Quiz-summary
0 of 10 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
Information
The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
To view Solutions, follow these instructions:
-
Click on – ‘Start Quiz’ button
-
Solve Questions
-
Click on ‘Quiz Summary’ button
-
Click on ‘Finish Quiz’ button
-
Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links.
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 10 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
| Average score |
|
| Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
-
New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
| Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Table is loading | ||||
| No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsInternational Labour Organisation, Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Context: The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Labour, Textiles, and Skill Development has highlighted the need for a uniform definition of ‘child’ under various laws in the effort to eliminate child labour by 2025.
- ILO Conventions on the issue:
- The ILO Convention No. 182, which deals with the worst forms of child labour as well as ILO Convention No. 138, that deals with the minimum age for employment, are the two main global conventions on the issue.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/parliamentary-committee-on-child-labour/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Context: The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Labour, Textiles, and Skill Development has highlighted the need for a uniform definition of ‘child’ under various laws in the effort to eliminate child labour by 2025.
- ILO Conventions on the issue:
- The ILO Convention No. 182, which deals with the worst forms of child labour as well as ILO Convention No. 138, that deals with the minimum age for employment, are the two main global conventions on the issue.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/parliamentary-committee-on-child-labour/
-
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- Article 24 – There is a provision under which a child below the age of 14 years cannot be employed in any mine, factory or hazardous workplace.
- Article 39(f) – The child’s youth and childhood are to be protected against moral and material abandonment and exploitation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation: Indian Constitution provisions in this regard:
- Article 21(A) and Article 45 – The child has the right to Education i.e. the state shall provide compulsory and free education to the children of the age six to 14 years.
- Article 24 – There is a provision under which a child below the age of 14 years cannot be employed in any mine, factory or hazardous workplace.
- Article 39(f) – The child’s youth and childhood are to be protected against moral and material abandonment and exploitation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/parliamentary-committee-on-child-labour/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation: Indian Constitution provisions in this regard:
- Article 21(A) and Article 45 – The child has the right to Education i.e. the state shall provide compulsory and free education to the children of the age six to 14 years.
- Article 24 – There is a provision under which a child below the age of 14 years cannot be employed in any mine, factory or hazardous workplace.
- Article 39(f) – The child’s youth and childhood are to be protected against moral and material abandonment and exploitation.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/parliamentary-committee-on-child-labour/
-
-
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- Every year since its inception, the Sahitya Akademi Award prizes to the most outstanding books of literary merit published in any of the major Indian languages recognised by the Akademi.
- The first Awards were given in 1957.
- The award amount, which was Rs.5,000 since inception, had been enhanced to 500,000 from 2011.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Context: The Sahitya Akademi has announced the winners of its Annual Sahitya Akademi Awards for the year 2023 in 24 languages.
- Only statement 1 is correct.
- Every year since its inception in 1954, the Sahitya Akademi Award prizes to the most outstanding books of literary merit published in any of the major Indian languages recognised by the Akademi. The award amount, which was Rs.5,000 since inception, had been enhanced to Rs.10,000 from 1983, Rs.25,000 from 1988, Rs.40,000 from 2001, Rs.50,000 from 2003 and is now 1,00,000 from 2009. The first Awards were given in 1955.
- The Sahitya Akademi Award is a literary honour given annually by India’s National Academy of Letters. The award recognizes and promotes excellence in writing and acknowledges new trends.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/sahitya-akademi-awards-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Context: The Sahitya Akademi has announced the winners of its Annual Sahitya Akademi Awards for the year 2023 in 24 languages.
- Only statement 1 is correct.
- Every year since its inception in 1954, the Sahitya Akademi Award prizes to the most outstanding books of literary merit published in any of the major Indian languages recognised by the Akademi. The award amount, which was Rs.5,000 since inception, had been enhanced to Rs.10,000 from 1983, Rs.25,000 from 1988, Rs.40,000 from 2001, Rs.50,000 from 2003 and is now 1,00,000 from 2009. The first Awards were given in 1955.
- The Sahitya Akademi Award is a literary honour given annually by India’s National Academy of Letters. The award recognizes and promotes excellence in writing and acknowledges new trends.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/sahitya-akademi-awards-2/
-
-
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Geological Survey of India:
-
- It was founded in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham.
- It conducts geological surveys and studies, providing essential earth science information to government, industry, and the public.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b )
Explanation:
- The Geological Survey of India (GSI) (HQ: Kolkata) is a scientific agency founded in 1851 under the Ministry of Mines. It conducts geological surveys and studies, providing essential earth science information to government, industry, and the public. As one of the world’s oldest organizations of its kind, GSI actively participates in various industries and international geoscientific forums.
- Formed in 1851 by East India Company, the organization’s roots can be traced to 1836 when the “Coal Committee”, followed by more such committees, was formed to study and explore the availability of coal in the eastern parts of India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/national-geoscience-data-repository-ngdr-portal/
Incorrect
Ans: (b )
Explanation:
- The Geological Survey of India (GSI) (HQ: Kolkata) is a scientific agency founded in 1851 under the Ministry of Mines. It conducts geological surveys and studies, providing essential earth science information to government, industry, and the public. As one of the world’s oldest organizations of its kind, GSI actively participates in various industries and international geoscientific forums.
- Formed in 1851 by East India Company, the organization’s roots can be traced to 1836 when the “Coal Committee”, followed by more such committees, was formed to study and explore the availability of coal in the eastern parts of India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/national-geoscience-data-repository-ngdr-portal/
-
-
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about FAME Scheme
-
- The Department of Heavy Industry is implementing the FAME-India Scheme.
- It was launched under the National Electric Mobility Mission (NEMM).
- Commercial vehicles and buses are not covered under the scheme.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
- About FAME Scheme:
- Background FAME India is part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan, aiming to encourage electric vehicles through subsidies across all vehicle segments.
- Phases of the Scheme Phase I: Started in 2015 and completed on March 31, 2019.
- Phase II: Started in April 2019 and concluded on March 31, 2022.
- Technologies Covered Hybrid and electric technologies, including Mild Hybrid, Strong Hybrid, Plug-in Hybrid and Battery Electric Vehicles.
- Monitoring Authority Department of Heavy Industries, Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises.
- Focus Areas of the Scheme Technology development; Demand creation; Pilot projects; Charging infrastructure
- Objectives of the Scheme Encourage faster adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles through upfront incentives; Establish necessary charging infrastructure for electric vehicles.
- Salient Features of Phase II of FAME Emphasis on electrification of public transportation, including shared transport; Incentives primarily for vehicles used in public transport or registered for commercial purposes; Benefits extended to vehicles with advanced batteries like Lithium-Ion batteries.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
- About FAME Scheme:
- Background FAME India is part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan, aiming to encourage electric vehicles through subsidies across all vehicle segments.
- Phases of the Scheme Phase I: Started in 2015 and completed on March 31, 2019.
- Phase II: Started in April 2019 and concluded on March 31, 2022.
- Technologies Covered Hybrid and electric technologies, including Mild Hybrid, Strong Hybrid, Plug-in Hybrid and Battery Electric Vehicles.
- Monitoring Authority Department of Heavy Industries, Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises.
- Focus Areas of the Scheme Technology development; Demand creation; Pilot projects; Charging infrastructure
- Objectives of the Scheme Encourage faster adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles through upfront incentives; Establish necessary charging infrastructure for electric vehicles.
- Salient Features of Phase II of FAME Emphasis on electrification of public transportation, including shared transport; Incentives primarily for vehicles used in public transport or registered for commercial purposes; Benefits extended to vehicles with advanced batteries like Lithium-Ion batteries.
-
-
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with reference to Namdapha National Park:
-
- It is a large protected area in Assam of Northeast India.
- It harbors extensive dipterocarp forests.
- The Namdapha flying squirrel is endemic to the park and critically endangered.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation
- Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
- S1: Namdapha National Park is a large protected area in Arunachal Pradesh of Northeast India. It is a biodiversity hotspot in the Eastern Himalayas.
- S2: The national park harbours the northernmost lowland evergreen rainforests in the world at 27°N latitude. It also harbours extensive dipterocarp forests, comprising the northwestern parts of the Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rain forests ecoregion. It is the fourth largest national park in India.
- S3: The Namdapha flying squirrel was first collected in the park and described. It is endemic to the park and critically endangered. It was last recorded in 1981 in a single valley within the park.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/namdapha-flying-squirrel/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation
- Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
- S1: Namdapha National Park is a large protected area in Arunachal Pradesh of Northeast India. It is a biodiversity hotspot in the Eastern Himalayas.
- S2: The national park harbours the northernmost lowland evergreen rainforests in the world at 27°N latitude. It also harbours extensive dipterocarp forests, comprising the northwestern parts of the Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rain forests ecoregion. It is the fourth largest national park in India.
- S3: The Namdapha flying squirrel was first collected in the park and described. It is endemic to the park and critically endangered. It was last recorded in 1981 in a single valley within the park.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/namdapha-flying-squirrel/
-
-
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Namdapha Flying Squirrel
-
- It is classified as Critically Endangered (CR) by the IUCN.
- It is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a )
Explanation:
- Context: The Namdapha flying squirrel, missing for 42 years, has been rediscovered in Arunachal Pradesh.
- Last described in 1981, the species was thought to be extinct or confused with a similar species.
- About Namdapha Flying Squirrel
- It is classified as Critically Endangered (CR) by the IUCN and is listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act. Located in Namdapha National Park, Arunachal Pradesh, it was one of the 25 “most wanted lost” species targeted by the Global Wildlife Conservation’s “Search for Lost Species” initiative.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/namdapha-flying-squirrel/
Incorrect
Ans: (a )
Explanation:
- Context: The Namdapha flying squirrel, missing for 42 years, has been rediscovered in Arunachal Pradesh.
- Last described in 1981, the species was thought to be extinct or confused with a similar species.
- About Namdapha Flying Squirrel
- It is classified as Critically Endangered (CR) by the IUCN and is listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act. Located in Namdapha National Park, Arunachal Pradesh, it was one of the 25 “most wanted lost” species targeted by the Global Wildlife Conservation’s “Search for Lost Species” initiative.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/namdapha-flying-squirrel/
-
-
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsRegarding the Maldives, which statements are accurate?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Context: The Maldives has expressed its intention to terminate a bilateral agreement with India that allowed collaboration in the hydrographic survey of Maldivian territorial waters.
- The Maldives is a South Asian archipelagic state in the Indian Ocean, southwest of Sri Lanka and India.
- It consists of about 1200 low-lying small coral islands and sandbanks
- Comprising 26 atolls, it is the smallest country in Asia and one of the world’s most geographically dispersed sovereign states. With a total area of about 90,000 square kilometres, including the sea, and a population of 521,021, it is the 2nd least-populous country in Asia. Malé is the capital, situated on the Chagos–Laccadive Ridge, making it the world’s lowest-lying country. Inhabited for over 2,500 years, the Maldives has a rich history influenced by Islam, and European colonial powers, and achieved independence from the United Kingdom in 1965.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/maldives-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Context: The Maldives has expressed its intention to terminate a bilateral agreement with India that allowed collaboration in the hydrographic survey of Maldivian territorial waters.
- The Maldives is a South Asian archipelagic state in the Indian Ocean, southwest of Sri Lanka and India.
- It consists of about 1200 low-lying small coral islands and sandbanks
- Comprising 26 atolls, it is the smallest country in Asia and one of the world’s most geographically dispersed sovereign states. With a total area of about 90,000 square kilometres, including the sea, and a population of 521,021, it is the 2nd least-populous country in Asia. Malé is the capital, situated on the Chagos–Laccadive Ridge, making it the world’s lowest-lying country. Inhabited for over 2,500 years, the Maldives has a rich history influenced by Islam, and European colonial powers, and achieved independence from the United Kingdom in 1965.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/12/22/maldives-2/
-
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Cabinet Mission, consider the following statements:
-
- It recommended a federal government.
- It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
- It provided for more Indians in the ICS.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation
- Only statement 1 is correct.
- The cabinet mission plan of 1946 proposed that there shall be a Union of India which was to be empowered to deal with the defense, foreign affairs and communications.
- The Union Government and its legislature were to have limited powers, dealing with Finance, Foreign Affairs and Communications. The union would have powers necessary to raise the finances to manage the subjects.
- All subjects other than the Union Subjects and all the residuary powers would be vested in the provinces.
- Thus, the Cabinet Mission plan proposed a weak Centre with Provincial autonomy – essentially proposing a federal structure of government.
- Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1946_Cabinet_Mission_to_India
Refer: UPSC CSE 2015
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation
- Only statement 1 is correct.
- The cabinet mission plan of 1946 proposed that there shall be a Union of India which was to be empowered to deal with the defense, foreign affairs and communications.
- The Union Government and its legislature were to have limited powers, dealing with Finance, Foreign Affairs and Communications. The union would have powers necessary to raise the finances to manage the subjects.
- All subjects other than the Union Subjects and all the residuary powers would be vested in the provinces.
- Thus, the Cabinet Mission plan proposed a weak Centre with Provincial autonomy – essentially proposing a federal structure of government.
- Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/1946_Cabinet_Mission_to_India
Refer: UPSC CSE 2015
-
-
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India.
- The area is also known for extensive Dipterocarp forests, comprising the northwestern parts of the ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rain forests.
- The habitat changes with increasing altitude from tropical moist forests to Montane forests, temperate forests and at the higher elevations, to Alpine meadows and perennial snow. The park has extensive bamboo forests and secondary forests in addition to the primary forests.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2015
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India.
- The area is also known for extensive Dipterocarp forests, comprising the northwestern parts of the ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rain forests.
- The habitat changes with increasing altitude from tropical moist forests to Montane forests, temperate forests and at the higher elevations, to Alpine meadows and perennial snow. The park has extensive bamboo forests and secondary forests in addition to the primary forests.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2015
Follow us on our Official TELEGRAM Channel HERE
Subscribe to Our Official YouTube Channel HERE
Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE
Official Facebook Page HERE
Follow our Twitter Account HERE
Follow our Instagram Account HERE
Follow us on LinkedIn: HERE









