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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
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- It is a multilateral treaty aimed at limiting the spread of nuclear weapons.
- It does not affect the right of state parties to develop, produce, and use nuclear energy for peaceful purposes.
- Both India and Pakistan have not signed the treaty.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
- The NPT is a multilateral treaty aimed at limiting the spread of nuclear weapons including three elements: (1) non-proliferation, (2) disarmament, and (3) peaceful use of nuclear energy.
- These elements constitute a “grand bargain” between the five nuclear weapon states and the non-nuclear weapon states.
- The treaty was signed in 1968 and entered into force in 1970. As of August 2016, 191 states have adhered to the treaty.
- Though North Korea, acceded in 1985 but never came into compliance, announced its withdrawal from the NPT in 2003. Four states—India, Israel, Pakistan, and South Sudan—have never signed the treaty.
- Key provisions:
- The Treaty defines nuclear weapon states (NWS) as those that had manufactured and detonated a nuclear explosive device prior to 1 January 1967. All the other states are therefore considered non-nuclear weapon states (NNWS).
- The five nuclear weapon states are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
- The Treaty does not affect the right of state parties to develop, produce, and use nuclear energy for peaceful purposes.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/global-nuclear-order-gno-is-under-strain/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
- The NPT is a multilateral treaty aimed at limiting the spread of nuclear weapons including three elements: (1) non-proliferation, (2) disarmament, and (3) peaceful use of nuclear energy.
- These elements constitute a “grand bargain” between the five nuclear weapon states and the non-nuclear weapon states.
- The treaty was signed in 1968 and entered into force in 1970. As of August 2016, 191 states have adhered to the treaty.
- Though North Korea, acceded in 1985 but never came into compliance, announced its withdrawal from the NPT in 2003. Four states—India, Israel, Pakistan, and South Sudan—have never signed the treaty.
- Key provisions:
- The Treaty defines nuclear weapon states (NWS) as those that had manufactured and detonated a nuclear explosive device prior to 1 January 1967. All the other states are therefore considered non-nuclear weapon states (NNWS).
- The five nuclear weapon states are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
- The Treaty does not affect the right of state parties to develop, produce, and use nuclear energy for peaceful purposes.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/global-nuclear-order-gno-is-under-strain/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT):
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- It prohibits “any nuclear weapon test explosion or any other nuclear explosion” anywhere in the world.
- India is not a member of the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty.
- The Treaty’s entry into force depends on 44 specific States that must have signed and ratified the Treaty.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- The CTBT is a global treaty, adopted by the United Nations in 1996, aimed at prohibiting all nuclear explosions for military or peaceful purposes. However, it has not yet entered into force due to the incomplete ratification process by several countries.
- About the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT):
- The origins of the CTBT can be traced back to the arms race between the United States and the Soviet Union, which conducted numerous nuclear tests from 1945 to 1996, causing concerns about the environmental and health impacts of radioactive fallout.
- Various attempts to limit nuclear testing were made, including the Limited Nuclear Test-Ban Treaty in 1963, which prohibited tests in the atmosphere, outer space, and underwater but allowed underground testing.
- The CTBT, established in 1996, sought to impose a complete ban on explosive nuclear testing, taking advantage of reduced geopolitical tensions after the end of the Cold War. Despite its adoption, some countries have conducted nuclear tests since then, including India, Pakistan, and North Korea.
- The treaty requires ratification by 44 specific countries with nuclear technology, and eight of them, including China, Egypt, India, Iran, Israel, North Korea, Pakistan, and the United States, have yet to do so.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/global-nuclear-order-gno-is-under-strain/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- The CTBT is a global treaty, adopted by the United Nations in 1996, aimed at prohibiting all nuclear explosions for military or peaceful purposes. However, it has not yet entered into force due to the incomplete ratification process by several countries.
- About the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT):
- The origins of the CTBT can be traced back to the arms race between the United States and the Soviet Union, which conducted numerous nuclear tests from 1945 to 1996, causing concerns about the environmental and health impacts of radioactive fallout.
- Various attempts to limit nuclear testing were made, including the Limited Nuclear Test-Ban Treaty in 1963, which prohibited tests in the atmosphere, outer space, and underwater but allowed underground testing.
- The CTBT, established in 1996, sought to impose a complete ban on explosive nuclear testing, taking advantage of reduced geopolitical tensions after the end of the Cold War. Despite its adoption, some countries have conducted nuclear tests since then, including India, Pakistan, and North Korea.
- The treaty requires ratification by 44 specific countries with nuclear technology, and eight of them, including China, Egypt, India, Iran, Israel, North Korea, Pakistan, and the United States, have yet to do so.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/global-nuclear-order-gno-is-under-strain/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about the Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW).
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- It is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear weapons.
- It was passed in 1974 after India conducted its first nuclear test.
- The treaty prohibits the development, testing, production, stockpiling, transfer and use of nuclear weapons for all the UN member countries.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a )
Explanation:
- The Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW), or the Nuclear Weapon Ban Treaty, is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear weapons, with the goal of leading towards their total elimination. It was adopted on 7 July 2017, opened for signature on 20 September 2017, and entered into force on 22 January 2021.
- For those nations that are party to it (not all UN members), the treaty prohibits the development, testing, production, stockpiling, stationing, transfer, use and threat of use of nuclear weapons, as well as assistance and encouragement to the prohibited activities. For nuclear armed states joining the treaty, it provides for a time-bound framework for negotiations leading to the verified and irreversible elimination of its nuclear weapons programme.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/global-nuclear-order-gno-is-under-strain/
Incorrect
Ans: (a )
Explanation:
- The Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW), or the Nuclear Weapon Ban Treaty, is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear weapons, with the goal of leading towards their total elimination. It was adopted on 7 July 2017, opened for signature on 20 September 2017, and entered into force on 22 January 2021.
- For those nations that are party to it (not all UN members), the treaty prohibits the development, testing, production, stockpiling, stationing, transfer, use and threat of use of nuclear weapons, as well as assistance and encouragement to the prohibited activities. For nuclear armed states joining the treaty, it provides for a time-bound framework for negotiations leading to the verified and irreversible elimination of its nuclear weapons programme.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/global-nuclear-order-gno-is-under-strain/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
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- IAEA is entrusted with the task of upholding the principles of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty of 1970.
- IAEA works with its member states and multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.
- It was established under the UN treaty and it reports to both the UN General Assembly and the UN Security Council.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 3 is wrong.
- As the preeminent nuclear watchdog under the UN, the IAEA is entrusted with the task of upholding the principles of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty of 1970.
- Established as an autonomous organisation on July 29, 1957, at the height of the Cold War between the U.S. and the Soviet Union, the IAEA claims that it “works with its member states and multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies”.
- Though established independently of the UN through its own international treaty (not Un treaty), the agency reports to both the UN General Assembly and the Security Council.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/global-nuclear-order-gno-is-under-strain/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 3 is wrong.
- As the preeminent nuclear watchdog under the UN, the IAEA is entrusted with the task of upholding the principles of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty of 1970.
- Established as an autonomous organisation on July 29, 1957, at the height of the Cold War between the U.S. and the Soviet Union, the IAEA claims that it “works with its member states and multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies”.
- Though established independently of the UN through its own international treaty (not Un treaty), the agency reports to both the UN General Assembly and the Security Council.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/global-nuclear-order-gno-is-under-strain/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsArrange the following Treaties for Nuclear disarmament in the chronological order of entering into force.
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- Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT)
- Treaty on Non-proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)
- Partial Test Ban Treaty (PTBT)
Select the correct answer code:
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/global-nuclear-order-gno-is-under-strain/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/global-nuclear-order-gno-is-under-strain/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs[GI tagged products: States belong to]:
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- Adi Kekir: Odisha
- Kalonunia Rice: Arunachal Pradesh
- Anardana: Gujarat
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Arunachal Pradesh Handmade Carpets: Artisan-crafted carpets. Wancho Wooden Craft: Ethnic art practiced by Wancho tribes. Adi Kekir (Ginger): Ginger variety. West Bengal Tangail Saree, Garad Saree, Korial Saree: Traditional sarees. Kalonunia Rice: Rice variety. Sundarban Honey: Honey from the Sundarbans J&K Anardana: Pomegranate product from Ramban. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/gi-tag-products/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Arunachal Pradesh Handmade Carpets: Artisan-crafted carpets. Wancho Wooden Craft: Ethnic art practiced by Wancho tribes. Adi Kekir (Ginger): Ginger variety. West Bengal Tangail Saree, Garad Saree, Korial Saree: Traditional sarees. Kalonunia Rice: Rice variety. Sundarban Honey: Honey from the Sundarbans J&K Anardana: Pomegranate product from Ramban. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/gi-tag-products/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs[GI tagged products: States belong to]:
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- Khajuri Guda: Odisha
- Wancho Wooden Craft: Arunachal Pradesh
- Kachchhi Kharek: Gujarat
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Odisha:
- Lanjia Saura paintings: Wall mural art with spiritual importance.
- Dongaria Kondh shawl: Unique and ancient knitted shawls reflecting culture and beliefs.
- Khajuri Guda: Natural sweetener made from date palm juice.
- Dhenkanal Magji: Milk product.
- Similipal Kai Chutney: Chutney is made from indigenous Kai fruit.
- Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal: Vegetable crop with prickly thorns.
- Koraput Kalajeera Rice: Rice variety from Koraput.
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Handmade Carpets: Artisan-crafted carpets.
- Wancho Wooden Craft: Ethnic art practiced by Wancho tribes.
- Adi Kekir (Ginger): Ginger variety.
- Gujarat: Kachchhi Kharek: Local product from Gujarat.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/gi-tag-products/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Odisha:
- Lanjia Saura paintings: Wall mural art with spiritual importance.
- Dongaria Kondh shawl: Unique and ancient knitted shawls reflecting culture and beliefs.
- Khajuri Guda: Natural sweetener made from date palm juice.
- Dhenkanal Magji: Milk product.
- Similipal Kai Chutney: Chutney is made from indigenous Kai fruit.
- Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal: Vegetable crop with prickly thorns.
- Koraput Kalajeera Rice: Rice variety from Koraput.
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Handmade Carpets: Artisan-crafted carpets.
- Wancho Wooden Craft: Ethnic art practiced by Wancho tribes.
- Adi Kekir (Ginger): Ginger variety.
- Gujarat: Kachchhi Kharek: Local product from Gujarat.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/gi-tag-products/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).
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- It is a constitutional body that provides free legal services to weaker sections of society.
- The Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief of NALSA.
- In every State, the State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Context: Supreme Court judge Justice BR Gavai has been nominated as the Chairman of the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee (SCLSC), succeeding Justice Sanjiv Khanna.
- Statement 1 is not correct.
- NALSA has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide free legal services to weaker sections of society.
- The aim is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reasons of economic or other disabilities.
- Composition:
- As per section 3(2) of Legal Service Authorities Act, the Chief Justice of India shall be the Patron-in-Chief.
- Second senior-most judge of the Supreme Court of India is the Executive-Chairman.
- State legal services authorities:
- In every State, State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State. The State Legal Services Authority is headed by Hon’ble the Chief Justice of the respective High Court who is the Patron-in-Chief of the State Legal Services Authority.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/supreme-court-legal-services-committee-sclsc/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Context: Supreme Court judge Justice BR Gavai has been nominated as the Chairman of the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee (SCLSC), succeeding Justice Sanjiv Khanna.
- Statement 1 is not correct.
- NALSA has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide free legal services to weaker sections of society.
- The aim is to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reasons of economic or other disabilities.
- Composition:
- As per section 3(2) of Legal Service Authorities Act, the Chief Justice of India shall be the Patron-in-Chief.
- Second senior-most judge of the Supreme Court of India is the Executive-Chairman.
- State legal services authorities:
- In every State, State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people and conduct Lok Adalats in the State. The State Legal Services Authority is headed by Hon’ble the Chief Justice of the respective High Court who is the Patron-in-Chief of the State Legal Services Authority.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/supreme-court-legal-services-committee-sclsc/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to new rules for the allocation of symbols to Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) by the Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following statements:
- audited accounts of the last five financial years
- expenditure statements of the last two elections
- authorized office-bearer’s signature for symbol allocation
How many of the above documents must be provided by the RUPPs to become eligible for the concession of common symbol allotment by ECI?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Context: The Election Commission of India has introduced new rules for the allocation of symbols to Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs).
- What are RUPPs?
- RUPPs, or Registered Unrecognised Political Parties, include newly registered parties, those not meeting the vote percentage for state party status, or those never contesting elections post-registration.
- Only 30% of RUPPs participated in the 2019 Lok Sabha election. They are governed by the Representation of the People Act (RPA) of 1951. Common symbols are provided to RUPPs based upon an undertaking that they would put up “at least 5% of total candidates with regard to said Legislative Assembly election of a State”.
- What are the new rules?
- Under new rules effective from January 11, 2024, Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) must provide audited accounts of the last three (not Five years) financial years, expenditure statements of the last two elections, and the authorized office-bearer’s signature for symbol allocation. Once these details are furnished, RUPPs become eligible for the concession of common symbol allotment, allocated as per the Election Symbols (Reservation & Allotment) Order, 1968.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/registered-unrecognised-political-parties-rupps/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Context: The Election Commission of India has introduced new rules for the allocation of symbols to Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs).
- What are RUPPs?
- RUPPs, or Registered Unrecognised Political Parties, include newly registered parties, those not meeting the vote percentage for state party status, or those never contesting elections post-registration.
- Only 30% of RUPPs participated in the 2019 Lok Sabha election. They are governed by the Representation of the People Act (RPA) of 1951. Common symbols are provided to RUPPs based upon an undertaking that they would put up “at least 5% of total candidates with regard to said Legislative Assembly election of a State”.
- What are the new rules?
- Under new rules effective from January 11, 2024, Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) must provide audited accounts of the last three (not Five years) financial years, expenditure statements of the last two elections, and the authorized office-bearer’s signature for symbol allocation. Once these details are furnished, RUPPs become eligible for the concession of common symbol allotment, allocated as per the Election Symbols (Reservation & Allotment) Order, 1968.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/registered-unrecognised-political-parties-rupps/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS), consider the following statements:
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- The AePS is a bank-led model facilitating online interoperable financial transactions through Aadhaar authentication.
- It is managed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), a joint initiative of the RBI and SEBI.
- Transactions via AePS require only the bank name, Aadhaar number, and captured fingerprint during Aadhaar enrollment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
What is AePS? The AePS is a bank-led model facilitating online interoperable financial transactions through Aadhaar authentication. It is managed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), a joint initiative of the RBI and IBA. Aimed at providing secure access to banking services, especially for rural and marginalized communities. Working Eliminates the need for OTPs, bank details, and other financial information. Transactions require only the bank name, Aadhaar number, and captured fingerprint during Aadhaar enrollment. Benefits: Facilitates cash transfers for government schemes directly into beneficiaries’ accounts; Allows access to bank accounts through any Banking Correspondent or micro-ATM of any bank Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/aadhaar-enabled-payment-system-aeps-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
What is AePS? The AePS is a bank-led model facilitating online interoperable financial transactions through Aadhaar authentication. It is managed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), a joint initiative of the RBI and IBA. Aimed at providing secure access to banking services, especially for rural and marginalized communities. Working Eliminates the need for OTPs, bank details, and other financial information. Transactions require only the bank name, Aadhaar number, and captured fingerprint during Aadhaar enrollment. Benefits: Facilitates cash transfers for government schemes directly into beneficiaries’ accounts; Allows access to bank accounts through any Banking Correspondent or micro-ATM of any bank Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2024/01/06/aadhaar-enabled-payment-system-aeps-2/
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