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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- An ordinance promulgated by the president cannot negate a Constitution Bench judgment of the Supreme Court of India.
- The Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCTD) has competence over all entries in List II and List III of the seventh schedule to the constitution of India.
- The executive power of NCTD is co-extensive with its legislative power.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Only statement 3 is correct.
On May 19, 2023, the President of India exercised legislative power under Article 123 of the Constitution, during the period Parliament was in recess, to promulgate The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Ordinance, 2023 (Ordinance). The ordinance negates a Constitution Bench judgment of the Supreme Court of India, which was delivered on May 11, that brought “services” under the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCTD).
While interpreting Article 239AA(3)(a), the Court ruled, inter alia, that these were the points: The Legislative Assembly of the NCTD has competence over entries in List II and List III, except for expressly excluded entries of List II (entries 1, 2, 18 are excluded); the executive power of NCTD is co-extensive with its legislative power, that is, it shall extend to all matters with respect to which it has power to legislate; the Union of India has executive power only over three entries in List II over which the NCTD does not have legislative competence (entries 1, 2, 18).
Thus, essentially, the Court interpreted that out of the 66 entries in List II (the State list), while the executive power of the Government of NCTD covers 63 entries, that of the Union of India is restricted to the remaining three: public order (entry 1), police (entry 2) and land (entry 18).
Consequently, executive power over “services” (entry 41) can be exercised exclusively by the Government of the NCTD. This interpretation of the Court is consistent with the wordings in Article 239AA(3)(a). But, this interpretation was negated by the Union of India, acting through its Council of Ministers under Article 74, by triggering extraordinary legislative power of the President under Article 123 in the promulgation of an ordinance on May 19.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Only statement 3 is correct.
On May 19, 2023, the President of India exercised legislative power under Article 123 of the Constitution, during the period Parliament was in recess, to promulgate The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Ordinance, 2023 (Ordinance). The ordinance negates a Constitution Bench judgment of the Supreme Court of India, which was delivered on May 11, that brought “services” under the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCTD).
While interpreting Article 239AA(3)(a), the Court ruled, inter alia, that these were the points: The Legislative Assembly of the NCTD has competence over entries in List II and List III, except for expressly excluded entries of List II (entries 1, 2, 18 are excluded); the executive power of NCTD is co-extensive with its legislative power, that is, it shall extend to all matters with respect to which it has power to legislate; the Union of India has executive power only over three entries in List II over which the NCTD does not have legislative competence (entries 1, 2, 18).
Thus, essentially, the Court interpreted that out of the 66 entries in List II (the State list), while the executive power of the Government of NCTD covers 63 entries, that of the Union of India is restricted to the remaining three: public order (entry 1), police (entry 2) and land (entry 18).
Consequently, executive power over “services” (entry 41) can be exercised exclusively by the Government of the NCTD. This interpretation of the Court is consistent with the wordings in Article 239AA(3)(a). But, this interpretation was negated by the Union of India, acting through its Council of Ministers under Article 74, by triggering extraordinary legislative power of the President under Article 123 in the promulgation of an ordinance on May 19.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Review Petition.
- The constitution of India does not mention anything about Review Petition.
- Usually a review takes place to correct grave errors that have resulted in the miscarriage of justice.
- It is not necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect.
A judgment of the Supreme Court becomes the law of the land, according to the Constitution. However, the Constitution, under Article 137, gives the Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments or orders. This departure from the Supreme Court’s final authority is entertained under specific, narrow grounds. So, when a review takes place, the law is that it is allowed not to take fresh stock of the case but to correct grave errors that have resulted in the miscarriage of justice.
Who can file a review petition?
It is not necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it. As per the Civil Procedure Code and the Supreme Court Rules, any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review. However, the court does not entertain every review petition filed. It exercises its discretion to allow a review petition only when it shows the grounds for seeking the review.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Statement 1 is incorrect.
A judgment of the Supreme Court becomes the law of the land, according to the Constitution. However, the Constitution, under Article 137, gives the Supreme Court the power to review any of its judgments or orders. This departure from the Supreme Court’s final authority is entertained under specific, narrow grounds. So, when a review takes place, the law is that it is allowed not to take fresh stock of the case but to correct grave errors that have resulted in the miscarriage of justice.
Who can file a review petition?
It is not necessary that only parties to a case can seek a review of the judgment on it. As per the Civil Procedure Code and the Supreme Court Rules, any person aggrieved by a ruling can seek a review. However, the court does not entertain every review petition filed. It exercises its discretion to allow a review petition only when it shows the grounds for seeking the review.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- In the last 5 years, sunflower oil constituted the maximum quantity of India’s edible oil imports.
- The majority of the edible oil consumed in India is produced domestically.
- More than 50 percent of India’s sunflower oil is consumed in south India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: a)
Only statement 3 is correct.
India consumes 23.5-24 million tonnes (mt) of cooking oil annually, out of which 13.5-14 mt is imported and the balance 9.5-10 mt produced from domestically cultivated seed.
Roughly 70% of the country’s sunflower oil consumption is in the South, with Maharashtra (10-15%) and other states making up the rest. One reason for this geographical skew has to do with sunflower being traditionally grown in Karnataka, Telangana, and Maharashtra.
Black Sea Grain Initiative agreement between Russia and Ukraine signed on July 22. The deal, brokered by the UN and Turkey, facilitated the safe navigation of vessels carrying grain and foodstuffs from three designated Ukrainian ports.
Incorrect
Solution: a)
Only statement 3 is correct.
India consumes 23.5-24 million tonnes (mt) of cooking oil annually, out of which 13.5-14 mt is imported and the balance 9.5-10 mt produced from domestically cultivated seed.
Roughly 70% of the country’s sunflower oil consumption is in the South, with Maharashtra (10-15%) and other states making up the rest. One reason for this geographical skew has to do with sunflower being traditionally grown in Karnataka, Telangana, and Maharashtra.
Black Sea Grain Initiative agreement between Russia and Ukraine signed on July 22. The deal, brokered by the UN and Turkey, facilitated the safe navigation of vessels carrying grain and foodstuffs from three designated Ukrainian ports.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mixed Reality.
- Mixed reality involves the blending of real and virtual worlds.
- It combines aspects of both virtual reality (VR) and augmented reality (AR).
- Physical and virtual objects cannot co-exist in mixed reality environments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution: b)
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Mixed reality or MR specifically, involves the blending of real and virtual worlds. Put simply, the MR experience viewed in the head-mounted display combines aspects of both virtual reality (VR) and augmented reality (AR).
The idea is to connect real environments to completely virtual ones.
Physical and virtual objects may co-exist in mixed reality environments and interact in real time.
Mixed reality has been used in applications across fields including design, education, entertainment, military training, healthcare, product content management, and human-in-the-loop operation of robots.
Incorrect
Solution: b)
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Mixed reality or MR specifically, involves the blending of real and virtual worlds. Put simply, the MR experience viewed in the head-mounted display combines aspects of both virtual reality (VR) and augmented reality (AR).
The idea is to connect real environments to completely virtual ones.
Physical and virtual objects may co-exist in mixed reality environments and interact in real time.
Mixed reality has been used in applications across fields including design, education, entertainment, military training, healthcare, product content management, and human-in-the-loop operation of robots.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
- In India, the National Cancer Awareness Day coincides with the birth anniversary of C.V. Raman.
- The discovery of radium and polonium, are known as the two most significant contributors to the fight against cancer.
- Nuclear energy radiotherapy is one of the most widely used therapies for cancer treatment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c)
National Cancer Awareness Day focuses on creating awareness of early diagnosis, precautions and treatment of Cancer. India began National Cancer Control Programme in 1975, focusing on establishing cancer treatment facilities in the nation. In 1984-85, the vision changed to focus on the early detection and prevention of cancer.
National Cancer Awareness Day was first announced in September 2014. This day coincides with the birth anniversary of the Nobel Prize winner Marie Curie, a scientist born in 1867.
She discovered radium and polonium, which are known as the two most significant contributors to the fight against cancer. Marie Curie’s work and discovery led to the development of nuclear energy radiotherapy that helps with cancer treatments.
Incorrect
Solution: c)
National Cancer Awareness Day focuses on creating awareness of early diagnosis, precautions and treatment of Cancer. India began National Cancer Control Programme in 1975, focusing on establishing cancer treatment facilities in the nation. In 1984-85, the vision changed to focus on the early detection and prevention of cancer.
National Cancer Awareness Day was first announced in September 2014. This day coincides with the birth anniversary of the Nobel Prize winner Marie Curie, a scientist born in 1867.
She discovered radium and polonium, which are known as the two most significant contributors to the fight against cancer. Marie Curie’s work and discovery led to the development of nuclear energy radiotherapy that helps with cancer treatments.
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