INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2024
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Read about Insights IAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2024 [ HERE ] :
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following was the outcome of the Younghusband Expedition (1904-06) in Bhutan?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- The Younghusband Expedition of 1904-06, led by Colonel Francis Younghusband, was a British military expedition to Bhutan. Its primary objective was not the annexation of Bhutanese territory or the establishment of British sovereignty over Bhutan. Instead, the expedition aimed to address border disputes and establish friendly relations between Bhutan and British India.
- During the expedition, negotiations took place between the British and Bhutanese authorities, resulting in the signing of a treaty of friendship. This treaty recognized Bhutan’s sovereignty over its territory, acknowledging its status as an independent nation. However, it also stipulated that Bhutan’s foreign relations would be conducted under the guidance of the British government, effectively placing Bhutan under British influence in matters of diplomacy.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- The Younghusband Expedition of 1904-06, led by Colonel Francis Younghusband, was a British military expedition to Bhutan. Its primary objective was not the annexation of Bhutanese territory or the establishment of British sovereignty over Bhutan. Instead, the expedition aimed to address border disputes and establish friendly relations between Bhutan and British India.
- During the expedition, negotiations took place between the British and Bhutanese authorities, resulting in the signing of a treaty of friendship. This treaty recognized Bhutan’s sovereignty over its territory, acknowledging its status as an independent nation. However, it also stipulated that Bhutan’s foreign relations would be conducted under the guidance of the British government, effectively placing Bhutan under British influence in matters of diplomacy.
- Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following:
- Establishment of the Benares Sanskrit College
- Enactment of Indian Universities Act
- Appointment of the Sadler Commission
Arrange the above steps taken by the British in India chronologically:
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
- The Benares Sanskrit College was established in 1791 by Jonathan Duncan, the then British Resident of Varanasi (Benares). This institution was founded with the objective of promoting the study of Sanskrit language and literature, as well as Indian philosophy and culture.
- The Indian Universities Act, also known as the Indian Universities Commission Act, was enacted in 1904 by the British Government. This legislation aimed to reform the structure and governance of universities in British India. It introduced significant changes, including the establishment of a Department of Public Instruction in each province, the creation of a Board of Secondary and Intermediate Education, and the reorganization of university administration.
- The Sadler Commission, officially known as the Indian Universities Commission, was appointed in 1917 by the British Government to review the state of education in India, particularly focusing on university education. Chaired by Sir Michael Sadler, the commission conducted an extensive examination of the Indian education system and submitted its report in 1919.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
- The Benares Sanskrit College was established in 1791 by Jonathan Duncan, the then British Resident of Varanasi (Benares). This institution was founded with the objective of promoting the study of Sanskrit language and literature, as well as Indian philosophy and culture.
- The Indian Universities Act, also known as the Indian Universities Commission Act, was enacted in 1904 by the British Government. This legislation aimed to reform the structure and governance of universities in British India. It introduced significant changes, including the establishment of a Department of Public Instruction in each province, the creation of a Board of Secondary and Intermediate Education, and the reorganization of university administration.
- The Sadler Commission, officially known as the Indian Universities Commission, was appointed in 1917 by the British Government to review the state of education in India, particularly focusing on university education. Chaired by Sir Michael Sadler, the commission conducted an extensive examination of the Indian education system and submitted its report in 1919.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding education reforms by the British in India:
- The Indian Education Commission also known as the Hunter Commission, recommended the establishment of universities in every province.
- The Indian Education Service aimed to recruit and train Indians to oversee the administration of education in India.
- The Macaulay’s Minute of 1835 advocated for the promotion of traditional Indian languages in schools.
- The Hartog Committee emphasized the need for vocational education and training for Indian students.
How many of the above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- The Indian Education Commission, also known as the Hunter Commission, was appointed in 1882 to review the state of education in India. One of its significant recommendations was the establishment of universities in every province of British India. The commission recognized the importance of higher education and advocated for the creation of institutions that could provide advanced learning opportunities to students across the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Indian Education Service was established in 1858 by the British colonial government. Its primary objective was to recruit and train British officials who would be responsible for overseeing the administration of education in India. These officials were tasked with implementing educational policies, managing educational institutions, and supervising the curriculum. The establishment of the Indian Education Service reflected the British government’s desire to exert control over the education system in India and propagate its own ideas and values through schooling. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- Macaulay’s Minute of 1835 is a famous policy document that advocated for the promotion of English education in India. Lord Macaulay, the author of the minute, argued that English should be the medium of instruction in Indian schools and colleges. He believed that English education would create a class of Indians who were “Indian in blood and color, but English in taste, in opinions, in morals, and in intellect.” Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- The Hartog Committee was appointed in 1929 to review the state of education in India and make recommendations for improvement. One of the key areas of focus for the committee was vocational education and training. The committee recognized the importance of equipping Indian students with practical skills that would prepare them for employment in various industries and sectors of the economy. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- The Indian Education Commission, also known as the Hunter Commission, was appointed in 1882 to review the state of education in India. One of its significant recommendations was the establishment of universities in every province of British India. The commission recognized the importance of higher education and advocated for the creation of institutions that could provide advanced learning opportunities to students across the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The Indian Education Service was established in 1858 by the British colonial government. Its primary objective was to recruit and train British officials who would be responsible for overseeing the administration of education in India. These officials were tasked with implementing educational policies, managing educational institutions, and supervising the curriculum. The establishment of the Indian Education Service reflected the British government’s desire to exert control over the education system in India and propagate its own ideas and values through schooling. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
- Macaulay’s Minute of 1835 is a famous policy document that advocated for the promotion of English education in India. Lord Macaulay, the author of the minute, argued that English should be the medium of instruction in Indian schools and colleges. He believed that English education would create a class of Indians who were “Indian in blood and color, but English in taste, in opinions, in morals, and in intellect.” Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
- The Hartog Committee was appointed in 1929 to review the state of education in India and make recommendations for improvement. One of the key areas of focus for the committee was vocational education and training. The committee recognized the importance of equipping Indian students with practical skills that would prepare them for employment in various industries and sectors of the economy. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsHow did the British policy of indirect rule, exemplified by the Subsidiary Alliance, contribute to their expansion in India?
- By exploiting existing rivalries among Indian states and leveraging them to their advantage.
- By establishing a network of puppet rulers who served British interests while maintaining local authority.
- By ensuring British control over key strategic regions without the need for direct military occupation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The British policy of indirect rule, also known as “subsidiary alliance” was a strategy employed by the British East India Company and later the British Crown to expand and consolidate their control over India without directly administering every territory. This policy was instrumental in the British conquest of the Indian subcontinent and played a significant role in shaping the socio-political landscape of colonial India.
- Exploiting rivalries among Indian states was not the primary focus of the policy of indirect rule. The British capitalized on existing rivalries among Indian states to further their expansionist goals. By playing different Indian states against each other and leveraging internal conflicts and disputes, the British were able to weaken resistance to their rule and advance their territorial ambitions. However, this does not fully capture the essence of the British policy of indirect rule or subsidiary alliance, which went beyond merely exploiting rivalries among Indian states. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- Establishing puppet rulers: Under the policy of indirect rule, the British installed local rulers who were loyal to British interests. These puppet rulers were often selected based on their willingness to cooperate with the British authorities in exchange for maintaining their authority and privileges within their territories. The British provided military support to these rulers, ensuring their continued allegiance while allowing them to govern their territories autonomously. However, these rulers were expected to abide by British directives and serve as intermediaries between the British administration and the local population. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Control over strategic regions: Rather than directly administering every region, the British strategically focused on controlling key strategic areas that were crucial for maintaining their dominance over India. By establishing control over strategic regions such as port cities, trade routes, and areas of geopolitical significance, the British were able to exert influence over vast territories without the need for extensive military occupation. Through alliances with local rulers or the imposition of treaties like the Subsidiary Alliance, the British ensured that these strategic regions remained under their control, thereby securing their dominance over Indian trade and commerce. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The British policy of indirect rule, also known as “subsidiary alliance” was a strategy employed by the British East India Company and later the British Crown to expand and consolidate their control over India without directly administering every territory. This policy was instrumental in the British conquest of the Indian subcontinent and played a significant role in shaping the socio-political landscape of colonial India.
- Exploiting rivalries among Indian states was not the primary focus of the policy of indirect rule. The British capitalized on existing rivalries among Indian states to further their expansionist goals. By playing different Indian states against each other and leveraging internal conflicts and disputes, the British were able to weaken resistance to their rule and advance their territorial ambitions. However, this does not fully capture the essence of the British policy of indirect rule or subsidiary alliance, which went beyond merely exploiting rivalries among Indian states. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
- Establishing puppet rulers: Under the policy of indirect rule, the British installed local rulers who were loyal to British interests. These puppet rulers were often selected based on their willingness to cooperate with the British authorities in exchange for maintaining their authority and privileges within their territories. The British provided military support to these rulers, ensuring their continued allegiance while allowing them to govern their territories autonomously. However, these rulers were expected to abide by British directives and serve as intermediaries between the British administration and the local population. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Control over strategic regions: Rather than directly administering every region, the British strategically focused on controlling key strategic areas that were crucial for maintaining their dominance over India. By establishing control over strategic regions such as port cities, trade routes, and areas of geopolitical significance, the British were able to exert influence over vast territories without the need for extensive military occupation. Through alliances with local rulers or the imposition of treaties like the Subsidiary Alliance, the British ensured that these strategic regions remained under their control, thereby securing their dominance over Indian trade and commerce. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The effective utilization of military force and diplomatic strategies to overcome indigenous resistance.
- The imposition of political institutions and administrative structures that favored British interests and perpetuated colonial rule.
- Establishment of a vast network of trading posts and fortified settlements across India.
- Creation of a class of anglicized Indians.
How many of the factor/s ultimately enabled the British to consolidate their power and establish long-term dominance in India?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Military superiority and diplomatic strategies were crucial in overcoming indigenous resistance, defeating rival European powers, and establishing British control over Indian territories. Military conquests and strategic alliances with local rulers facilitated British expansion and consolidation of power. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The imposition of British political institutions and administrative structures, such as the establishment of colonial governance systems, legal frameworks, and bureaucratic institutions, favored British interests and perpetuated colonial rule. These structures facilitated the extraction of resources from India and the maintenance of British control over the population. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The establishment of trading posts and fortified settlements across India played a crucial role in British economic and military dominance. These outposts served as centers for trade, commerce, and military operations, enabling the British to control key strategic locations and exert influence over surrounding territories. The Company’s wealth allowed them to outspend and outmaneuver Indian rivals in military conflicts. Company profits from trade with India provided a steady source of funding for military campaigns and administrative expenses. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- The British cultivated a class of anglicized Indians who served as intermediaries between British administrators and the local population. These individuals, often educated in English and familiar with British customs and practices, played important roles in facilitating colonial governance, implementing British policies, and maintaining social order. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Military superiority and diplomatic strategies were crucial in overcoming indigenous resistance, defeating rival European powers, and establishing British control over Indian territories. Military conquests and strategic alliances with local rulers facilitated British expansion and consolidation of power. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The imposition of British political institutions and administrative structures, such as the establishment of colonial governance systems, legal frameworks, and bureaucratic institutions, favored British interests and perpetuated colonial rule. These structures facilitated the extraction of resources from India and the maintenance of British control over the population. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- The establishment of trading posts and fortified settlements across India played a crucial role in British economic and military dominance. These outposts served as centers for trade, commerce, and military operations, enabling the British to control key strategic locations and exert influence over surrounding territories. The Company’s wealth allowed them to outspend and outmaneuver Indian rivals in military conflicts. Company profits from trade with India provided a steady source of funding for military campaigns and administrative expenses. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- The British cultivated a class of anglicized Indians who served as intermediaries between British administrators and the local population. These individuals, often educated in English and familiar with British customs and practices, played important roles in facilitating colonial governance, implementing British policies, and maintaining social order. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
- Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWhich treaty ended the First Carnatic War (1746-1748) between the British and the French in India?
Correct
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, signed in 1748, ended the First Carnatic War between the British and the French in India. This treaty brought an end to the hostilities and restored the territorial status quo, returning each party to the territories they held before the war.
- Outcome and Terms of the Treaty: The Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle ended the hostilities between the British and the French in India. Its terms included:
- Restoration of territorial possessions: The treaty aimed to restore the territorial status quo ante bellum, meaning that territories captured by each party during the war were to be returned to their original owners.
- Exchange of territories: As part of the treaty, the British East India Company regained control of Madras, which had been captured by the French during the conflict.
- Restoration of prisoners and hostages: Both sides agreed to release prisoners of war and hostages taken during the course of the conflict.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle, signed in 1748, ended the First Carnatic War between the British and the French in India. This treaty brought an end to the hostilities and restored the territorial status quo, returning each party to the territories they held before the war.
- Outcome and Terms of the Treaty: The Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle ended the hostilities between the British and the French in India. Its terms included:
- Restoration of territorial possessions: The treaty aimed to restore the territorial status quo ante bellum, meaning that territories captured by each party during the war were to be returned to their original owners.
- Exchange of territories: As part of the treaty, the British East India Company regained control of Madras, which had been captured by the French during the conflict.
- Restoration of prisoners and hostages: Both sides agreed to release prisoners of war and hostages taken during the course of the conflict.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWhat role did the outbreak of the Seven Years’ War in Europe play in India during the mid-18th century?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- The outbreak of the Seven Years’ War (1756-1763) in Europe significantly impacted the dynamics of European powers in India during the mid-18th century.
- The war intensified the competition among European powers, particularly the British and the French, for colonial possessions and strategic advantages in India. Both sides sought to gain dominance over lucrative trade routes, valuable territories, and influential local rulers. This period saw heightened military activities, battles, and conflicts between the British and French forces, as each sought to expand their influence and control in the Indian subcontinent.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- The outbreak of the Seven Years’ War (1756-1763) in Europe significantly impacted the dynamics of European powers in India during the mid-18th century.
- The war intensified the competition among European powers, particularly the British and the French, for colonial possessions and strategic advantages in India. Both sides sought to gain dominance over lucrative trade routes, valuable territories, and influential local rulers. This period saw heightened military activities, battles, and conflicts between the British and French forces, as each sought to expand their influence and control in the Indian subcontinent.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWhich Governor-General of India assumed command himself during the Third Anglo-Mysore War?
Correct
Answer: d
Explanation:
- During the Third Anglo-Mysore War (1790-1792), Governor-General Cornwallis himself assumed command.
- Tipu was considered as most formidable rival by British in their quest for domination of south India.
- Tipu captured the territories of Travancore state, an ally of British. Triple alliance between British, Marathas and Nizam formed against Tipu.
- Governor-general Cornwallis himself assumed the command and after heavy reverses, Tipu agreed to peace with treaty of Srirangapatnam (1792).
- By this treaty, Tipu lost nearly half his territories, which were distributed between three allies.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: d
Explanation:
- During the Third Anglo-Mysore War (1790-1792), Governor-General Cornwallis himself assumed command.
- Tipu was considered as most formidable rival by British in their quest for domination of south India.
- Tipu captured the territories of Travancore state, an ally of British. Triple alliance between British, Marathas and Nizam formed against Tipu.
- Governor-general Cornwallis himself assumed the command and after heavy reverses, Tipu agreed to peace with treaty of Srirangapatnam (1792).
- By this treaty, Tipu lost nearly half his territories, which were distributed between three allies.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements accurately describes Tipu Sultan’s economic policies?
- Tipu Sultan implemented land revenue systems based on detailed surveys and classification, enhancing the state’s revenue base.
- Tipu Sultan encouraged agricultural development by providing tax breaks for reclaiming wasteland and promoting sericulture.
- Tipu Sultan established a state commercial corporation and trading outposts to facilitate trade in various commodities.
- Tipu Sultan’s economic policies led to widespread poverty and economic decline in Mysore, causing discontent among his subjects.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Tipu Sultan introduced systematic land revenue assessments, which involved conducting detailed surveys and categorizing lands based on their fertility and productivity. This allowed for more accurate taxation and increased revenue collection for the state treasury. By modernizing the land revenue system, Tipu aimed to strengthen the financial stability of the Mysore kingdom. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- To stimulate agricultural growth, Tipu Sultan offered incentives such as tax exemptions for clearing and cultivating barren lands. Additionally, he promoted sericulture, the cultivation of silk-producing worms, by providing support and incentives to sericulture practitioners. These measures aimed to expand agricultural production, diversify the economy, and improve the livelihoods of rural communities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Tipu Sultan recognized the importance of trade for economic prosperity and established a state-controlled commercial corporation. This corporation managed trade activities and established trading outposts across the Mysore kingdom and beyond. These outposts facilitated the exchange of goods such as spices, textiles, and agricultural products, contributing to increased trade revenue and economic growth. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- While Tipu Sultan’s reign faced economic challenges, attributing widespread poverty and economic decline solely to his policies may overlook broader historical and socio-economic factors. Factors such as external conflicts, disruptions in trade routes, and natural disasters could have also influenced economic conditions during his rule. Additionally, historical interpretations of Tipu Sultan’s economic impact may vary, and some sources may present a more negative view based on differing perspectives and biases.
- In summary, Tipu Sultan implemented various economic policies aimed at modernizing administration, promoting agriculture, and facilitating trade. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Answer: a
Explanation:
- Tipu Sultan introduced systematic land revenue assessments, which involved conducting detailed surveys and categorizing lands based on their fertility and productivity. This allowed for more accurate taxation and increased revenue collection for the state treasury. By modernizing the land revenue system, Tipu aimed to strengthen the financial stability of the Mysore kingdom. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- To stimulate agricultural growth, Tipu Sultan offered incentives such as tax exemptions for clearing and cultivating barren lands. Additionally, he promoted sericulture, the cultivation of silk-producing worms, by providing support and incentives to sericulture practitioners. These measures aimed to expand agricultural production, diversify the economy, and improve the livelihoods of rural communities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
- Tipu Sultan recognized the importance of trade for economic prosperity and established a state-controlled commercial corporation. This corporation managed trade activities and established trading outposts across the Mysore kingdom and beyond. These outposts facilitated the exchange of goods such as spices, textiles, and agricultural products, contributing to increased trade revenue and economic growth. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
- While Tipu Sultan’s reign faced economic challenges, attributing widespread poverty and economic decline solely to his policies may overlook broader historical and socio-economic factors. Factors such as external conflicts, disruptions in trade routes, and natural disasters could have also influenced economic conditions during his rule. Additionally, historical interpretations of Tipu Sultan’s economic impact may vary, and some sources may present a more negative view based on differing perspectives and biases.
- In summary, Tipu Sultan implemented various economic policies aimed at modernizing administration, promoting agriculture, and facilitating trade. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsWhat distinguished the leadership styles of the Moderates and the Extremists in the Indian National Congress?
Correct
Answer: b
Explanation:
- The leadership styles of the Moderates and the Extremists in the Indian National Congress differed significantly in their objectives and approaches.
- Moderates, represented by leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji and Gopal Krishna Gokhale, focused on administrative and constitutional reforms within the framework of British rule. They believed in peaceful and constitutional agitation, cooperation with the British authorities, and advocated for secular principles in politics.
- On the other hand, Extremists, led by figures such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Bipin Chandra Pal, pursued more radical objectives, including the attainment of Swaraj or self-rule and the complete end of British rule in India. They adopted more aggressive and militant methods, emphasizing self-reliance as a weapon against British domination. Additionally, Extremists drew ideological inspiration from India’s cultural heritage and Hindu traditional symbols, rather than from Western philosophers.
- Even though, statement given in option (d) is also correct, the most appropriate answer is option (b). While both options provide insights into the contrasting nature of the Moderates’ and Extremists’ approaches, option (b) primarily addresses their goals, while option (d) emphasizes their ideological sources of inspiration.
Hence, option (b) is the answer.
Incorrect
Answer: b
Explanation:
- The leadership styles of the Moderates and the Extremists in the Indian National Congress differed significantly in their objectives and approaches.
- Moderates, represented by leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji and Gopal Krishna Gokhale, focused on administrative and constitutional reforms within the framework of British rule. They believed in peaceful and constitutional agitation, cooperation with the British authorities, and advocated for secular principles in politics.
- On the other hand, Extremists, led by figures such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Bipin Chandra Pal, pursued more radical objectives, including the attainment of Swaraj or self-rule and the complete end of British rule in India. They adopted more aggressive and militant methods, emphasizing self-reliance as a weapon against British domination. Additionally, Extremists drew ideological inspiration from India’s cultural heritage and Hindu traditional symbols, rather than from Western philosophers.
- Even though, statement given in option (d) is also correct, the most appropriate answer is option (b). While both options provide insights into the contrasting nature of the Moderates’ and Extremists’ approaches, option (b) primarily addresses their goals, while option (d) emphasizes their ideological sources of inspiration.
Hence, option (b) is the answer.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Under Article 99 of the United Nations Charter the Secretary general highlights critical issues to the Security Council.
- The International Court of Justice was created as the principal judicial arm of the United Nations under Article 99 of the UN Charter.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution : A
- Article 99 of the UN Charter provides that the Secretary general may bring to the attention of the security council any matter, which, in his opinion may threaten the maintenance of international peace and security.
- It is a discretionary power of the Secretary general of the United Nations.
- It empowers the Secretary general to bring attention to the Security Council about matters that in their opinion could threaten international peace and security.
- This article has been used very few times – during upheaval in the Republic of Congo in 1960, Tunisia’s complaint against Franc’s military actions in 1961 and the creation of Bangladesh in 1971.
- Recently the Secretary general invoked the article about danger caused by Israel’s actions in Gaza.
Hence statement 1 is correct
- Articles 92 to 96 of the UN Charter deals with the International Court of Justice the principal judicial arm of the United Nations.
- According to article 92, the International Court of Justice shall be the principal judicial organ of the United Nations and shall function in accordance with the annexed statute which is based upon the statute of the Permanent Court of International justice and forms an integral part of the Charter.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
Incorrect
Solution : A
- Article 99 of the UN Charter provides that the Secretary general may bring to the attention of the security council any matter, which, in his opinion may threaten the maintenance of international peace and security.
- It is a discretionary power of the Secretary general of the United Nations.
- It empowers the Secretary general to bring attention to the Security Council about matters that in their opinion could threaten international peace and security.
- This article has been used very few times – during upheaval in the Republic of Congo in 1960, Tunisia’s complaint against Franc’s military actions in 1961 and the creation of Bangladesh in 1971.
- Recently the Secretary general invoked the article about danger caused by Israel’s actions in Gaza.
Hence statement 1 is correct
- Articles 92 to 96 of the UN Charter deals with the International Court of Justice the principal judicial arm of the United Nations.
- According to article 92, the International Court of Justice shall be the principal judicial organ of the United Nations and shall function in accordance with the annexed statute which is based upon the statute of the Permanent Court of International justice and forms an integral part of the Charter.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs
Rebel Group Located in
- Houthis Syria
- Boko Haram Israel
- Hamas Palestine
How many of the above pairs are correct?
Correct
Solution : A
- Houthis are an armed religious and political group based in Yemen.
- They are a minority group in Yemen and advocate regional autonomy for Zaidis in Northern Yemen.
- The group took over Yemeni capital Sanaa in September 2014 and by 2016, controlled large parts of Northern Yemen
- The movement began as an effort to maintain tribal autonomy in Yemen and protest Western influence in the Middle East
- at present, Houthis want important roles in Yemeni government
- several of the leaders from the group have been designated as terrorist by the United States.
Hence pair 1 is incorrect
- Boko Haram is a Nigeria based group that aims to overthrow the present Nigerian Government and replace it with a regime based on Islamic law
- it is popularly known in Nigerian and western media as boko haram which means Western education is forbidden
- the group has been in existence in various forms since late 1990s.
Hence pair 2 is incorrect
- Hamas is the largest militant Islamic group in Palestine and one of the two major political parties in the region.
- The million group rules the Gaza strip, a Palestinian enclave on the coast of Mediterranean sea that shares border with Israel and Senai peninsula of Egypt.
- it is also designated a terrorist group by Israel, European Union, United States, United Kingdom and other countries.
- Israel also declared a state of War last year after Hamas militants infiltrated Israeli territory and caused havoc there.
Hence pair 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution : A
- Houthis are an armed religious and political group based in Yemen.
- They are a minority group in Yemen and advocate regional autonomy for Zaidis in Northern Yemen.
- The group took over Yemeni capital Sanaa in September 2014 and by 2016, controlled large parts of Northern Yemen
- The movement began as an effort to maintain tribal autonomy in Yemen and protest Western influence in the Middle East
- at present, Houthis want important roles in Yemeni government
- several of the leaders from the group have been designated as terrorist by the United States.
Hence pair 1 is incorrect
- Boko Haram is a Nigeria based group that aims to overthrow the present Nigerian Government and replace it with a regime based on Islamic law
- it is popularly known in Nigerian and western media as boko haram which means Western education is forbidden
- the group has been in existence in various forms since late 1990s.
Hence pair 2 is incorrect
- Hamas is the largest militant Islamic group in Palestine and one of the two major political parties in the region.
- The million group rules the Gaza strip, a Palestinian enclave on the coast of Mediterranean sea that shares border with Israel and Senai peninsula of Egypt.
- it is also designated a terrorist group by Israel, European Union, United States, United Kingdom and other countries.
- Israel also declared a state of War last year after Hamas militants infiltrated Israeli territory and caused havoc there.
Hence pair 3 is correct.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding United Nations Human Rights Council
- All members of the United Nations General Assembly are members of the Council.
- Complaints can be submitted only through experts called Special Procedures, nominated by the Council.
- The Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights is appointed by and is accountable to the Council for its activities.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution : D
- The Human Rights Council is the main intergovernmental body within the United Nations responsible for promotion of human rights.
- Established in 2006 by the UNGA, it serves as an international forum for dialogue on human rights issues with UN officials and mandated experts, States, civil society and other participants.
- The Council consists of 47 member states elected directly and individually by a majority of 193 states of the United Nations General Assembly
- Elections take place every year and seats are equitably distributed among the five UN regional groups with one third of the members being renewed every year
- Membership is limited to two consecutive terms.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- The complaint procedure of the Council addresses consistent patterns of gross and reliably-attested violations of human rights and fundamental freedoms occurring in any part of the world and under any circumstances.
- Complaint can be submitted by individuals, Groups or non-governmental organisations who claim to be victim of such violations or have direct or reliable knowledge of the same.
- Special Procedures are independent experts established by the Council. The council mandates, nominates, selects and appoints the respective mandate holders- individuals or group of individuals. These independent experts report annually to the Council from both thematic and country specific perspectives.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
- The High Commissioner for Human Rights is the principal Human Rights official of the United Nations.
- The UN High Commissioner for Human Rights is accountable to the Secretary General and is responsible for all activities of the Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights.
- In accordance with General Assembly resolution 48/141 the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights is appointed by the Secretary General of the UN and approved by the General Assembly with due regard to geographical rotation for a fixed term of four years with a possibility of one renewal for another fixed term of four years.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect
Incorrect
Solution : D
- The Human Rights Council is the main intergovernmental body within the United Nations responsible for promotion of human rights.
- Established in 2006 by the UNGA, it serves as an international forum for dialogue on human rights issues with UN officials and mandated experts, States, civil society and other participants.
- The Council consists of 47 member states elected directly and individually by a majority of 193 states of the United Nations General Assembly
- Elections take place every year and seats are equitably distributed among the five UN regional groups with one third of the members being renewed every year
- Membership is limited to two consecutive terms.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect
- The complaint procedure of the Council addresses consistent patterns of gross and reliably-attested violations of human rights and fundamental freedoms occurring in any part of the world and under any circumstances.
- Complaint can be submitted by individuals, Groups or non-governmental organisations who claim to be victim of such violations or have direct or reliable knowledge of the same.
- Special Procedures are independent experts established by the Council. The council mandates, nominates, selects and appoints the respective mandate holders- individuals or group of individuals. These independent experts report annually to the Council from both thematic and country specific perspectives.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
- The High Commissioner for Human Rights is the principal Human Rights official of the United Nations.
- The UN High Commissioner for Human Rights is accountable to the Secretary General and is responsible for all activities of the Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights.
- In accordance with General Assembly resolution 48/141 the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights is appointed by the Secretary General of the UN and approved by the General Assembly with due regard to geographical rotation for a fixed term of four years with a possibility of one renewal for another fixed term of four years.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following Nations
- India
- China
- Singapore
- Maldives
- Mauritius
How many of the above Nations are members of the Columbus security concave?
Correct
Solution: B
- The Columbo Security Conclave is a regional group in that consists of India, Sri Lanka, Mauritius and Maldives.
- It was initially known as Trilateral for Maritime Security Cooperation that evolved out of trilateral meetings between National Security Advisors (NSA) and Deputy NSAs from India, Maldives and Sri Lanka starting in 2011
- it was re- branded as Columbo Security Conclave in 2020, Mauritius being added as a member of the grouping.
- At present along with the four members, Bangladesh and Seychelles are two observer Nations
- the Conclave focuses on five pillars viz., Maritime security and safety, countering terrorism and radicalisation, combating trafficking and Transnational organised crime, cyber security and protection of critical infrastructure, and humanity and assistance and disaster relief permanent
- The Secretariat was established in 2021 in Colombo, Sri Lanka to co-ordinate all activities and implement decisions made at the NSA level.
- Recently India’s National Security Advisor participated in the sixth NSA meeting of the Colombo Security Conclave.
Hence option B is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Columbo Security Conclave is a regional group in that consists of India, Sri Lanka, Mauritius and Maldives.
- It was initially known as Trilateral for Maritime Security Cooperation that evolved out of trilateral meetings between National Security Advisors (NSA) and Deputy NSAs from India, Maldives and Sri Lanka starting in 2011
- it was re- branded as Columbo Security Conclave in 2020, Mauritius being added as a member of the grouping.
- At present along with the four members, Bangladesh and Seychelles are two observer Nations
- the Conclave focuses on five pillars viz., Maritime security and safety, countering terrorism and radicalisation, combating trafficking and Transnational organised crime, cyber security and protection of critical infrastructure, and humanity and assistance and disaster relief permanent
- The Secretariat was established in 2021 in Colombo, Sri Lanka to co-ordinate all activities and implement decisions made at the NSA level.
- Recently India’s National Security Advisor participated in the sixth NSA meeting of the Colombo Security Conclave.
Hence option B is correct.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsThe Indo- Pacific Regional Dialogue is organised annually by the
Correct
Solution: B
- The Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue is the annual international conference of the Indian Navy.
- It is organised by the National Maritime Foundation the knowledge partner of Indian Navy.
- The forum is intended to review various Maritime trends within the Indo-Pacific region as well as analyse the opportunities and challenges that arise regionally and to promote the exchange of solution oriented dialogue among the key stakeholders.
National Maritime Foundation
- It was established in 2005 as the country’s first independent and autonomous Maritime think tank for conducting independent policy relevant research
- Its organisation and development is supported by the Ministry of Defence and the Indian Navy.
Hence option B is correct
Incorrect
Solution: B
- The Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue is the annual international conference of the Indian Navy.
- It is organised by the National Maritime Foundation the knowledge partner of Indian Navy.
- The forum is intended to review various Maritime trends within the Indo-Pacific region as well as analyse the opportunities and challenges that arise regionally and to promote the exchange of solution oriented dialogue among the key stakeholders.
National Maritime Foundation
- It was established in 2005 as the country’s first independent and autonomous Maritime think tank for conducting independent policy relevant research
- Its organisation and development is supported by the Ministry of Defence and the Indian Navy.
Hence option B is correct
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD):
- KFD produces a haemorrhagic disease in infected human beings.
- Hard ticks or Hemaphysalis spinigera are the reservoirs of KFD virus.
- It is a zoonotic disease localized in the southern part of India.
- KFD virus can cause epizootics with high fatality in primates.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Kyasanur forest disease (KFD) was first recognised as a febrile illness in the Shimoga district of Karnataka state of India.
Statement 1 is correct: The causative agent, KFD virus is a pathogenic member in the family Flaviviridae, producing a haemorrhagic disease in infected human beings.
Statement 2 is correct: Hard ticks (Hemaphysalis spinigera) are the reservoir of KFD virus and once infected, remain so for life. Rodents, shrews, and monkeys are common hosts for KFDV after being bitten by an infected tick.
Statement 3 is correct: KFD is a zoonotic disease and has so far been localised only in a southern part of India.
Statement 4 is correct: KFDV can cause epizootics with high fatality in primates.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Kyasanur forest disease (KFD) was first recognised as a febrile illness in the Shimoga district of Karnataka state of India.
Statement 1 is correct: The causative agent, KFD virus is a pathogenic member in the family Flaviviridae, producing a haemorrhagic disease in infected human beings.
Statement 2 is correct: Hard ticks (Hemaphysalis spinigera) are the reservoir of KFD virus and once infected, remain so for life. Rodents, shrews, and monkeys are common hosts for KFDV after being bitten by an infected tick.
Statement 3 is correct: KFD is a zoonotic disease and has so far been localised only in a southern part of India.
Statement 4 is correct: KFDV can cause epizootics with high fatality in primates.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Currency Devaluation, consider the following statements:
- It occurs when a government changes the fixed exchange rate of its currency.
- It helps in shrinking trade deficits but increases the cost of a country’s exports.
- It changes the balance of trade in the favour of the devaluing country.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Devaluation occurs when a government changes the fixed exchange rate of its currency.
Most currencies traded on foreign exchange markets are not pegged to another currency, and the market determines their value with floating exchange rates.
Devaluation occurs when a country creates a downward adjustment of its currency value to balance trade.
Devaluing a currency reduces the cost of a country’s exports and makes imports less attractive.
Statement 2 is not correct: Devaluing a currency reduces the cost of a country’s exports and can help shrink trade deficits.
Statement 3 is correct: Devaluation causes a shift in international trade, changing the balance of trade in favour of the devaluing country.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Devaluation occurs when a government changes the fixed exchange rate of its currency.
Most currencies traded on foreign exchange markets are not pegged to another currency, and the market determines their value with floating exchange rates.
Devaluation occurs when a country creates a downward adjustment of its currency value to balance trade.
Devaluing a currency reduces the cost of a country’s exports and makes imports less attractive.
Statement 2 is not correct: Devaluing a currency reduces the cost of a country’s exports and can help shrink trade deficits.
Statement 3 is correct: Devaluation causes a shift in international trade, changing the balance of trade in favour of the devaluing country.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Fresh Mint:
- This herb is a native of Southeast Asia which grows easily on moist soils and is resistant to flooding.
- In India, it is found in the North-eastern states and is known as masunduri across the region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
Fish mint is a herb with white flowers and broad, heart-shaped leaves. Unlike its appearance, it has a fish-like taste and smell.
Statement 1 is correct: The herb which is a native of Southeast Asia grows easily on moist soils and is resistant to flooding.
Statement 2 is not correct: In India, fish mint is used in the North-eastern states and is known by different names across the region.
In Meghalaya, it is known as ja mardoh whereas it is commonly called tokning-khok in Manipur. The herb is used in vegetables and salads in both the states.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
Fish mint is a herb with white flowers and broad, heart-shaped leaves. Unlike its appearance, it has a fish-like taste and smell.
Statement 1 is correct: The herb which is a native of Southeast Asia grows easily on moist soils and is resistant to flooding.
Statement 2 is not correct: In India, fish mint is used in the North-eastern states and is known by different names across the region.
In Meghalaya, it is known as ja mardoh whereas it is commonly called tokning-khok in Manipur. The herb is used in vegetables and salads in both the states.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following Organisations launched the CALIPSO (Cloud-Aerosol Lidar and Infrared Pathfinder Satellite Observation) Mission?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: The CALIPSO (Cloud-Aerosol Lidar and Infrared Pathfinder Satellite Observation) mission is a lidar satellite that advanced the world’s understanding of climate, weather and air quality.
- Lidar and radar are considered “active” sensors because they direct beams of energy at the Earth — laser light in the case of CALIPSO and radio waves in the case of CloudSat — and then measure how the beams reflect off the clouds and aerosols in the atmosphere.
- It was launched jointly by NASA and France’s CNES (Centre National d’Etudes Spatiales) or National Centre for Space Studies of France along with the cloud-profiling radar system on the CloudSat satellite.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: The CALIPSO (Cloud-Aerosol Lidar and Infrared Pathfinder Satellite Observation) mission is a lidar satellite that advanced the world’s understanding of climate, weather and air quality.
- Lidar and radar are considered “active” sensors because they direct beams of energy at the Earth — laser light in the case of CALIPSO and radio waves in the case of CloudSat — and then measure how the beams reflect off the clouds and aerosols in the atmosphere.
- It was launched jointly by NASA and France’s CNES (Centre National d’Etudes Spatiales) or National Centre for Space Studies of France along with the cloud-profiling radar system on the CloudSat satellite.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Project Mariana, consider the following statements:
- It was jointly launched by the International Monetary Fund and the Reserve Bank of India.
- It tests the cross-border trading of the central banks’ digital currencies between the financial institutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) and the central banks of France, Singapore and Switzerland successfully concluded Project Mariana.
- Statement 2 is correct: The project tested the cross-border trading and settlement of wholesale central bank digital currencies (wCBDCs) between financial institutions, using new decentralised finance (DeFi) technology concepts on a public blockchain.
- Project Mariana was developed jointly by three BIS Innovation Hub centres (the Swiss, Singapore and Eurosystem Hub Centres) together with Bank of France, Monetary Authority of Singapore and Swiss National Bank.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) and the central banks of France, Singapore and Switzerland successfully concluded Project Mariana.
- Statement 2 is correct: The project tested the cross-border trading and settlement of wholesale central bank digital currencies (wCBDCs) between financial institutions, using new decentralised finance (DeFi) technology concepts on a public blockchain.
- Project Mariana was developed jointly by three BIS Innovation Hub centres (the Swiss, Singapore and Eurosystem Hub Centres) together with Bank of France, Monetary Authority of Singapore and Swiss National Bank.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following countries
-
- Armenia
- Azerbaijan
- Syria
- Iraq
- Romania
- Bulgaria
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a border with Turkey?
Correct
Solution: C
Turkey is a country in the Middle East, Caucasus, Balkans, and eastern Mediterranean. It’s one of the largest countries in the region by population and land area, and its land is larger than any European country. Turkey is a peninsula that connects Asia and Europe, and is surrounded by the Mediterranean, Black, and Aegean Seas.
Turkey borders eight countries: Bulgaria to the northwest; Greece to the west, Georgia to the northeast; Armenia, Azerbaijan (the exclave of Nakhichevan),and Iran to the east; and Iraq and Syria to the southeast.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Turkey is a country in the Middle East, Caucasus, Balkans, and eastern Mediterranean. It’s one of the largest countries in the region by population and land area, and its land is larger than any European country. Turkey is a peninsula that connects Asia and Europe, and is surrounded by the Mediterranean, Black, and Aegean Seas.
Turkey borders eight countries: Bulgaria to the northwest; Greece to the west, Georgia to the northeast; Armenia, Azerbaijan (the exclave of Nakhichevan),and Iran to the east; and Iraq and Syria to the southeast.
-
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 points- Consider the following statements regarding Institute Of Cost Accountants Of India
- It is a statutory body established under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.
- It is the only recognised statutory professional organisation and licensing body in India specialising exclusively in Cost and Management Accountancy.
- It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Finance.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Institute Of Cost Accountants Of India:
- It is a statutory body established by an act of Parliament, the Cost and Works Accountants Act, 1959.
- It is the only recognised statutory professional organisation and licensing body in India specialising exclusively in Cost and Management Accountancy.
- It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
The ICAI’s responsibilities include:
- Regulating the cost and management accountancy profession
- Enrolling students for its courses
- Providing coaching facilities to students
- Organizing professional development programs for members
- Conducting research in the field of cost and management accountancy
Incorrect
Solution: A
Institute Of Cost Accountants Of India:
- It is a statutory body established by an act of Parliament, the Cost and Works Accountants Act, 1959.
- It is the only recognised statutory professional organisation and licensing body in India specialising exclusively in Cost and Management Accountancy.
- It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
The ICAI’s responsibilities include:
- Regulating the cost and management accountancy profession
- Enrolling students for its courses
- Providing coaching facilities to students
- Organizing professional development programs for members
- Conducting research in the field of cost and management accountancy
- Consider the following statements regarding Institute Of Cost Accountants Of India
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Parole
-
- Parole is a system of releasing a prisoner with a suspension of the sentence.
- Parole is considered as a matter of right for a prisoner, to be granted periodically irrespective of any reason.
- State governments have their own Prisoner Release on Parole Rules.
- Parole can be granted only after serving at least one year of the sentence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Parole:
- Parole is a system of releasing a prisoner with a suspension of the sentence.
- The release is conditional, usually subject to behaviour, and requires periodic reporting to the authorities for a set period of time.
- It is not a right of a prisoner and may be denied to a prisoner even when he makes out a sufficient case.
- Parole can be granted only after serving at least one year of the sentence.
- State governments have their own Prisoner Release on Parole Rules. ‘Prisons’ is a State subject under the State List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Parole:
- Parole is a system of releasing a prisoner with a suspension of the sentence.
- The release is conditional, usually subject to behaviour, and requires periodic reporting to the authorities for a set period of time.
- It is not a right of a prisoner and may be denied to a prisoner even when he makes out a sufficient case.
- Parole can be granted only after serving at least one year of the sentence.
- State governments have their own Prisoner Release on Parole Rules. ‘Prisons’ is a State subject under the State List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
-
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Tulsidas
-
- He was a contemporary of Babur.
- He wrote ‘Ramcharit Manas’ in Avadi language.
- He founded the Sankatmochan Temple in Varanasi, which is dedicated to Lord Hanuman.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Tulsidas:
- He was a contemporary of Akbar.
- He wrote ‘Ramcharit Manas’ in the language of Avadi
- He founded the Sankatmochan Temple dedicated to Lord Hanuman in Varanasi, believed to stand at the place where he had the sight of the deity
- Tulsidas started the Ramlila plays, a folk-theatre adaption of the Ramayana
- Other works of Tulsidas include: Dohavali, Sahitya ratna or Ratna Ramayan, Gitavali , Krishna Gitavali or Krishnavali and Vinaya Patrika
Incorrect
Solution: B
Tulsidas:
- He was a contemporary of Akbar.
- He wrote ‘Ramcharit Manas’ in the language of Avadi
- He founded the Sankatmochan Temple dedicated to Lord Hanuman in Varanasi, believed to stand at the place where he had the sight of the deity
- Tulsidas started the Ramlila plays, a folk-theatre adaption of the Ramayana
- Other works of Tulsidas include: Dohavali, Sahitya ratna or Ratna Ramayan, Gitavali , Krishna Gitavali or Krishnavali and Vinaya Patrika
-
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsApatani Tribe is often seen in the news, is found in which of the following state?
Correct
Solution: D
The Apatani, also known as the Tanw, are an ethnic group of people who live in the Ziro valley of Arunachal Pradesh, India. They are known for their traditional village council called bulyañ, which supervises and guides community activities. They are also known for their fish and paddy culture, stick and bamboo creation, and traditional town boards called bulya. The Apatani weave is made by the tribe for ceremonies and social celebrations, and is known for its mathematical and crisscross patterns and rakish shape.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Apatani, also known as the Tanw, are an ethnic group of people who live in the Ziro valley of Arunachal Pradesh, India. They are known for their traditional village council called bulyañ, which supervises and guides community activities. They are also known for their fish and paddy culture, stick and bamboo creation, and traditional town boards called bulya. The Apatani weave is made by the tribe for ceremonies and social celebrations, and is known for its mathematical and crisscross patterns and rakish shape.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsDirections : ( 26-27 Q) Study the following table carefully to answer the given questions
The no. of appeared candidates from state MP increased by 70% from 2005 to 2006 then what is the number of Qualified students in 2006 in the same state?
Correct
Correct Answer: C) 366
Explanation:
430*170/100 = 430+301 = 731
Qualified = 731*50/100 = 365.5 = 366Incorrect
Correct Answer: C) 366
Explanation:
430*170/100 = 430+301 = 731
Qualified = 731*50/100 = 365.5 = 366 -
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThe no of students qualified from Assam in 2007 is 246, then what is the ratio of Qualified students and not Qualified students in the same year in Assam?
Correct
Correct Answer: B) 41: 59
Explanation :
41% = 246
100% = 600
246:354 = 41 : 59Incorrect
Correct Answer: B) 41: 59
Explanation :
41% = 246
100% = 600
246:354 = 41 : 59 -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsIf the radius of cone is increased by 50% and height is decreased by 40%, then find the percentage change in the volume ?
Correct
Option A) 55% decrease
Let radius of cone = 100
after increased radius of cone = 100 + 50 = 150
ratio = 2 : 3
let height of cone = 100
after decreased radius of cone = 100 – 40 = 60
ratio = 5 : 3
volume = 1/3 * πr^2h = 1/3 * 22/7 * 4 * 5 = 440 / 21
volume = 1/3 * πr^2h = 1/3 * 22/7 * 3 * 3 = 198/21
decrease = 242 / 440 * 100 = 55%
Incorrect
Option A) 55% decrease
Let radius of cone = 100
after increased radius of cone = 100 + 50 = 150
ratio = 2 : 3
let height of cone = 100
after decreased radius of cone = 100 – 40 = 60
ratio = 5 : 3
volume = 1/3 * πr^2h = 1/3 * 22/7 * 4 * 5 = 440 / 21
volume = 1/3 * πr^2h = 1/3 * 22/7 * 3 * 3 = 198/21
decrease = 242 / 440 * 100 = 55%
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThe main concern of cyber warfare is through attacking the physical backbone of the Internet — submarine cables. About 97 per cent of all international data is carried out on such cables, according to the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation forum. Often, academicians and strategists fail to acknowledge that cutting or sabotaging a Fibre Optic submerged cable carrying Internet traffic, with the intent to disrupt traffic and cause losses, is an action of cyber warfare, where neither a DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack nor a Zero Day vulnerability is exploited, but sabotagers get successful in bringing in an Internet blackout in a region or state.
Which of the following is the key focus area of the passage ?
Correct
Ans. C. The focus of the passage is on recognising the physical destruction of undersea cables, which does not come under the traditional way of cyber warfare. Hence C is the focus area.
Incorrect
Ans. C. The focus of the passage is on recognising the physical destruction of undersea cables, which does not come under the traditional way of cyber warfare. Hence C is the focus area.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsHotels and restaurants need to sharpen their communication to customers to enable them to order optimally. For example, minimum and maximum number of people attending events, like conferences and weddings, must be given more accurately so that the waste is minimised. A methodology should be developed by the food industry for levying charges for food waste, which will naturally result in waste reduction. In San Francisco, Germany and Singapore, restaurants have categorically stated that if food is wasted, an extra charge will be levied. Other examples of simple messaging to customers include a signboard in a McDonalds outlet in Gurgaon: ‘30 per cent less wastage, 100 per cent credit to you. Thanks for making every sachet of ketchup count.’ Similarly, a small roadside restaurant in South India has a message on food waste, which reads, ‘Food waste does not matter to me or you, but it matters to the country. If you waste, pay extra.’ The intention here is not to make money, but to make the customer conscious and thus help
Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference of the passage?
Correct
Ans. A. The focus of the passage is on explaining how the problem of food wastage can be tackled by appropriate steps and messaging. Hence A is the most logical and critical inference.
Incorrect
Ans. A. The focus of the passage is on explaining how the problem of food wastage can be tackled by appropriate steps and messaging. Hence A is the most logical and critical inference.
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