reach at point N. Rahul starts walking in west direction and walks 8 m to reach point W. From point W he takes right turn and walks 5 m to reach point P. From point P he starts walking in east direction and walks 9 m to reach at point C. Mani start walking in north direction and walks 3 m and reach at point V then takes right turn and walks certain distance to reach at point I from point I, he starts walking in north direction to reach at point C.
In which direction point P with respect to the starting point?
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsNeelaksh is standing on a bridge which is 180 m long. He finds that a train crosses the bridge in 20 seconds but himself in 8 seconds. Find the speed of the train?
Correct
Answer: A
A/8 =( A + 180) / 20 = 20A = 8(A + 180) = A = 120.
Length of the train = 120 m.
Speed of the train = [120/8]m/sec
=[120/8] * 18/5kmph = 54 kmph.
Incorrect
Answer: A
A/8 =( A + 180) / 20 = 20A = 8(A + 180) = A = 120.
Length of the train = 120 m.
Speed of the train = [120/8]m/sec
=[120/8] * 18/5kmph = 54 kmph.
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