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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Hoysalas:
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- Hoysalas were feudatories of chalukyas of Kalyana.
- Sala was the founder of this dynasty.
- Hoysalas patronized Shaivism, Vaishnavism and Jainism.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Hoysalas were feudatories of chalukyas of Kalyana.
- Dwarasamudra(Halebeedu) was their capital.
- Sala was the founder of this dynasty.
- He was succeeded by Vinayaditya and Balalla 1.
- Hoysalas patronized Shaivism, Vaishnavism and Jainism.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/mandyas-hoysala-legacy/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Hoysalas were feudatories of chalukyas of Kalyana.
- Dwarasamudra(Halebeedu) was their capital.
- Sala was the founder of this dynasty.
- He was succeeded by Vinayaditya and Balalla 1.
- Hoysalas patronized Shaivism, Vaishnavism and Jainism.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/mandyas-hoysala-legacy/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about ‘ARTEMIS Accord’:
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- The ARTEMIS Accord is an international agreement aimed at promoting peaceful and cooperative exploration of outer space.
- The ARTEMIS Accord was signed by 12 countries, including the United States, Canada, and several European nations.
- The ARTEMIS Accord focuses on establishing guidelines for lunar mining and resource utilization.
- The ARTEMIS Accord was developed under the auspices of the United Nations.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
About The Artemis Accords are a set of non-binding principles established by NASA, in coordination with the U.S. Department of State, and signed by multiple countries involved in civil space exploration and International Cooperation. Origin NASA established the Artemis Accords in 2020, in collaboration with seven other nations: Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, UAE, and the UK. Immediate Objective The primary objective of the Artemis program, supported by the Accords, is to land the first woman and the first person of colour on the Moon by 2025. The program also aims to expand space exploration to Mars and beyond. Full Form Artemis stands for Acceleration, Reconnection, Turbulence, and Electrodynamics of the Moon’s Interaction with the Sun. Principles The Artemis Accords encompass several principles: Use of space for peaceful purposes Maintaining transparency in space activities Interoperability among participating nations Registration of space objects Preservation of space heritage De-confliction of space activities Management of space debris Goal The overarching goal of the Artemis Accords is to ensure the safety, sustainability, and peaceful exploration of outer space while fostering partnerships and cooperation among the participating nations. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/india-us-partnership/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
About The Artemis Accords are a set of non-binding principles established by NASA, in coordination with the U.S. Department of State, and signed by multiple countries involved in civil space exploration and International Cooperation. Origin NASA established the Artemis Accords in 2020, in collaboration with seven other nations: Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, UAE, and the UK. Immediate Objective The primary objective of the Artemis program, supported by the Accords, is to land the first woman and the first person of colour on the Moon by 2025. The program also aims to expand space exploration to Mars and beyond. Full Form Artemis stands for Acceleration, Reconnection, Turbulence, and Electrodynamics of the Moon’s Interaction with the Sun. Principles The Artemis Accords encompass several principles: Use of space for peaceful purposes Maintaining transparency in space activities Interoperability among participating nations Registration of space objects Preservation of space heritage De-confliction of space activities Management of space debris Goal The overarching goal of the Artemis Accords is to ensure the safety, sustainability, and peaceful exploration of outer space while fostering partnerships and cooperation among the participating nations. Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/india-us-partnership/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements about Flue Gas Desulphurisation (FGD) systems is true?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Context: One of the most polluting sectors of India – coal-based thermal power generation – was found to be brazenly flouting emission norms.
- Emission norms in place: The MoEFCC made it mandatory (in 2015) for thermal power plants to install a flue gas desulphurisation (FGD) system to remove sulphur dioxide from their exhaust.
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Context: One of the most polluting sectors of India – coal-based thermal power generation – was found to be brazenly flouting emission norms.
- Emission norms in place: The MoEFCC made it mandatory (in 2015) for thermal power plants to install a flue gas desulphurisation (FGD) system to remove sulphur dioxide from their exhaust.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements best defines secularism?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Secularism is a concept that promotes the idea of separating religious institutions and activities from the governance and policies of a state. It advocates for a neutral and impartial approach towards all religious beliefs, ensuring that no particular religion dominates or influences the functioning of the government and society. This principle allows individuals to freely exercise their religion or choose not to follow any religion without interference from the state. Option B accurately captures the essence of secularism by emphasizing its focus on the separation of religion and state. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they either promote religious dominance or impose religious beliefs, which are contradictory to the concept of secularism.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/kerala-mosque-spreads-a-secular-message/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Secularism is a concept that promotes the idea of separating religious institutions and activities from the governance and policies of a state. It advocates for a neutral and impartial approach towards all religious beliefs, ensuring that no particular religion dominates or influences the functioning of the government and society. This principle allows individuals to freely exercise their religion or choose not to follow any religion without interference from the state. Option B accurately captures the essence of secularism by emphasizing its focus on the separation of religion and state. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they either promote religious dominance or impose religious beliefs, which are contradictory to the concept of secularism.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/kerala-mosque-spreads-a-secular-message/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
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- The Suez Canal links the Caspian Sea and the Red Sea.
- The Lakshadweep group of Islands is divided by a ten-degree channel.
- The Panama Canal connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Pacific Ocean.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The islands of the Arabian sea include Lakshadweep and Minicoy. These are scattered between 8°N-12°N and 71°E -74°E longitude. The entire group of islands is broadly divided by the Eleventh-degree channel, north of which is the Amini Island and to the south of the Cannanore Island.
- Suez Canal was constructed in 1869 in Egypt between Port Said in the north and Port Suez in the south linking the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.
- The Panama Canal connects the Atlantic Ocean in the east to the Pacific Ocean in the west.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/heliopolis-memorial-in-egypt/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The islands of the Arabian sea include Lakshadweep and Minicoy. These are scattered between 8°N-12°N and 71°E -74°E longitude. The entire group of islands is broadly divided by the Eleventh-degree channel, north of which is the Amini Island and to the south of the Cannanore Island.
- Suez Canal was constructed in 1869 in Egypt between Port Said in the north and Port Suez in the south linking the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.
- The Panama Canal connects the Atlantic Ocean in the east to the Pacific Ocean in the west.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/heliopolis-memorial-in-egypt/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsLiaquat-Nehru Pact is related to
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Context: The Liaquat-Nehru Pact was a post-Partition agreement between India and Pakistan in 1950. The pact aimed to address the treatment of minorities in both countries and provide them with equal rights and security.
- However, the pact became a point of contention for Syama Prasad Mookerjee, a member of the Hindu Mahasabha and a part of Nehru’s first Union Cabinet.
- June 23rd is the 70th death anniversary of Syama Prasad Mookerjee
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/liaquat-nehru-pact/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Context: The Liaquat-Nehru Pact was a post-Partition agreement between India and Pakistan in 1950. The pact aimed to address the treatment of minorities in both countries and provide them with equal rights and security.
- However, the pact became a point of contention for Syama Prasad Mookerjee, a member of the Hindu Mahasabha and a part of Nehru’s first Union Cabinet.
- June 23rd is the 70th death anniversary of Syama Prasad Mookerjee
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/liaquat-nehru-pact/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about lab-grown meat:
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- It is made from animal stem cells.
- It has the same cellular structure as natural meat.
- It has a lower nutrient profile than natural meat.
- It does not require antibiotic treatment.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Statements 1, 2, and 4 are all correct. Lab-grown meat is made from animal stem cells, has the same cellular structure as natural meat, and does not require antibiotic treatment. Statement 3 is incorrect, as lab-grown meat can have a similar or even higher nutrient profile than natural meat.
- Statement 1: Lab-grown meat is made from animal stem cells. These cells are taken from an animal, such as a cow or a pig, and then cultured in a nutrient-rich broth. The cells grow and multiply, eventually forming muscle tissue that is identical to natural meat.
- Statement 2: Lab-grown meat has the same cellular structure as natural meat. This means that it has the same proteins, fats, and other nutrients as natural meat.
- Statement 3: Lab-grown meat has a lower nutrient profile than natural meat. This is not necessarily true. Lab-grown meat can have a similar or even higher nutrient profile than natural meat, depending on the way it is produced.
- Statement 4: Lab-grown meat does not require antibiotic treatment. This is because the cells are grown in a sterile environment, so there is no need to use antibiotics to prevent infection.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/lab-grown-meat/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Statements 1, 2, and 4 are all correct. Lab-grown meat is made from animal stem cells, has the same cellular structure as natural meat, and does not require antibiotic treatment. Statement 3 is incorrect, as lab-grown meat can have a similar or even higher nutrient profile than natural meat.
- Statement 1: Lab-grown meat is made from animal stem cells. These cells are taken from an animal, such as a cow or a pig, and then cultured in a nutrient-rich broth. The cells grow and multiply, eventually forming muscle tissue that is identical to natural meat.
- Statement 2: Lab-grown meat has the same cellular structure as natural meat. This means that it has the same proteins, fats, and other nutrients as natural meat.
- Statement 3: Lab-grown meat has a lower nutrient profile than natural meat. This is not necessarily true. Lab-grown meat can have a similar or even higher nutrient profile than natural meat, depending on the way it is produced.
- Statement 4: Lab-grown meat does not require antibiotic treatment. This is because the cells are grown in a sterile environment, so there is no need to use antibiotics to prevent infection.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/lab-grown-meat/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements about Nilotinib is true?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Context: The Medicines Patent Pool (MPP) has signed sub-licence agreements with some Indian companies, as well as an Indonesian firm to produce generic versions of the cancer drug Nilotinib.
- Nilotinib, used for treating chronic myeloid leukaemia, is currently marketed by Novartis under the brand name Tasigna.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/nilotinib/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Context: The Medicines Patent Pool (MPP) has signed sub-licence agreements with some Indian companies, as well as an Indonesian firm to produce generic versions of the cancer drug Nilotinib.
- Nilotinib, used for treating chronic myeloid leukaemia, is currently marketed by Novartis under the brand name Tasigna.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/nilotinib/
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements ‘Cord blood banking’:
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- Cord blood banking involves taking the umbilical cord blood, which is a rich source of stem cells, and preserving it for future use.
- Stem cells in cord blood can be used to strengthen the immune system during cancer treatments.
- Stem cells from cord blood can be given to more people and are less likely to cause rejection than those in bone marrow.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Cord blood banking involves taking the umbilical cord blood, which is a rich source of stem cells, and preserving it for future use.
- Using the stem cells in cord blood to treat a disease has the following benefits compared with using those in bone marrow:
- Stem cells from cord blood can be given to more people than those from bone marrow. More matches are possible when a cord blood transplant is used than when a bone marrow transplant is used. In addition, the stem cells in cord blood are less likely to cause rejectionthan those in bone marrow.
- It is harder to collect bone marrow than it is to collect cord blood. Collecting bone marrow poses some risks and can be painful for the donor.
- Cord blood can be frozen and stored. It is ready for anyone who needs it. Bone marrow must be used soon after it is collected.
- Stem cells in cord blood can be used to strengthen the immune system during cancer treatments. Bone marrow stem cells do not have this capability.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/cord-blood-banking-2/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Cord blood banking involves taking the umbilical cord blood, which is a rich source of stem cells, and preserving it for future use.
- Using the stem cells in cord blood to treat a disease has the following benefits compared with using those in bone marrow:
- Stem cells from cord blood can be given to more people than those from bone marrow. More matches are possible when a cord blood transplant is used than when a bone marrow transplant is used. In addition, the stem cells in cord blood are less likely to cause rejectionthan those in bone marrow.
- It is harder to collect bone marrow than it is to collect cord blood. Collecting bone marrow poses some risks and can be painful for the donor.
- Cord blood can be frozen and stored. It is ready for anyone who needs it. Bone marrow must be used soon after it is collected.
- Stem cells in cord blood can be used to strengthen the immune system during cancer treatments. Bone marrow stem cells do not have this capability.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/cord-blood-banking-2/
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ‘Quantum states of matter’:
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- Quantum states of matter are characterized by discrete energy levels.
- Quantum states of matter exhibit wave-particle duality.
- Quantum states of matter can display superposition and entanglement.
- Quantum states of matter are always in a state of absolute zero temperature.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1:The statement “Quantum states of matter are characterized by discrete energy levels” is correct. In quantum mechanics, particles in a physical system can only occupy certain energy levels, and the energy transitions between these levels are quantized. This characteristic is a fundamental aspect of quantum states of matter.
- S2: The statement “Quantum states of matter exhibit wave-particle duality” is also correct. According to quantum mechanics, particles such as electrons can behave both as particles and waves. This wave-particle duality is a fundamental concept in quantum physics and applies to quantum states of matter as well.
- S3: The statement “Quantum states of matter can display superposition and entanglement” is correct. Superposition refers to the ability of quantum systems to exist in multiple states simultaneously. Entanglement refers to the phenomenon where the quantum states of two or more particles become correlated in such a way that the state of one particle cannot be described independently of the other particles. Both superposition and entanglement are important properties of quantum states of matter.
- S4: The statement “Quantum states of matter are always in a state of absolute zero temperature” is incorrect. Quantum states of matter can exist at various temperatures, including absolute zero (the lowest possible temperature), but they are not limited to this state. Matter can exhibit quantum behavior at any temperature, and phenomena such as superconductivity and Bose-Einstein condensation are examples of quantum states of matter at non-zero temperatures.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/chiral-bose-liquid-state/
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- S1:The statement “Quantum states of matter are characterized by discrete energy levels” is correct. In quantum mechanics, particles in a physical system can only occupy certain energy levels, and the energy transitions between these levels are quantized. This characteristic is a fundamental aspect of quantum states of matter.
- S2: The statement “Quantum states of matter exhibit wave-particle duality” is also correct. According to quantum mechanics, particles such as electrons can behave both as particles and waves. This wave-particle duality is a fundamental concept in quantum physics and applies to quantum states of matter as well.
- S3: The statement “Quantum states of matter can display superposition and entanglement” is correct. Superposition refers to the ability of quantum systems to exist in multiple states simultaneously. Entanglement refers to the phenomenon where the quantum states of two or more particles become correlated in such a way that the state of one particle cannot be described independently of the other particles. Both superposition and entanglement are important properties of quantum states of matter.
- S4: The statement “Quantum states of matter are always in a state of absolute zero temperature” is incorrect. Quantum states of matter can exist at various temperatures, including absolute zero (the lowest possible temperature), but they are not limited to this state. Matter can exhibit quantum behavior at any temperature, and phenomena such as superconductivity and Bose-Einstein condensation are examples of quantum states of matter at non-zero temperatures.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/06/24/chiral-bose-liquid-state/
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