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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985.
- The anti-defection law was passed through the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution.
- Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the Election Commission of India.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S3: Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House.
- S1 and 2: The anti-defection law was passed in 1985 through the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution. The law that was contained in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution came into effect on March 1, 1985. It was formulated to bring in stability in the Indian political system.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/supreme-court-verdict-on-rahul-gandhis-conviction-case/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S3: Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House.
- S1 and 2: The anti-defection law was passed in 1985 through the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution. The law that was contained in the 10th Schedule of the Constitution came into effect on March 1, 1985. It was formulated to bring in stability in the Indian political system.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/supreme-court-verdict-on-rahul-gandhis-conviction-case/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
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- An MLA has the right to participate in proceedings of the House regardless of pendency of any petitions for disqualification.
- At present, the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India protects defectors as long as one-third of the members of a political party formed a separate group.
- The freedom of expression of legislators in the House, or intra-party dissent, fall within the purview of anti-defection laws.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Passing a unanimous judgement on the various issues related to the split in Shiv Sena in June 2022, the Supreme Court made strong observations about the role of the then Governor of Maharashtra and the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly.
- Not intervening in the proceedings, the SC said the issue of disqualification ought to be decided as per established procedures in law and the Speaker is the appropriate authority for this under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, which lays down the anti-defection law.
- The court also clarified that an MLA has the right to participate in proceedings of the House regardless of pendency of any petitions for disqualification.
- Paragraph 3 of the Tenth Schedule protected defectors as long as one-third of the members of a political party formed a separate group. It was removed by the Constitution (91st Amendment) Act, 2003, which came into effect on January 1, 2004.
- The court said that the power of the Governor to act without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers is of an extraordinary nature, and must be exercised with circumspection within the limits of law.
- The court said that as per provisions of the Representation of the People Act, an association of individuals calling itself a political party has to be registered with the EC.
- The freedom of expression of legislators in the House, or intra-party dissent, cannot fall within the purview of anti-defection laws.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/supreme-court-verdict-on-rahul-gandhis-conviction-case/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Passing a unanimous judgement on the various issues related to the split in Shiv Sena in June 2022, the Supreme Court made strong observations about the role of the then Governor of Maharashtra and the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly.
- Not intervening in the proceedings, the SC said the issue of disqualification ought to be decided as per established procedures in law and the Speaker is the appropriate authority for this under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, which lays down the anti-defection law.
- The court also clarified that an MLA has the right to participate in proceedings of the House regardless of pendency of any petitions for disqualification.
- Paragraph 3 of the Tenth Schedule protected defectors as long as one-third of the members of a political party formed a separate group. It was removed by the Constitution (91st Amendment) Act, 2003, which came into effect on January 1, 2004.
- The court said that the power of the Governor to act without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers is of an extraordinary nature, and must be exercised with circumspection within the limits of law.
- The court said that as per provisions of the Representation of the People Act, an association of individuals calling itself a political party has to be registered with the EC.
- The freedom of expression of legislators in the House, or intra-party dissent, cannot fall within the purview of anti-defection laws.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/supreme-court-verdict-on-rahul-gandhis-conviction-case/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
- The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
- The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Since S3 is clearly incorrect, the answer must be A.
- According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit.
- The Supreme Court recently held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid. See https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Supreme-Court-upholds-office-of-profit-law/article16876481.ece
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/supreme-court-verdict-on-rahul-gandhis-conviction-case/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Since S3 is clearly incorrect, the answer must be A.
- According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of Constitution, legislators (MP or MLA) can be barred from holding office of profit under Central Government or state government as it can put them in position to gain financial benefit.
- The Supreme Court recently held that the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Act, 2006 exempting 55 offices occupied by members of Parliament from disqualification was constitutionally valid. See https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/Supreme-Court-upholds-office-of-profit-law/article16876481.ece
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/supreme-court-verdict-on-rahul-gandhis-conviction-case/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsThe provisions in the Tenth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- “The Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 added the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution to curb the growing tendency of political defections by parliamentarians and legislators from one party to another after elections.”
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/supreme-court-verdict-on-rahul-gandhis-conviction-case/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- “The Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 added the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution to curb the growing tendency of political defections by parliamentarians and legislators from one party to another after elections.”
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/supreme-court-verdict-on-rahul-gandhis-conviction-case/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
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- Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha have the same rights and privileges as elected members of Rajya Sabha with the right to vote in the election of the President.
- The anti-defection law was not present in the original Constitution.
- The Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha are subjected to disqualification, if they join a political party within six months of being nominated to the House.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution.
- The law specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by MPs invite action under the law. The law covers three types of scenarios with respect to an MP switching parties. The first is when a member elected on the ticket of a political party “voluntarily gives up” membership of such a party or votes in the House contrary to the wishes of the party. The second possibility is when an MP who has won his or her seat as an independent candidate after the election joins a political party. In both these instances, the MP lose the seat in the House on changing (or joining) a party.
- The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/supreme-court-verdict-on-rahul-gandhis-conviction-case/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- In 1985 the Tenth Schedule, popularly known as the anti-defection law, was added to the Constitution.
- The law specifies the circumstances under which changing of political parties by MPs invite action under the law. The law covers three types of scenarios with respect to an MP switching parties. The first is when a member elected on the ticket of a political party “voluntarily gives up” membership of such a party or votes in the House contrary to the wishes of the party. The second possibility is when an MP who has won his or her seat as an independent candidate after the election joins a political party. In both these instances, the MP lose the seat in the House on changing (or joining) a party.
- The third scenario relates to nominated MPs. In their case, the law specifies that within six months of being nominated to the House, they can choose to join a political party.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/supreme-court-verdict-on-rahul-gandhis-conviction-case/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS):
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- It is an initiative of the Asia Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC).
- It aims to achieve a single common currency and create a large trading bloc for member nations.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Context: In the ongoing crisis in Niger, where a military coup ousted the president, ECOWAS has been active.
- The Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) is a regional bloc established in 1975 with the goal of promoting economic integration among its 15 member countries in West Africa.
- Members: These countries include Benin, Burkina Faso, Cape Verde, Cote d’Ivoire, The Gambia, Ghana, Guinea, Guinea Bissau, Liberia, Mali, Niger, Nigeria, Sierra Leone, Senegal, and Togo.
- Aim: ECOWAS aims to achieve a single common currency and create a large trading bloc in various sectors like industry, transport, telecommunications, energy, finance, and culture.
- The organization is committed to democratic principles, the rule of law, and good governance.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/economic-community-of-west-african-states-ecowas-3/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Context: In the ongoing crisis in Niger, where a military coup ousted the president, ECOWAS has been active.
- The Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) is a regional bloc established in 1975 with the goal of promoting economic integration among its 15 member countries in West Africa.
- Members: These countries include Benin, Burkina Faso, Cape Verde, Cote d’Ivoire, The Gambia, Ghana, Guinea, Guinea Bissau, Liberia, Mali, Niger, Nigeria, Sierra Leone, Senegal, and Togo.
- Aim: ECOWAS aims to achieve a single common currency and create a large trading bloc in various sectors like industry, transport, telecommunications, energy, finance, and culture.
- The organization is committed to democratic principles, the rule of law, and good governance.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/economic-community-of-west-african-states-ecowas-3/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
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- Genetic predisposition of some people
- Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
- Using antibiotics in livestock farming
- Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1 and S2: Selection of resistant microorganisms is exacerbated by inappropriate use of antimicrobials since a number of microbes are resistant to these anti-biotics. So, S1 is irrelevant to MDR.
- The practice of adding antibiotics to agricultural feed promotes drug resistance.
- S3: As per WHO, the high volume of antibiotics in food-producing animals contributes to the development of antimicrobial-resistant bacteria, particularly in settings of intensive animal production. These bacteria can be transmitted from animals to humans via direct contact between animals and humans, or through the food chain and the environment. See https://www.who.int/foodsafety/areas_work/antimicrobial-resistance/amrfoodchain/en/
- S4: This is a confusing option, nonetheless seems correct.
- Many medical advances are dependent on the ability to fight infections using antibiotics, such as for treatment of chronic diseases like diabetes, asthma, and rheumatoid arthritis (See https://www.cdc.gov/drugresistance/about.html), and thus, multiple chronic diseases in some people may lead them to take more anti-biotics than others exacerbating the problem.
- Sometimes healthcare providers prescribe antimicrobials inappropriately, wishing to placate an insistent patient who has a viral infection or an as-yet undiagnosed condition. At times there could be a wrong identification of the disease. All these worsen the problem. Whether this is actually a reason or not is hard to testify unless we find a solid evidence, but based on reasoning alone this would be correct.
- Also, MDR provokes obstruction in disease control by intensifying the possibility of spreading of resistant pathogens, thus, declining efficacy of treatment and, hence, resulting in prolonged time of infection in patient. See https://www.hindawi.com/journals/ipid/2014/541340/
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/air-pollution-linked-to-rise-in-antibiotic-resistance/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- S1 and S2: Selection of resistant microorganisms is exacerbated by inappropriate use of antimicrobials since a number of microbes are resistant to these anti-biotics. So, S1 is irrelevant to MDR.
- The practice of adding antibiotics to agricultural feed promotes drug resistance.
- S3: As per WHO, the high volume of antibiotics in food-producing animals contributes to the development of antimicrobial-resistant bacteria, particularly in settings of intensive animal production. These bacteria can be transmitted from animals to humans via direct contact between animals and humans, or through the food chain and the environment. See https://www.who.int/foodsafety/areas_work/antimicrobial-resistance/amrfoodchain/en/
- S4: This is a confusing option, nonetheless seems correct.
- Many medical advances are dependent on the ability to fight infections using antibiotics, such as for treatment of chronic diseases like diabetes, asthma, and rheumatoid arthritis (See https://www.cdc.gov/drugresistance/about.html), and thus, multiple chronic diseases in some people may lead them to take more anti-biotics than others exacerbating the problem.
- Sometimes healthcare providers prescribe antimicrobials inappropriately, wishing to placate an insistent patient who has a viral infection or an as-yet undiagnosed condition. At times there could be a wrong identification of the disease. All these worsen the problem. Whether this is actually a reason or not is hard to testify unless we find a solid evidence, but based on reasoning alone this would be correct.
- Also, MDR provokes obstruction in disease control by intensifying the possibility of spreading of resistant pathogens, thus, declining efficacy of treatment and, hence, resulting in prolonged time of infection in patient. See https://www.hindawi.com/journals/ipid/2014/541340/
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/air-pollution-linked-to-rise-in-antibiotic-resistance/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhat is Havana Syndrome?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About Havana Syndrome:
- Havana Syndrome refers to a set of mental health symptoms experienced by US intelligence and embassy officials in various countries. These symptoms include hearing unusual sounds, nausea, vertigo, headaches, memory loss, and balance issues. The syndrome originated in Cuba in 2016, affecting US officials there, and has since been reported in multiple countries.
- While the exact cause of Havana Syndrome is not certain, it was initially suspected to be related to a “sonic attack” due to the sudden onset of symptoms. Later research suggested that high-powered microwaves might be involved, damaging or interfering with the nervous system.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/havana-syndrome-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About Havana Syndrome:
- Havana Syndrome refers to a set of mental health symptoms experienced by US intelligence and embassy officials in various countries. These symptoms include hearing unusual sounds, nausea, vertigo, headaches, memory loss, and balance issues. The syndrome originated in Cuba in 2016, affecting US officials there, and has since been reported in multiple countries.
- While the exact cause of Havana Syndrome is not certain, it was initially suspected to be related to a “sonic attack” due to the sudden onset of symptoms. Later research suggested that high-powered microwaves might be involved, damaging or interfering with the nervous system.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/havana-syndrome-2/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Omkareshwar Dam is built on the Narmada river.
- Narmada river flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- NTPC Renewable Energy Limited has successfully secured a bid for an 80 MW floating solar project at the Omkareshwar Reservoir in Khandwa, Madhya Pradesh.
- The largest floating solar project in India is a 100 MW installation located at NTPC Ramagundam in Telangana.
- The Omkareshwar Dam is a gravity dam on the Narmada River just upstream of Mandhata in Khandwa district, Madhya Pradesh, India. It is named after the Omkareshwar temple located just downstream.
- Narmada river flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat in India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/mapping-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- NTPC Renewable Energy Limited has successfully secured a bid for an 80 MW floating solar project at the Omkareshwar Reservoir in Khandwa, Madhya Pradesh.
- The largest floating solar project in India is a 100 MW installation located at NTPC Ramagundam in Telangana.
- The Omkareshwar Dam is a gravity dam on the Narmada River just upstream of Mandhata in Khandwa district, Madhya Pradesh, India. It is named after the Omkareshwar temple located just downstream.
- Narmada river flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat in India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/08/09/mapping-2/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority(CGWA).
- CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
- India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: About 29% are such, not 26%. Out of the 5723 assessment units assessed jointly by State Ground Water Departments and CGWB in the country, 4078 are safe (71%), 550 are semi critical (10%), 226 are critical (4%) and 839 are over exploited (15%). See https://niti.gov.in/planningcommission.gov.in/docs/reports/genrep/rep_grndwat.pdf
- S2: Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) constituted under Section 3(3) of ‘The Environment (Protection) Act, (1986)’ regulates extraction of ground water through guidelines which are updated regularly.
- S3: At 39 million hectares (67% of its total irrigation), India has the world’s largest groundwater well equipped irrigation system (China with 19 mha is second, USA with 17 mha is third).
Refer: UPSC CSE 2020
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- S1: About 29% are such, not 26%. Out of the 5723 assessment units assessed jointly by State Ground Water Departments and CGWB in the country, 4078 are safe (71%), 550 are semi critical (10%), 226 are critical (4%) and 839 are over exploited (15%). See https://niti.gov.in/planningcommission.gov.in/docs/reports/genrep/rep_grndwat.pdf
- S2: Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) constituted under Section 3(3) of ‘The Environment (Protection) Act, (1986)’ regulates extraction of ground water through guidelines which are updated regularly.
- S3: At 39 million hectares (67% of its total irrigation), India has the world’s largest groundwater well equipped irrigation system (China with 19 mha is second, USA with 17 mha is third).
Refer: UPSC CSE 2020
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