[MISSION 2024] RTM(Revision through MCQs)- 3 February 2024

Ans: (c )

Explanation:

• Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs) are agreements between two countries that are designed to protect and promote foreign investments. These treaties typically include provisions to ensure fair and equitable treatment of investors, protection against expropriation without compensation, and mechanisms for resolving investment disputes. While trade may benefit indirectly from increased investment, the primary focus of BITs is on creating a favorable environment for foreign investors by offering legal protections and guarantees. Therefore, option C is the correct statement.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/03/bilateral-investment-treaty-with-u-a-e/

Ans: (c )

Explanation:

• Statement 1: This statement is true. A BIT is an international agreement between two countries that outlines the legal framework for foreign investment between them. It aims to create a stable and predictable environment for investors and promote cross-border investment flows.
• Statement 2: This statement is also true. A BIT typically contains reciprocal obligations and benefits for investors from both countries. This means that each country agrees to offer certain protections and guarantees to investors from the other country, creating a level playing field.
• Statement 3: This statement is true as well. Many BITs include mechanisms for resolving disputes that may arise between an investor and the host country. These mechanisms often involve international arbitration, offering investors a neutral forum to settle their claims.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/03/bilateral-investment-treaty-with-u-a-e/

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

• The Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund (AHIDF) was announced under the Atma Nirbhar Bharat Abhiyan stimulus package with a fund allocation of Rs. 15,000 crore.
• The objective of AHIDF is to incentivize investments by various entities, including individual entrepreneurs, private companies, MSMEs, Farmers Producers Organizations (FPOs), and Section 8 companies, in establishing dairy processing and value addition infrastructure, meat processing and value addition infrastructure, and animal feed plants.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/03/animal-husbandry-infrastructure-development-fund/

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

• The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
• The Tribunal’s dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), statutory organisation, was constituted in September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
• Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, (i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and (ii) to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
• Hence, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/03/new-guidelines-for-environmental-regulatory-bodies/

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

• The black-crowned night heron, known locally as ‘Chongkhu’ in Manipur, is a medium-sized species belonging to the heron family found in various parts of the world.
• They prefer freshwater wetlands like swamps, marshes, and rice paddies, and are mainly nocturnal birds that feed on fish, frogs, insects, and other small animals.
• These solitary hunters use sharp beaks to spear prey in shallow water.
• Some populations are migratory, travelling long distances between breeding and wintering grounds.
• The global population of black-crowned night herons is considered stable, classified as Least Concern by the IUCN, but they face threats such as habitat loss, pollution, and hunting.

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/03/black-crowned-night-heron/

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

• A botnet is a network of compromised computers, known as bots or zombies, that are controlled by a central server, often referred to as a botmaster. The primary purpose of botnets is to perform coordinated actions, usually without the knowledge or consent of the owners of the compromised computers. These actions may include sending spam emails, launching distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks, stealing sensitive information, or engaging in other malicious activities.
• About Volt Typhoon:
  • The Volt Typhoon campaign, first identified in May 2023, expanded its operations and modified techniques, prompting the U.S. to seek assistance from private technology companies.
  • Volt Typhoon employs a botnet of vulnerable digital devices globally to conceal downstream attacks into sensitive targets, making it challenging for cyber defenders to detect foreign footprints

Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/02/03/volt-typhoon-2/

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

• Statement 1: Once a law is enacted and included in the Ninth Schedule, it gets protection under Article 31-B (validation of certain Acts and Regulations) and is not subject to judicial scrutiny.
• The Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) was introduced by the former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru to keep certain laws, particularly those on land reforms beyond the scope of judicial review.
• Statement 2: The mandate of ninth schedule is to prevent judicial scrutiny but in a landmark ruling in IR Coelho versus State of Tamil Nadu, 2007, the Supreme Court of India ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to Judicial Review if they violated the basic structure of the constitution. The Supreme Court judgment laid that the laws placed under Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973. Shall be open to challenge in court if they violated fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 14, 19, 20 and 21 of the Constitution

Refer: UPSC CSE 2018

Ans: (c )

Explanation:

• MDR is a fee charged from a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from customers through credit and debit cards in their establishments. MDR compensates the card issuing bank, the lender which puts the PoS terminal and payment gateways such as MasterCard or Visa for their services.
• MDR charges are usually shared in pre-agreed proportions between the bank and a merchant and are expressed in percentage of transaction amount.

Refer: UPSC CSE 2018

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

• S1 and S2: The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of two sets of Guidelines for nuclear exports and nuclear-related exports. But becoming the member of the ‘Nuclear Suppliers Group’ will NOT automatically make a country a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT).
• The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a multilateral export control regime and a group of nuclear supplier countries that seek to prevent nuclear proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment and technology that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons.
• Membership of the NSG enables access to technology for a range of uses from medicine to building nuclear power plants for India from the NSG which is essentially a traders’ cartel.
• Source: http://www.nuclearsuppliersgroup.org/en/

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

• Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to extinguish a public or private debt, or meet a financial obligation. The national currency is legal tender in practically every country. A creditor is obligated to accept legal tender toward repayment of a debt.
• Option C: Cheques are not legal tenders since they can be refused as a mode of payment settlement by a party.

Refer: UPSC CSE 2018