UPSC CSE Prelims 2023 Solutions with detailed explanation

In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?

(a) Andhra

(b) Gandhara

(d) Magadha

Solution: (a)

Dhanyakataka is a town in Andhra Pradesh near present day Amaravati, where Shakyamuni Buddha taught the Heart Essence form of the Kalachakra Dharma to the Shambala kings.

See https://www.wisdomlib.org/history/compilation/triveni-journal/d/doc72091.html for more details concerning the interesting history of the region.

With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements :

1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Solution: (b)

The term Stupa finds mention in various Hindu texts such as the Rigveda, Atharvaveda, Vajasaneyi Samhita, Taittriya Samhita, in the Panchavimsata Brahmana. So, S1 is incorrect.

Rest two are correct. Stupas are commonly known to house relics and are used as a votive and commemorative structure.

With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as

(a) capital cities

(b) ports

(d) shrines of Jain Tirthankaras

Solution: (b)

Korkai was the port city of early Pandyas situated on the banks of the Thamirabarani near Bay of Bengal. It finds mention in the “Periplus of the Erythrean Sea”, a maritime guide written in the 1^st CE.

Poompuhar in Tamil Nadu was a flourishing ancient port city, known as Kaveri Poompattinam, which also served as the capital of the Early Chola kings in Tamilakam.

Kodungallur, a town and municipality in Thrissur, Kerala, was known in ancient times as Muchiri, Muziris and Muyirikkodu, among other names. The most popular name of all is the one called by Roman and Greek Traders, Muziris.

Which one of the following explains the practice of ‘Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems?

(a) Kings employing women bodyguards.

(b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters

(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

Solution: (d)

Vatakkiruttal, also Vadakiruthal and vadakiruttal, was a Tamil ritual of fasting till death. It was especially widespread during the Sangam age. The Tamil kings, in order to save their honour, and prestige, were prepared to meet their death facing North (‘Vatakkiruttal’), and never would they turn their back in battle. It was a Tamil martial. This was either done alone or as a group with the supporters of the captured king.

Consider the following dynasties:

1. Hoysala
2. Gahadavala
3. Kakatiya
4. Yadava

How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Solution: (d)

The Hoysala Empire ruled parts of southern India between the 10th and 14th centuries.

Gahadavala dynasty ruled North India between the second half of the 11th century and the mid-13th century. It illustrated all the features of early medieval north Indian polity—dynastic hostilities and alliances, feudal state structure, absolute dependence on Brahmanical social ideology, and vulnerability in the face of external aggressions.

Yadavas and Kakatiyas.

Kakatiyas ruled most of eastern Deccan region in present-day India between 12th and 14th centuries. Their territory comprised much of the present-day Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, and parts of eastern Karnataka, northern Tamil Nadu, and southern Odisha.

The Yadavas initially ruled as feudatories of the Western Chalukyas. Around the middle of the 12th century, as the Chalukya power waned, the Yadava king Bhillama V declared independence. The Yadava kingdom reached its peak under Simhana II, and flourished until the early 14th century, when it was annexed by the Khalji dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate in 1308 CE.

With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs:

Literary work:	Author
Devichandragupta	Bilhana
Hammira-Mahakavya	Nayachandra Suri
Milinda-panha	Nagarjuna
Nitivakyamrita	Somadeva Suri

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Solution: (b)

Devi-Chandraguptam or Devi-Chandragupta is an Indian Sanskrit-language political drama attributed to Vishakhadeva, who is generally identified with Vishakhadatta. he plot also survives in form of a Persian language story, which appears to be an adaptation of the play, and is included in the 11th century text Majmal-ut-Tawarikh.

Hammira Mahakavya (IAST: Hammīra-Mahākāvya) is a 15th-century Indian Sanskrit epic poem written by the Jain scholar Nayachandra Suri. It is a legendary biography of the 13th century Chahamana king Hammira.

Milinda-panha is a lively dialogue on Buddhist doctrine with questions and dilemmas posed by King Milinda—i.e., Menander, Greek ruler of a large Indo-Greek empire in the late 2nd century BCE—and answered by Nagasena, a senior monk. Composed in northern India in perhaps the 1st or 2nd century CE (and possibly originally in Sanskrit) by an unknown author, the Milinda-panha is the one noncanonical work whose authority was accepted implicitly by such commentators as Buddhaghosa, who quoted it frequently. It is also one of the few postcanonical works of the Theravada school that was not produced in Ceylon (modern Sri Lanka), though its authority there remains unquestioned.

Nītivākyāmṛta is a text dealing with ethics and ethical values (nītiśāstra), attributed to Somadeva Suri. The Nītivākyāmṛta (literally the “nectar of science of polity”) contains thirty-two discourses in simple Sanskrit prose by the Jain scholar.

Hence, only 2 out of 4 matches are correct, answer is B.

“Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects.”

The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

(a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(d) Vaishnavism

Solution: (b)

Straightforward question from your NCERT. Jainas believe that all living or non-living things are animated and permeated by jiva, the soul.

Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and canalcum- aqueduct several a kilometres long from the river to the capital city?

a) Devaraya I

(b) Mallikarjuna

(d) Virupaksha

Solution: (a)

In c. 1410, Deva Raya had a barrage constructed across the Tungabhadra River and commissioned a 24 km long aqueduct from the Tungabhadra river to the capital. The account provided by Nuniz gives details of the projects undertaken by Deva Raya I that brought prosperity to the Kingdom.

Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?

(a) Ahmad Shah

(b) Mahmud Begarha

(d) Muhammad Shah

Solution: (c)

In 1534, Ahmad Shah signed the Treaty of Bassein with the Portuguese, ceding Diu to the latter, as well as other territories of his empire such as Vasai and the islands that today form Mumbai. The Portuguese obtained Daman from the Shah in 1559. This was because his kingdom was earlier invaded by the second Mughal Emperor Humayun. At that juncture, Shah decided to remain on conciliatory terms with the Portuguese, who had arrived in India at the end of the 15th century, and were at the time an energetic and ambitious maritime power.

By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

(a) The Regulating Act

(b) The Pitt’s India Act

(d) The Charter Act of 1833

Solution: (d)

Another straightforward question. The Charter Act of 1833 was the final step towards centralisation in British India. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.

In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(d) Equality before law

Solution: (a)

The Doctrine of Due Process of law prohibits the state from taking actions that shall deprive individuals from their rights to safety, liberty or life. Due process refers to just, rational, fair, and fair treatment under the regular judicial process. The notion of due process states that every legal right a person has under the law must be respected by the government. Due process safeguards people from State’s misconduct and makes the government accountable to the law of the land.

Natural justice is an expression of English common law, and involves a procedural requirement of fairness. Natural justice simply means to make a sensible and reasonable decision-making procedure on a particular issue. This principle is based on the following rules
No one should be a judge in his own matter.
No one can be condemned unheard.
The party is entitled to know each and every reason and the decision taken by the authority.

In essence, “Due Process of Law” encompasses the principle of natural justice, ensuring that legal procedures are fair, reasonable, and uphold fundamental rights. It entails giving all parties involved a fair opportunity to present their case and be heard, thereby promoting procedural fairness and preventing arbitrariness in legal proceedings. So, you could say that “Due Process of Law” embodies the principles of natural justice within the legal framework.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect. but Statement-II is correct

Solution: (a)

Prisons are included in the “State-List” of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. Administration and management of prisons and prisoners is the responsibility of respective state governments. Further, the Prisons Act 1894 (unamended), which governed the management and administration of prison, gave state governments the authority to administer prisons. This is evident from a cursory reading of the act and certain specific sections of the act such as section 59, which states that:

The State Government may, [by notification in the Official Gazette] make rules consistent

with this Act, among other things, for the government of prisons and for the appointment of all officers appointed under this Act. See here https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/18475/1/prisons_act_1894.pdf

There is no mention of the central or the union government in this act, hence S2 seems correct.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Solution: (c)

Although options A and B can be considered to be ancillary purposes of the constitution of a country, C is the most appropriate “chief purpose” since a constitution essentially delimits the powers of the government. A constitution may or may not provide for social equity and justice, thus D is not correct.

In India, which one of the following constitutional amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

Solution: X

Question Has Been Dropped By UPSC

Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Solution: (a)

The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) has been accorded Constitutional Status and constituted through “The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act, 2018” Act.

The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993, as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006.

The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.

Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference.

Consider the following statements:

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Solution: (d)

S1 is incorrect. If the election of a person as President or Vice President is declared void by the Supreme court, acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President or Vice President, as the case may be, on or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration.

S2 is incorrect as well. When an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in the presidential election, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the presidential election. Thus election to the president will not be postponed on the grounds that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved.

S3 is incorrect as well, there is no such timeline prescribed by the constitution.

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Solution: (b)

The Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding the Money Bill. It cannot reject or amend the money bill after it is passed by the Lok Sabha and transmitted to the Rajya Sabha. It has to return the bill within 14 days with or without recommendations. It is at the discretion of Lok Sabha to accept or reject any or all of the recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha.

Consider the following statements:

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’

1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
2. hunting is not allowed in such area
3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Solution: (b)

Community reserves fall under protected areas, along with marine protected areas, national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and conservation reserves, according to the Wild Life (Protection) Act (WLPA), 1972. Once the State notifies an area as a community reserve, as per Section 36D of the WLPA Act, the Community reserve management committee is responsible for conserving, maintaining and managing the community reserve. After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people cannot hunt there, nor can they use it for agricultural practices (including jhum cultivation). They can however collect non-timber forest produce. So, S2 and S3 are correct, and S1 and S4 are incorrect.

With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Solution: (b)

The specification of “Scheduled Areas” in relation to a State is by a notified order of the President, after consultation with the State Government concerned. The same applies in the case of any alteration, increase, decrease, incorporation of new areas, or rescinding any Orders relating to “Scheduled Areas”.

The largest administrative unit forming the scheduled areas has been the district and the lowest the cluster of villages in the block.

It is the Governor (not the Chief Minister) of the state State having Scheduled Areas who shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the President regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State. So, S3 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: (c)

The Supreme Court has held in several judgments (Indra Sawhney and Others v Union of India and Others 1993; M Nagaraj and Others v Union of India and Others 2006) that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution would be limited by Article 335 (2) which provides for “maintenance of efficiency of administration”. Hence, S1 is correct. However, article 335 does not define the term. It only states that:

“The claims of the member of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be

taken into consideration, consistently, with the maintenance of efficiency of administration in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State. Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent in making of any provision in favor of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes for relaxation in qualifying marks in any examination or lowering the standards of evaluation, for reservation in matters of promotion to any class or classes of services or posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.”

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most its electricity production.

Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent at of least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: (c)

Most of India’s electricity production (nearly 55%) is achieved via coal, so S1 is correct. Most commercial nuclear power reactors require low enriched uranium (LEU) fuel with a uranium-235 content of between 3 to 5% to operate efficiently. Submarine reactors and nuclear weapons require more highly enriched uranium (HEU) with a uranium-235 content greater than 20%. Beyond 80% enrichment is considered weapons-grade Uranium. So, S2 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-1: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.

Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution: (c)

Marsupials are members of the mammalian infraclass Marsupialia. Marsupials are not naturally found in India. There are over 330 species of marsupials. Around two-thirds of them live in Australia. The other third live mostly in South America, where some interesting ones include the flipper-wearing yapok, bare-tailed woolly opossum. Hence, S1 is correct.

However, marsupials can thrive in various habitats, not only in montane grasslands with no predators. They can live in any part of the forest habitat. For example, some marsupials live in rainforests, deserts, woodlands, and savannas. Hence, S2 is incorrect.

‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

(b) The United Nations Environment Programme

(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Solution: (a)

The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the auspices of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence, option (a) is correct. It was established in 1994. The ISSG manages the Global Invasive Species Database (GISD), which provides information on invasive alien species worldwide.

Consider the following fauna:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Solution: (a)

The lion-tailed macaque is not a nocturnal animal. It is an arboreal and diurnal creature, they sleep at night in trees (typically, high in the canopy of rainforest). Sambars stick to a fairly simple schedule throughout the day. Sambars are majorly crepuscular animals i.e., active at dawn and dusk. They feed during the night and rest in cover during the daytime hours. Malabar civet is a small, carnivorous mammal that is native to the Western Ghats region of India. It is primarily nocturnal, and its nocturnal behaviour helps it avoid predators and increases its chances of finding prey in the darkness.

Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

(a) Butterflies

(b) Dragonflies

(d) Wasps

Solution: (c)

The honey bee dance – also known as the waggle dance, is a form of communication performed by worker honey bees to other members of the honey bee colony. The waggle dance was famously decoded by Austrian scientist, Karl von Frisch. As far as we know, the honeybee waggle dance is performed to communicate the location of a good source of food (nectar rich flowers), or water, and also to describe the whereabouts of the site of a potential new home for a swarming bee colony. Research suggests individual honeybees may also perform a dance when they wish to be cleaned (groomed) by other bees.

Consider the following statements:

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties.
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Solution: (d)

All statements are correct. Mushrooms have antibacterial, insecticidal and medicinal properties, they can be used as immune system enhancer and cholesterol lowering agents; additionally, they are important sources of bioactive compounds. Thus, some mushroom extracts are used to promote human health and are found as dietary supplements.

Magic mushrooms (psychoactive fungi) that grow in India, United States, Mexico, South America, and many other parts of the world, contain psilocybin and psilocin, which are hallucinogens and are Class I controlled substances.

A mushroom documentation project in the forests of Northeast India has revealed not only 600 varieties of fungi, but also led to a new discovery: a bioluminescent — or light emitting — variety of mushroom. The new species — named Roridomyces phyllostachydis — was first sighted on a wet August night near a stream in Meghalaya’s Mawlynnong in East Khasi Hills district and later at Krang Shuri in West Jaintia Hills district. It is now one among the 97 known species of bioluminescent fungi in the world.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
3. They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Solution: (b)

The Indian Squirrel nests at the top of the trees, and store food in their nest. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. They do typically store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground also. Indian palm squirrels are omnivores. They feed mainly on nuts and fruits but will also eat seeds, insects, small mammals and reptiles, eggs, and even sometimes chicks of birds.

Consider the following statements:

1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Solution: (c)

All statements are correct. Some hyperthermophilic bacteria are able to live at temperatures greater than 100 °C, deep in the ocean where high pressures increase the boiling point of water. Many hyperthermophiles are also able to withstand other environmental extremes, such as high acidity or high radiation levels.

Psychrophiles exist at lower to extreme low temperatures, ranging from 5°C to 15°C or lower. It can grow even up to the freezing point of water. They are found in freezing environments, such as glaciers, deep oceans, and polar regions.

Acidophiles are microorganisms that show optimal growth in highly acidic environments. Rxtreme acidophiles live in environments with a pH value <3, and moderate acidophiles grow optimally in conditions having pH values ranging between 3 and 5.

Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

(a) Fishing cat

(b) Orangutan

(d) Sloth bear

Solution: (b)

Orangutans also use sticks to remove insects from tree holes, poke logs for honey, and when eating Neesia fruits, which are known for their irritant hairs. Once they use the sticks to remove these impediments, they can feast on the fruit’s seeds unencumbered. Researchers have spotted orangutans using sticks to extract seeds from fruit and scrape insects using a stick from a hole in a tree in the wild.

Many other animals use tools, see here https://www.nathab.com/blog/animals-that-use-tools/

Consider the following:

1. Aerosols
2. Foam agents
3. Fire retardants
4. Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Solution: (c)

HFCs are primarily produced for use in refrigeration, air-conditioning, insulating foams and aerosol propellants, with minor uses as solvents and for fire protection (fire retardants).

Various technical and novelty aerosols (e.g. lubricant sprays and air-dusters) require a non-flammable propellant and currently use HFCs. Further, some HFC refrigeration compressor lubricants are designed to maximize the benefits of lubrication and oil return for refrigeration systems. So, all four statements are correct. See https://wedocs.unep.org/bitstream/handle/20.500.11822/26867/7877FS02_C_Uses_EN.pdf?sequence=1&isAllowed=y

Consider the following statements:

1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Solution: (a)

Main source of water for the Wular Lake is the Jhelum River. So, S1 is correct.

Kolleru, one of the largest freshwater lakes in India is situated between the Krishna and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh. The Krishna River does not directly feed the Kolleru Lake. The Kolleru Lake is fed by two seasonal rivers, Budameru and Tammileru, which are tributaries of the Krishna River. So S2 is incorrect.

Kanwar jheel, as it is locally called, is located 22 km north-west of Begusarai Town in Manjhaul. It is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to meandering of Burhi Gandak river, a tributary of Ganga, in the geological past. Burhi Gandak river and Gandak river are different. So, S3 is incorrect.

Consider the following pairs:

Port Well known as

1. Kamarajar Port First major port in India registered as a company
2. Mundra Port Largest privately owned port in India
3. Visakhapatnam Largest container port in Port India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Solution: (a)

Kamarajar Port Limited, formerly Ennore Port, is located on the Coromandel Coast, Chennai. It is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company. The Kamarajar Port Limited is the only corporatised major port and is registered as a company.

Mundra Port is India’s largest commercial privately owned port located on the northern shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat. It is owned and operated by Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ), which is a part of
Adani Group.

Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Nhava Seva), Maharashtra, is
also known as the largest container port in India. So,
S3 is incorrectly matched.

Consider the following trees:

1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
3. Teak (Tectona grandis)

How many of the above are deciduous trees?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Solution: (b)

Jackfruit are evergreen trees that are native to India and Malaysia, that have spread to Sri Lanka, China, South-east Asia and to tropical Africa. They are cultivated for both fruit and timber.

Mahua is a tropical deciduous fast-growing tree and home to Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Maharashtra, and Bihar. Teak is a tropical hardwood tree and deciduous in nature. Teak wood is valued for its durability and water resistance, and is used for various purposes such as boat building, furniture, carving, and veneer

Consider the following statements:

1. India has more arable area than China.
2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Solution: (a)

India has the largest cropland (arable land) of any country at 179.8 million hectares, compared with 167.8 million in the US and 165.2 million in China. Russia ranks fourth, while South Asia and Europe are labelled “agricultural capitals of the world,” as cropland accounts for more than 80% of some countries in those regions. In comparison, only about a fifth of land in US and China is dedicated to growing food. So, S1 is correct.

China has more irrigated area than India, and its proportion of irrigated area (about 50%) is more than India (around 48%). See http://english.scio.gov.cn/m/pressroom/2022-11/08/content_78508226.htm

The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is 2.4 tonnes for rice and 3 tonnes for wheat, while in China it is 6.7 tonnes for rice and 5 tonnes for wheat. Hence, S3 is incorrect.

Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves

(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans

(d) Rann of Kutch

Solution: (d)

The Rann of Kutch was once an arm of the Arabian Sea, and as the sea level fell over time, it transformed into a marshy land. The present day Kutch’s shoreline and the sand dune deposition is the result of hundreds of years of rainless years around 5,000 years ago.

Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

(a) Aluminium

(b) Copper

(d) Titanium

Solution: (d)

Heavy mineral sands comprise a group of seven minerals, viz, ilmenite, leucoxene (brown ilmenite), rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet and monazite. Ilmenite (FeO.TiO2) and rutile (TiO2) are the two chief mineral sources of titanium. Titanium dioxide occurs in polymorphic forms as rutile, anatase (octahedrite) and brookite.

About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by

(a) Argentina

(b) Botswana

(d) Kazakhstan

Solution: (c)

The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is the world’s largest producer of cobalt, accounting for roughly 70% of global production. Cobalt is used in the manufacture of many types of electronics, but most importantly as an ingredient of the rechargeable batteries that are used to power a fast-growing fleet of electric vehicles (EVs).

Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

(a) Cameroon

(b) Nigeria

(d) Uganda

Solution: (a)

The Congo Basin spans across six countries—Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.

Consider the following statements:

1. Amarkantak Hills are at confluence of Vindhya and the Sahyadri Ranges
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Solution: (d)

Amarkantak Hills lie at the meeting point of the Vindhya and the Satpura Ranges. S1 is incorrect.

The Biligirirangan Hills, also known as BR Hills, are not part of the Satpura Range. They are located in the Eastern Ghats, specifically in the border region between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. S2 is incorrect.

Seshachalam Hills form part of the Eastern Ghats in Andhra Pradesh, whereas Western Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat. S3 is therefore incorrect.

With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements :

1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Solution: (d)

East–west Corridor connects Silchar to Porbandar. It covers various other cities but Dibrugarh (a bit remote in the north-western parts of Assam) is not serviced by it. So, S1 is incorrect.

India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway connects the three countries from Moreh in India to Mae Sot in Thailand via Bagan in Myanmar. S2 is incorrect.

The BCIM corridor proposes to link Kunming in China’s Yunnan province with Kolkata, passing through nodes such as Mandalay in Myanmar and Dhaka in Bangladesh. So, S3 is also incorrect.

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I :Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InviTs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.

Statement-II :InviTs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) are infrastructure developer-sponsored Trusts that own, operate, and invest in completed and under-construction infrastructure projects. These infrastructure assets include roads and highways, power distribution networks, telecom towers, fiber optic networks, etc.

Dividend and interest income from InvITs are completely taxable as per the slab rate of the investor.

Hence, statement I is incorrect.

InviTs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.

Hence, statement II is correct.

https://www.etmoney.com/learn/personal-finance/all-you-need-to-know-about-infrastructure-investment-trusts-invits/

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/real-estate/reits-invits-to-approach-fin-min-against-tax-on-distribution-income/article66481515.ece

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.

Statement-II : Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Yes, many central banks have raised interest rates in the post-pandemic period. This includes the US Federal Reserve, the Bank of England, and the European Central Bank. The Monetary Policy Committee (RBI) has also raised rates many times since May 2022.

Hence, statement I is correct.

Central banks use interest rate adjustments as a monetary policy tool to manage the economy. They raised rates to combat rising inflation and consumer prices.

Hence, statement II is correct and it is the correct explanation of statement I.

https://www.imf.org/en/Blogs/Articles/2022/08/10/central-banks-hike-interest-rates-in-sync-to-tame-inflation-pressures

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.

Statement-II : Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (b)

Carbon markets, for years short of puff, have at last become one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. By the end of 2021 more than 21% of the world’s emissions were covered by some form of carbon pricing, up from 15% in 2020. Hence, statement I is correct.

Carbon markets create a market for trading carbon credits, which represent the right to emit a certain amount of greenhouse gases. In carbon markets, companies or entities that emit fewer greenhouse gases than their allotted limit can sell their excess credits to those who exceed their limit.

Carbon markets operate within a framework where companies or entities can buy and sell carbon credits as a way to mitigate their carbon emissions. The transactions typically occur between private entities. While governments may generate revenue indirectly through taxes, fees, or auctioning of carbon allowances, these funds are typically used to support environmental initiatives, climate change mitigation efforts, or to fund government programs, rather than being direct transfers of resources from the private sector to the state.
Hence, statement II is correct but not a correct explanation for Statement-I.

Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’?

(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’

(b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems

(d) Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions

Answer: A

Sterilization is a form of monetary action in which a central bank seeks to limit the effect of inflows and outflows of capital on the money supply. Sterilization most frequently involves the purchase or sale of financial assets by a central bank and is designed to offset the effect of foreign exchange intervention. ‘Open Market Operations’ is the part of ‘sterilization’ process of RBI.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/s/sterilization.asp#:~:text=Sterilization%20is%20a%20form%20of,effect%20of%20foreign%20exchange%20intervention.

Consider the following markets :

Government Bond Market
Call Money Market
Treasury Bill Market
Stock Market

How many of the above are included in capital markets?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: B

Capital markets refer to the venues where funds are exchanged between suppliers and those who seek capital for their own use. In capital market, long-term securities are traded.

Government Bond Market and Stock Market are the parts of capital market. While Call Money Market and Treasury Bill Market are the parts of money market.

Hence, option (b) is correct. https://www.investopedia.com/terms/c/capitalmarkets.asp

Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?

(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce

(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations

(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers

(d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production

Answer: B

Small farmers, Large field: An innovative model towards doubling farmer income in Eastern India

The concept of “Small Farmer Large Field” refers to the idea where many marginal farmers in a particular area come together and organize themselves into groups. These groups work collectively to synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

https://epubs.icar.org.in/index.php/IndFarm/article/view/120639

Consider the following statements :

1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: C

Native to Ethiopia, Eritrea and Malawi, niger seeds are also grown in India. Niger seeds resemble sunflower seeds in shape, but are smaller in size and black. It bears a fairly thick, adherent seed coat and can be stored for up to a year without deterioration. Niger seed contains proteins, oil and soluble sugars.

One of the 14 kharif crops for which the Centre releases a minimum support price (MSP) every year is an unlikely plant called niger or ramtil (Guizotia abyssinica). This lesser known oilseed commands one of the highest MSPs, fixed on the basis of the cost of production and market demand.

Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 both are correct.

The tribal population uses niger seed oil for cooking, the press cake post oil-extraction as livestock feed, and also consume the seeds as a condiment. Niger seed oil has medicinal properties, which is the reason for its commercial demand by the cosmetics, perfumeries and other allied industries.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/agriculture/illusive-oilseed-india-s-niger-seed-cultivation-is-declining-here-is-why-84380#:~:text=In%202020%2D21%2C%20the%20MSP,the%20MSP%20at%20Rs%207%2C287.

Consider the investments in the following assets :

1. Brand recognition
2. Inventory
3. Intellectual property
4. Mailing list of clients

How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: C

An intangible asset is one that is not physical in nature. Since intangible assets have no shape or form, they cannot be held or manipulated. Common types of intangible assets include brands, goodwill, Mailing list of clients and intellectual property.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Inventory is not a part of intangible investments.

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/i/intangibleasset.asp

Consider the following :

1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population, area and income distance?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

Answer: B

The following table shows the criteria used by the Commission to determine each state’s share in central taxes, and the weight assigned to each criterion.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

https://prsindia.org/policy/report-summaries/report-15th-finance-commission-2021-26

Consider the following infrastructure sectors :

1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy

On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: c

UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) is dedicated to making the SDGs a reality by investing with meaningful and measurable impact in affordable housing, renewable energy and health, and boosting innovation. Our unique role as co-investor and trusted partner enables us to channel private financing in regions and sectors that have struggled heretofore to attract capital. We bring to bear the UN’s impartiality, fairness and anti-corruption drive further reinforced by UNOPS’ flexible, agile and solution-oriented approach. Hence, option (c) is correct.

The S3i initiative was launched in 2018 with the aim of mobilizing private sector investment in sustainable infrastructure projects in developing countries.

With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements :

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: B

Home Guards’ is a voluntary force, first raised in India in December 1946, to assist the police in controlling civil disturbance and communal riots.

Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the States/Union Territories. They are recruited from amongst all classes of people and walks of life, who give their spare time to the organisation for betterment of the community.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Centre advised the States and Union Territories to merge their existing voluntary organisation into one uniform voluntary force known as Home Guards.

The role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary Force to the Police in maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air-raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc., help in maintenance of essential services, promote communal harmony and assist the administration in protecting weaker sections, participate in socio-economic and welfare activities and perform Civil Defence duties.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Home Guards are of two types – rural and urban. In border States, Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Bns. have been raised, which serve as an auxiliary to the Border Security Force. The total strength of Home Guards in the country is 5,73,793 against which the raised strength is 433803.The organization is spread over in all States and Union Territories except in Kerala.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

https://dgfscdhg.gov.in/about-homeguard

With reference to India, consider the following pairs :

Action	The Act under which it is covered
Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms	The Official secrets Act, 1923
Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties	The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others	The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: B

Section 6 in the Official Secrets Act, 1923 deals with the unauthorised use of police or military uniforms, falsification of reports, forgery, personation and false documents.

Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

Section 7 in The Official Secrets Act, 1923:- No person in the vicinity of any prohibited place shall obstruct, knowingly mislead or otherwise interfere with or impede, any police officer, or any member of [the Armed Forces of the Union] engaged on guard, sentry, patrol or other similar duty in relation to the prohibited place.

Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

Section 25 of the Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019:- Whoever uses firearm in a rash or negligent manner or in celebratory gunfire so as to endanger human life or personal safety of others shall be punishable with an imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine which may extend to rupees one lakh, or with both.

Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Consider the following pairs :

Regions often mentioned in news	Reason for being in news
North Kivu and Ituri	War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
Nagorno-Karabakh	Insurgency in Mozambique
Kherson and Zaporizhzhia	Dispute between Israel and Lebanon

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: D

The Kivu conflict is an umbrella term for a series of protracted armed conflicts in the North Kivu and South Kivu provinces in the eastern Democratic Republic of the Congo which have occurred since the end of the Second Congo War. Including neighbouring Ituri province, there are more than 120 different armed groups active in the eastern Democratic Republic of Congo.

Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

The Nagorno-Karabakh conflict is an ethnic and territorial conflict between Armenia and Azerbaijan over the disputed region of Nagorno-Karabakh, inhabited mostly by ethnic Armenians until 2023, and seven surrounding districts, inhabited mostly by Azerbaijanis until their expulsion during the 1990s.

Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

The Russian occupation of Kherson Oblast is an ongoing military occupation of Ukraine’s Kherson Oblast by Russian forces that began on 2 March 2022 during the Russian invasion of Ukraine as part of the southern Ukraine campaign.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.

Statement-II : The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Abraham Accord

Brokered by the USA, the Abraham Accord (2020) is a normalization agreement between the UAE and Israel to establish formal diplomatic relations. The accord was later joined by Bahrain, Sudan, and Morocco and in exchange Israel would suspend its plans to annex parts of the occupied West Bank. With this accord, UAE becomes the third Arab nation to recognize Israel after Egypt (in 1979) and Jordan (1994)

Hence, statement I is correct.

The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by US was signed by Israel and Arab League.

Hence, statement II is incorrect.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/09/22/three-years-of-abraham-accords/

Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards :

Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award	For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years
Arjuna Award	For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
Dronacharya Award	To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar	To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: B

The Khel Ratna Award better known as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award (formerly Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award) is India’s highest sports honour and is conferred upon athletes who bring glory to the nation by virtue of their astounding performances across diverse disciplines. Recipients are selected by a committee constituted by the Ministry and honoured for their “spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports over a period of four years” at an international level. The award is presented to athletes every year on the momentous occasion of National Sports Day on August 29.

Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

The Arjuna Award, officially known as Arjuna Awards for Outstanding Performance in Sports and Games is the second-highest sporting honour of India. The recipients are selected by a committee constituted by the Ministry and are honoured for their “good performance in the field of sports over a period of four years” at the international level and for having shown “qualities of leadership, sportsmanship and a sense of discipline.”

Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

The Dronacharya Award, officially known as Dronacharya Award for Outstanding Coaches in Sports and Games is sports coaching honour of the Republic of India. Recipients are selected by a committee constituted by the Ministry and are honoured to have done “outstanding and meritorious work on a consistent basis and enabled sportspersons to excel in international events” over a period of four years.

Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

The Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar is a sports honour of the Republic of India. The name of the award in Hindi translates to National Sports Promotion Award. It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The award was started in 2009 and the guidelines were revised in 2015. Since the revision, entities in four categories are awarded: Identification and nurturing of budding and young talent, Encouragement to sports through corporate social responsibility, Employment of sportspersons and sports welfare measures, and Sports for development. As of 2020, the award comprises “a citation and a trophy in each of the categories”.

Hence, pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1875896

Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:

1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: B

Chess Olympiad 2022:

The Olympiad was originally scheduled to take place in Russia but due to the ongoing Russian-Ukraine war, the International Chess Federation (FIDE) started looking for new bidders. India emerged the topper among other countries and won the opportunity to host the high-profile event for the first time.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The state government has already started dedicated efforts to give maximum promotion for the mega event. The official mascot ‘Thambi’, a horse clad in the traditional Veshti –Sattai, and the logo was also unveiled.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

What are they playing for:

Winner in the Open section: Hamilton-Russel Cup

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Winner in the Women’s section: Vera Menchik Cup

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

1st place in combined classification: Nona Gaprindashvili Trophy
Number of teams: Open: 188
Women: 162.
Format: All the matches at the Chess Olympiad will be played in the Classical Swiss League Format.

Consider the following pairs :

Area of conflict mentioned in news	Country where it is located
Don bas	Syria
Kachin	Ethiopia
Tigray	North Yemen

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: D

The Donbas or Donbass is a historical, cultural, and economic region in eastern Ukraine. Parts of the Donbas are occupied by Russia as a result of the Russo-Ukrainian War.

Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

Kachin State is the northernmost state of Myanmar. It is bordered by China to the north and east; Shan State to the south; and Sagaing Region and India to the west.

Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

The Tigray Region, officially the Tigray National Regional State, is the northernmost regional state in Ethiopia.

Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?

(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements

(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases

(d) Successful coups

Answer: D

In the past 3 years, Chad, Mali, Guinea, and Sudan have experienced recent coup attempts or successful coups. Recently, in similar scenes, military leaders have toppled the governments of Mali, Chad, Guinea, Sudan and now, Burkina Faso.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

https://www.africanews.com/2023/08/30/africa-the-7-military-coups-over-the-last-three-years//

Consider the following heavy industries :

1. Fertilizer plants
2. Oil refineries
3. Steel plants

Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: C

Green hydrogen is expected to play a prominent role in decarbonising heavy industries, including oil refineries, steel mills and fertiliser plants. India’s current output of green hydrogen is low and comes from just a handful of pilot projects.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

https://india.mongabay.com/2022/11/indias-initiatives-on-green-hydrogen-could-help-global-decarbonisation/

Consider the following statements about G-20:

1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.
2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

The G20 was founded in 1999 in response to several world economic crises. Originally, the G-20 group was established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Since 2008, it has convened at least once a year, with summits involving each member’s head of government or state, finance minister, or foreign minister, and other high-ranking officials; the EU is represented by the European Commission and the European Central Bank. Other countries, international organizations, and nongovernmental organizations are invited to attend the summits, some permanently.

https://www.g20.org/en/

The first day of the 2nd G20 Sherpa Meeting began with an all-day focus on the critical role of Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) in improving development outcomes and India’s vast experience in implementing DPI at scale in the past decade.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1912287

With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with

(a) archaeological excavations

(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India

(d) construction of railways in Colonial India

Answer: A

Alexander Rea (1858 —1924) was a British archaeologist who worked mainly in South British India. He is known for unearthing a sarcophagus from the hillocks of Pallavaram in Tamil Nadu.

Albert Henry Longhurst (1876 – 1955) was a British archaeologist and art historian, working in India and Ceylon.

Robert Sewell (1845–1925 worked in the civil service of the Madras Presidency during the period of colonial rule in India. He was Keeper of the Madras Record Office and was tasked with responsibility for documenting ancient inscriptions and remains in the region.

James Burgess (1832 –1916), was the founder of The Indian Antiquary in 1872 and an important archaeologist of India in the 19th century.

Sir Walter Elliot (1803 –1887) was a British civil servant in colonial India. He was also an eminent orientalist, linguist, archaeologist, naturalist and ethnologist who worked mainly in the Presidency of Madras.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Consider the following pairs :

Site	Well known for
Besnagar	Shaivite cave shrine
Bhaja	Buddhist cave shrine
Sittanavasal	Jain cave shrine

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: B

Besnagar was a town that was an important trade center in the 6th and 5th centuries BCE. It was located on the west side of the river, about 3 km from present-day Vidisha. The town was mentioned in the Pali scriptures.

Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

Bhaja Caves are a group of 22 rock-cut caves dating back to the 2nd century BC located off the Mumbai – Pune expressway near the city of Pune, India. The Bhaja Caves share architectural design with the Karla Caves. The most impressive monument is the large shrine — chaityagriha — with an open, horseshoe-arched entrance; according to the Archaeological Survey of India, the chaityagrha is the most prominent aspect of the caves, and one of the earliest of the type Sculptures of Bodhisattva’s guarding the entrance of the 1st century BCE Buddhist Cave 19 at Bhaja Caves. Chaitygraha has some Buddha images.

Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

Sittanavasal Cave (also, Arivar Koil) is a 2nd-century Tamil Śramaṇa complex of caves in Sittanavasal village in Pudukottai district of Tamil Nadu, India. The cave temple has simple pillars and sculptures of Jain Tirthankaras. The paintings are with theme of Jain Samavasarana, the “most attractive heavenly pavilion” (it means the attainment of nirvana), and Khatika bhumi.

Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I :7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.

Statement-II : It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

In India, National Handloom Day is observed annually on August 7th to honour the handloom weavers and their significant role in the country’s economy and culture.

Hence, statement I is correct.

The origins of National Handloom Day can be traced back to the Swadeshi Movement of 1905. This movement was aimed at boycotting British goods in favour of Indian-made products, and handloom textiles were one of the key products that were promoted during this time.

Hence, statement II is correct and it is the correct explanation of statement I.

https://www.indiatoday.in/information/story/national-handloom-day-2023-theme-history-and-significance-2417264-2023-08-07

Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:

Statement-I : One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.

Statement-II :The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

According to the Flag Code, 2002, the National Flag shall be rectangular in shape. The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Hence, statement II is correct.

The standard sizes of the National Flag shall be as follows:-

Flag Size No.	Dimensions in mm
1	6300 X 4200
2	3600 X 2400
3	2700 X 1800
4	1800 X 1200
5	1350 X 900
6	900 X 600
7	450 X 300
8	225 X 150
9	150 X 100

Hence, statement I is incorrect.

https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/flagcodeofindia_070214.pdf

Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day :

Statement-I : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II : On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Constitution Day, also known as “National Law Day”, is celebrated in India on 26 November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted to the Constitution of India, and it came into effect on 26 January 1950.

Hence, statement I is correct.

On 29 August 1947, Drafting Committee was appointed, with Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the chairman. Other 6 members of the committee were: K.M.Munshi, Muhammed Saadulah, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, Gopala Swami Ayyangar, N. Madhava Rao (He replaced B.L. Mitter who resigned due to ill-health), T. T. Krishnamachari (He replaced D.P. Khaitan who died in 1948).

Hence, statement II is incorrect.

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.

Statement-II : Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

In 2022, Switzerland’s gold exports amounted to a value of more than 100 billion U.S. dollars. Switzerland is consistently the world’s leading gold exporting country based on value. The United Kingdom was the second-largest gold exporter that year, with exports worth 73 billion U.S. dollars.

Hence, statement I is correct.

https://www.statista.com/statistics/298446/gold-exports-of-major-countries/#:~:text=Switzerland%20is%20consistently%20the%20world’s,worth%2073%20billion%20U.S.%20dollars.

The United States holds the largest stockpile of gold reserves in the world by a considerable margin. In fact, the U.S. government has almost as many reserves as the next three largest gold-holding countries combined (Germany, Italy, and France). Russia rounds out the top five.

Hence, statement II is incorrect.

https://www.investopedia.com/ask/answers/040715/what-countries-have-largest-gold-reserves.asp#:~:text=The%20United%20States%20holds%20the,%2C%20Italy%2C%20and%20France).

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and Technology Council’.

Statement-II : The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C The European Union and the United States are partners strongly committed to driving digital transformation and cooperating on new technologies based on their shared democratic values, including respect for human rights.

The EU-US Trade and Technology Council serves as a forum for the United States and European Union to coordinate approaches to key global trade, economic, and technology issues and to deepen transatlantic trade and economic relations based on these shared values. It was established during the EU-US Summit on 15 June 2021 in Brussels.

Hence, statement I is correct.

https://commission.europa.eu/strategy-and-policy/priorities-2019-2024/stronger-europe-world/eu-us-trade-and-technology-council_en

Trade and Technology council, the USA and EU does not aim to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. Rather the initiative intends to promote pooling of digital resources such as AI models and computing power, and make them available to partner countries to address challenges in areas such as climate change and extreme weather, healthcare or smart agriculture.

Hence, statement II is incorrect.

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : India accounts for 3·2% of global export of goods.

Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

India’s exports in FY23 to reach about $770 billion

We are focusing in every possible way on how we can export more and more because today India’s share in global merchandise trade is close to 1.8 per cent. As far as services trade is concerned, it is just 4 per cent. We want to take it to 10 per cent,” Anupriya Patel said at the Sourcex India event in New Delhi.

Hence, statement I is incorrect.

https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/foreign-trade/indias-exports-in-fy23-to-reach-about-770-billion-minister-anupriya-patel/articleshow/98524918.cms

PLI schemes can be availed by both domestic as well as foreign companies operating in India.

Hence, statement II is correct.

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1710134

Consider the following statements :

The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union.
2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities.
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: A

The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a binding diplomatic agreement among European Union (EU) member states. Economic policies and activities are coordinated cohesively to safeguard the stability of the economic and monetary union.

The SGP aims to ensure that countries in the EU do not spend beyond their means. To achieve this goal, a set of fiscal rules are enforced to limit budget deficits and debt relative to gross domestic product (GDP).

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The European Commission and the Council of Ministers issue an annual recommendation on policy measures and survey member states in order to keep each nation compliant with budget regulations. According to the agreement, countries that break the rules for three consecutive years are fined a maximum of 0.5% of their GDP.

‘Stability and Growth Pact’ does not make the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

‘Stability and Growth Pact’ does not enable the countries of the European Union to share their technologies.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements :

1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: D

Global Compact

The Global Compact for Migration is the first-ever UN global agreement on a common approach to international migration in all its dimensions. It was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 19 December 2018. However, not all UN member countries have adopted the GCM. The global compact is non-legally binding.

Hence, statement 1 and 2 both are incorrect.

It is grounded in values of state sovereignty, responsibility-sharing, non-discrimination, and human rights, and recognizes that a cooperative approach is needed to optimize the overall benefits of migration, while addressing its risks and challenges for individuals and communities in countries of origin, transit and destination.

However, the GCM does not address internal migration or internally displaced people. The GCM focuses on international migration.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

https://refugeesmigrants.un.org/migration-compact

Consider the following countries :

1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) Only five

Answer: A

Hence, option (a) is correct.

With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.

(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.

(d) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.

Answer: C

Generally, the insolation received at the equator is roughly two to three times more than the insolation received at the poles, and not 10 times.

Hence, statement (a) is incorrect.

Solar radiation consists of multiple wavelengths including ultraviolet (UV), visible light, and infrared (IR). The ratio of infrared radiation in insolation depends on multiple factors like atmospheric conditions, the position of the sun etc. but it does not constitute 2/3^rd of insolation.

Hence, statement (b) is incorrect.

Infrared waves are largely absorbed by greenhouse gases including water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.

Hence, statement (c) is correct.

The visible spectrum refers to the range of electromagnetic waves that are visible to the human eye, which includes wavelengths between approximately 400 to 700 nanometers. On the other hand, Infrared waves exist at longer wavelengths beyond the red end of the visible spectrum. They have wavelengths longer than approximately 700 nanometers.

Hence, statement (d) is incorrect.

Consider the following statements

Statement-I : The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.

Statement-II : The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

In tropical rain forests regions, vegetation is lush, with large trees and dense vegetation on the ground surface. However, due to high amounts of rainfall and fast uptake of nutrients from decomposing organic matter by plants, the soils in the tropical rainforest are generally nutrient-poor and non-fertile.

Hence, statement I is incorrect.

The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. This is because the high temperature and moisture available in tropical rainforests which create ideal conditions for the rapid decomposition of dead organic matter in the soil.

Hence, statement II is incorrect.

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.

Statement-II : The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is typically greater in winter than in summer. This phenomenon is largely due to differences in heat capacity and thermal properties of land and water. During the summer months, land surfaces heat up more quickly than ocean surfaces because land has a lower heat capacity and can absorb and release heat more rapidly than water. This results in relatively warmer temperatures over land compared to the adjacent oceans. In contrast, during the winter months, land surfaces cool down more rapidly than ocean surfaces because land has a lower heat capacity and loses heat more quickly than water. This leads to relatively cooler temperatures over land compared to the adjacent oceans.

Therefore, the temperature contrast between continents and oceans is generally greater during winter when land surfaces cool down faster than ocean surfaces, leading to larger temperature differentials between the two. Hence, statement I is incorrect.

The specific heat of liquid water is 1 calorie per gram per 1 degree C (cal/g/°C). The specific heat of water is greater than that of dry soil or land surface, therefore water both absorbs and releases heat more slowly than land.
Hence, statement II is correct.

Consider the following statements :

1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Both P and S waves travel outward from an earthquake focus inside the earth. The waves are often seen as separate arrivals recorded on seismographs at large distances from the earthquake. The direct P wave arrives first because its path is through the higher speed, dense rocks deeper in the earth. The different S waves arrive after the P waves.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

P waves are longitudinal waves, which means that the particle motion occurs parallel to the direction of wave propagation. On the other hand, S waves are transverse waves, where particle motion occurs perpendicular (at right angles) to the direction of wave propagation.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements :

1. None of them uses seawater
2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district
3. None of them is privately owned

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: D

In India, many coastal power plants like the Mundra Thermal Power Station in Gujarat use seawater for cooling purposes.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

There are several private players in the thermal power sector in India, including companies like Tata Power, Adani Power, and Reliance Power, among others.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

(a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes

(b) Converting crop residues into packing material

(d) Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass

Answer: A

A recent study suggests that the “Wolbachia method” could be used to significantly reduce the incidence of dengue fever, a mosquito-borne disease, in populations where the illness is endemic.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

This method involves introducing Wolbachia, a type of bacteria, into populations of Aedes aegypti, the mosquito species responsible for spreading dengue.

When the Wolbachia-infected mosquitoes breed with their wild counterparts, the percentage of mosquitoes carrying the bacterium grows.

https://www.insightsonindia.com/2020/08/28/infecting-mosquitoes-with-bacterium-wolbachia-cuts-dengue-spread/

Consider the following activities :

1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters

How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: C

Carbon sequestration is the process of capturing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide. It is one method of reducing the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere with the goal of reducing global climate change.

Basalt is a type of volcanic rock that is rich in minerals, including calcium and magnesium. These minerals can react with carbon dioxide in the air to form carbonates, which are then stored in the soil.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Lime is rich in calcium carbonate. When it is added to the ocean, it reacts with carbon dioxide to form more calcium carbonate. This process can help to remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters. This process involves capturing carbon dioxide from the emissions of power plants and other industrial facilities and then injecting it into deep underground geological formations. The carbon dioxide is then stored in the form of a liquid or gas. This process can help to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide that is released into the atmosphere.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?

(a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go

(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat

(d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies

Answer: A

Metagenomics is the study of microbes in their natural living environment. “Aerial metagenomics” refers to the study of genetic material (such as DNA or RNA) collected from the air, usually in the form of airborne particles or aerosols. It involves analysing the microbial communities present in the air and characterising their genetic diversity.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC7641418/#:~:text=Metagenomics%20refers%20to%20the%20application,genome%20shotgun%20(WGS)%20metagenomics.

‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?

(a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna

(b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues

(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population

Answer: A

Microsatellite, as related to genomics, refers to a short segment of DNA, usually one to six or more base pairs in length, that is repeated multiple times in succession at a particular genomic location. These DNA sequences are typically non-coding. The number of repeated segments within a microsatellite sequence often varies among people, which makes them useful as polymorphic markers for studying inheritance patterns in families or for creating a DNA fingerprint from crime scene samples. It is used to study the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

https://www.genome.gov/genetics-glossary/Microsatellite

Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana :

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: b

Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). It is a 100 % centrally sponsored scheme.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

It is being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neo-natal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.

Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Under the Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakaram scheme, all pregnant women and infants will get free treatment benefits at public health institutions including zero expenses delivery.

Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

https://vikaspedia.in/health/nrhm/national-health-programmes-1/janani-suraksha-yojana

Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy :

1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
2. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child- birth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: c

The Anaemia Mukt Bharat– intensified Iron-plus Initiative aims to strengthen the existing mechanisms and foster newer strategies for tackling anemia. It focuses on six target beneficiary groups, through six interventions and six institutional mechanisms to achieve the envisaged target under the POSHAN Abhiyan.

A key intervention is to give Prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid supplementation to children, adolescents and women of reproductive age and pregnant women irrespective of anemia, under Anaemia Mukt Bharat.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The various behaviour change\ communication activities of the strategy will address four key behaviours, one of which is promoting practice of delayed cord clamping (by atleast 3 minutes or until cord pulsations cease) in all health facility deliveries followed by early initiation of breastfeeding within 1 hour of birth.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Bi-annual mass deworming for children in the age groups between 1-19 years is carried out on designated dates – 10th February and 10th August every year under National Deworming Day (NDD) programme. The Anaemia Mukt Bharat, also integrates deworming of women of reproductive age and for pregnant women as part of the NDD strategy.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The strategy attempts to intensify awareness and integrate screening and treatment for following non-nutritional causes of anaemia with special focus on malaria, haemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

https://vikaspedia.in/health/health-campaigns/anemia-mukt-bharat#:~:text=The%20Anemia%20Mukt%20Bharat%20strategy%20is%20a%20universal%20strategy%20and,focusing%20on%20four%20key%20behaviours

Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

Carbon fibres can be defined as fibres with a carbon content of 90% or above. They are produced by the thermal conversion of organic fibres with a lower carbon content such as polyacrylonitrile (PAN) containing several thousand filaments with diameters between 5 and 10 μm.

Aerospace and automobiles were some of the first industries to adopt carbon fibre. The high modulus of carbon fibre makes it suitable structurally to replace alloys such as aluminium and titanium. The weight savings carbon fibre provides is the primary reason carbon fibre has been adopted by the aerospace industry.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The most common recycling process used to recover carbon fibre from composite waste is pyrolysis, where high heat basically burns off the resin. Solvolysis, which uses a solvent to dissolve the resin, has long been claimed to offer superior properties. However, one of the main challenges to date has been obtaining recycled carbon fibre keeping the same mechanical properties as virgin carbon fibre.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Consider the following actions :

1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
2. 2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive.
3. Detection of the tilt of the smart- phone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode.

In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: c

An accelerometer is an electronic sensor that measures the acceleration forces acting on an object, in order to determine the object’s position in space and monitor the object’s movement.

In the case of a car crash/collision, the accelerometer is used to detect the sudden deceleration of the vehicle and trigger the deployment of the airbags.

Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

In the case of a laptop falling, the accelerometer is used to detect the sudden change in motion and trigger the immediate turning off of the hard drive to prevent damage to the data.

Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

An accelerometer is also required for the detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of the display between portrait and landscape mode.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements :

1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: b

In recent decades, the use of biofilters to remove of contaminants from wastewater and waste gases is being developed. Biofilters use microorganisms, which are capable of degrading many compounds, fixed to an inorganic/organic medium (carrier) to break down pollutants present in a fluid stream. They also provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

A properly designed biofilter will keep ammonia and nitrite concentrations at levels that are not harmful to the fish. Biofilters convert ammonia nitrogen to nitrite nitrogen and then to the less toxic nitrate nitrogen for the fish.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Biofilters do not increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water. Phosphorus (P) is in fact removed to reduce the potential for eutrophication in waters.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biofilter#:~:text=A%20biofilter%20is%20a%20bed,as%20a%20fixed%E2%80%93film%20process.

Consider the following pairs :

Objects in space	Description
Cepheids	Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
Nebulae	Stars which brighten and dim periodically
Pulsars	Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: a

Cepheids, also called Cepheid Variables, are stars which brigthen and dim periodically.

Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.

A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space. Some nebulae (more than one nebula) come from the gas and dust thrown out by the explosion of a dying star, such as a supernova. Other nebulae are regions where new stars are beginning to form.

Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

Neutron stars are formed when a massive star runs out of fuel and collapses. The very central region of the star – the core – collapses, crushing together every proton and electron into a neutron. Pulsars are rotating neutron stars observed to have pulses of radiation at very regular intervals that typically range from milliseconds to seconds. Pulsars have very strong magnetic fields which funnel jets of particles out along the two magnetic poles. These accelerated particles produce very powerful beams of light.

Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cepheid_variable

Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

(a) Australia

(b) Canada

(d) Japan

Answer: d

In this list, Japan is the only country that has its own satellite navigation system. The system is called the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) and it is designed to augment the existing GPS system, providing more accurate and reliable positioning and timing information within Japan and surrounding regions.

Hence, option (d) is the correct.

Consider the following statements :

1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Cruise missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while ballistic missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial (boost) phase of flight, after which they follow an arcing trajectory to the target.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Agni-V is an Indian intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) with a range of over 5,000 km. BrahMos is a universal long-range supersonic cruise missile system that can be launched from land, sea and air.

BRAHMOS has been jointly developed by DRDO, India, and NPOM, Russia.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: b

With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements :

1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fud cell to run vehicles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: c

Green hydrogen can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion by a hydrogen engine (HCE).

HCE is an engine that uses hydrogen (H2) as fuel. It is a modified gasoline-powered engine but doesn’t emit any carbon-based pollution, which is a big benefit towards carbon neutrality. HCEs operate similarly

to 4-stroke gasoline engines (ICEs). But compared to gasoline, which has an octane rating of 90 (for premium gasoline), hydrogen has a higher-octane number of 130.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Hydrogen produced through clean pathways can be injected into natural gas pipelines, and the resulting blends can be used to generate heat and power with lower emissions than using natural gas alone.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

A fuel cell uses the chemical energy of green hydrogen or other fuels to cleanly and efficiently produce electricity. If hydrogen is the fuel, the only products are electricity, water, and heat.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

https://mnre.gov.in/national-green-hydrogen-mission/

Consider the following statements with reference to India :

1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crore and (’25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

After 14 years since the MSME Development Act came into existence in 2006, a revision in MSME definition was announced in the Atmnirbhar Bharat package on 13th May, 2020.

In terms of Government of India Gazette Notification S.O. 2119 (E) dated June 26, 2020 the definition of micro, small and medium enterprises is as under:
(i) A micro enterprise is an enterprise where the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed ₹1 crore and turnover does not exceed ₹5 crore;
(ii) A small enterprise is an enterprise where the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed ₹10 crore and turnover does not exceed ₹50 crore; and
(iii) A medium enterprise is an enterprise where the investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed ₹50 crore and turnover does not exceed ₹250 crore. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• All bank loans to MSMEs qualify for classification under priority sector lending.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements :

1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Central bank digital currencies (CBDCs) are a form of digital currency issued by a country’s central bank.

They are similar to cryptocurrencies, except that their value is fixed by the central bank and equivalent to the country’s fiat currency.

Countries will be able to directly exchange digital currencies in a bilateral way and without going through SWIFT or similar settlement systems.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

CBDC is programmable to the point that the currency can be made to expire, thus forcing consumers to use it upto a certain date.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to

(a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms

(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward

(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations. of a stock to changes in the overall stock market.

Answer: d

Beta is a measure of a stock’s historical volatility in comparison with that of a market index such as the S&P 500. Stocks with a beta above 1 tend to be more volatile than their index, while stocks with lower betas tend to be less volatile.

Hence, option (d) is the correct.

Consider the following statements :

1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: b

In India, banks are the predominant agency for delivery of micro-credit. In 1970, Ilaben Bhat, founder member of ‘SEWA’(Self Employed Women’s Association) in Ahmadabad, had developed a concept of ‘women and micro-finance’. The Annapurna Mahila Mandal’ in Maharashtra and ‘Working Women’s Forum’ in Tamilnadu and many National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)-sponsored groups have followed the path laid down by ‘SEWA’. ‘SEWA’ is a trade union of poor, self-employed women workers.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

In an SHG, all members are jointly responsible for the loans taken by individual members.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Both the Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.

Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I : India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.

Statement-II : Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Answer: b

Covid-19 is perhaps the only health emergency that has put to test the four fundamental health systems pillars: promotive, preventive, curative, and rehabilitative. India has laid an exclusive focus on the ‘curative’ pillar largely neglecting the rest.

Hence, statement-I is correct.
• Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the states are primarily responsible for organizing health services, since public health is a subject under State list of 7th Schedule. Hence, statement-II is correct. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : According to the United Nations ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.

Statement-II : India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Answer: c

According to the United Nations’ ‘World Water Development Report, 2022,’ India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal every year.

Hence, statement-I is correct.

About 89% of this groundwater is used in India for irrigation.

Hence, statement-II is incorrect.

https://www.unwater.org/publications/un-world-water-development-report-2022

Consider the following statements :

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: b

Article 355 states, “It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the Government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.” Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Article 22 of Constitution of India
(1) No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice.

(2) Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty-four hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court of the magistrate and no such person shall be detained in custody beyond the said period without the authority of a magistrate.
(3) Nothing in clauses (1) and (2) shall apply—
(a) to any person who for the time being is an enemy alien; or
(b) to any person who is arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002,
confession of the accused before the police can be
used as evidence.

Section 32 in The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 Certain confessions made to police officers to be taken into consideration
(1) Notwithstanding anything in the Code or in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (1 of 1872), but subject to the provisions of this section, a confession made by a person before a police officer not lower in rank than a Superintendent of Police and recorded by such police officer either in writing or on any mechanical or electronic device like cassettes, tapes or sound tracks from out of which sound or images can be reproduced, shall be admissible in the trial of such person for an offence under this Act or the rules made thereunder.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

(a) Angola

(b) Costa Rica

(d) Somalia

Answer: d

A total of 6.5 million people in Somalia face acute food insecurity amid the driest conditions in 40 years, following five consecutive failed rainy seasons. Drought is compounding the impacts of other recurrent climate shocks, persistent insecurity and instability. A total of 1.84 million children under 5 face acute malnutrition.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Consider the following statements :

1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

The biodiversity management committees (BMCs) have been constituted in local bodies across the length and breadth of the country under the provisions of the national Biological Diversity Act, 20021 and relevant state rules enacted under it. The act gives effect to India’s commitments under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) of 1992 to which it is a party, and the act’s objectives mirror the three goals of the CBD, namely the conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and the fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources and associated knowledge.

While primarily responsible for the preparation of peoples’ biodiversity registers (PBRs) containing comprehensive knowledge on the availability and knowledge of local biological resources, their medicinal, or any other use or associated traditional knowledge, the BMCs also have important functions in determining access and benefit-sharing (ABS), including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. BMCs are, thus, key to the realisation of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol (2010), negotiated within the CBD, enjoining parties to take measures to ensure that benefits from the utilisation of genetic resources and associated traditional knowledge accrue to indigenous and local communities on mutually agreed terms.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The BMC may levy charges by way of collection fees from any person for accessing or collecting any biological resource for commercial purposes from areas falling within its territorial jurisdiction. The Board shall provide guidance to the BMCs for the said purpose.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India :

1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: a

As per Article 54 of the Constitution, the President of India is elected by the Members of an Electoral College consisting of (a) the elected members of both Houses of Parliament, and (b) the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States [including National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry]. The Members nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States, including NCT of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry, are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College.

Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The value of the vote of an MP in a presidential election is based on the number of elected members in legislative assemblies of states and union territories, including Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir. If the number of elected Assembly seats increased, the value of vote of each MLA of that state will decrease.

Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is 131 which is less than that of Kerala where it is 152.

Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry (16) is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh (8) because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

Hence, statement 4 is correct.

https://presidentofindia.nic.in/

UPSC CSE Prelims 2023 Solutions with detailed explanation

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