INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION PLAN 25-05-2023
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Defamation
- Defamation as the meaning of the word suggests is an injury to the reputation of a person resulting from a statement which is false.
- Defamation is defined in the Indian Constitution.
- Defamation is both a criminal and a civil offence in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Defamation as the meaning of the word suggests is an injury to the reputation of a person resulting from a statement which is false. A man’s reputation is treated as his property and if any person poses damage to property he is liable under the law, similarly, a person injuring the reputation of a person is also liable under the law. Defamation is defined in section 499 of Indian Penal Code 1860 and section 500 provides that a person committing an offense under this section is liable with simple imprisonment for a term of 2 years or fine or with both.
Defamation is both a criminal (which carries a prison sentence) and a civil offence (punishable through the award of damages) in India. The Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC) codifies the criminal law on defamation, whereas defamation is penalised as a civil offence under the law of torts.
Defamation is defined in Section 499, and the punishment is outlined in Section 500. The offence of defamation is defined as any spoken, written, or visual statement about another person designed to damage that person’s reputation. The conduct of any person addressing any public issue or expressing comments on a public performance an example of exceptions to this rule, as well as any imputation of truth required for the public benefit.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Defamation as the meaning of the word suggests is an injury to the reputation of a person resulting from a statement which is false. A man’s reputation is treated as his property and if any person poses damage to property he is liable under the law, similarly, a person injuring the reputation of a person is also liable under the law. Defamation is defined in section 499 of Indian Penal Code 1860 and section 500 provides that a person committing an offense under this section is liable with simple imprisonment for a term of 2 years or fine or with both.
Defamation is both a criminal (which carries a prison sentence) and a civil offence (punishable through the award of damages) in India. The Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC) codifies the criminal law on defamation, whereas defamation is penalised as a civil offence under the law of torts.
Defamation is defined in Section 499, and the punishment is outlined in Section 500. The offence of defamation is defined as any spoken, written, or visual statement about another person designed to damage that person’s reputation. The conduct of any person addressing any public issue or expressing comments on a public performance an example of exceptions to this rule, as well as any imputation of truth required for the public benefit.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsNew Development Bank (NDB) and Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) are the initiatives of
Correct
Solution: D
About BRICS:
Topic Information BRICS (founded: 2009; HQ: Shanghai) is an acronym for the grouping of the world’s leading emerging economies, namely Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa (included in 2010) Origin The term “BRIC” was coined by the British Economist Jim O’Neill in 2001 to describe the four emerging economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China. Share of BRICS BRICS brings together five of the largest developing countries, representing 41% of the global population, 24% of the global GDP, and 16% of the global trade (By 2028, BRICS is expected to make up 35 per cent of the global economy) Chairmanship The chairmanship of the forum is rotated annually among the members, in accordance with the acronym B-R-I-C-S. South Africa is the chair for 2023. Initiatives of BRICS 1. New Development Bank (NDB) 2. Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) 3. BRICS Payment System 4. Customs Agreements 5. Remote Sensing Satellite New Initiative BRICS is planning to launch its own “new currency” system, a major step towards de-dollarization (reducing dependence on the US dollar for trade) Incorrect
Solution: D
About BRICS:
Topic Information BRICS (founded: 2009; HQ: Shanghai) is an acronym for the grouping of the world’s leading emerging economies, namely Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa (included in 2010) Origin The term “BRIC” was coined by the British Economist Jim O’Neill in 2001 to describe the four emerging economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China. Share of BRICS BRICS brings together five of the largest developing countries, representing 41% of the global population, 24% of the global GDP, and 16% of the global trade (By 2028, BRICS is expected to make up 35 per cent of the global economy) Chairmanship The chairmanship of the forum is rotated annually among the members, in accordance with the acronym B-R-I-C-S. South Africa is the chair for 2023. Initiatives of BRICS 1. New Development Bank (NDB) 2. Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) 3. BRICS Payment System 4. Customs Agreements 5. Remote Sensing Satellite New Initiative BRICS is planning to launch its own “new currency” system, a major step towards de-dollarization (reducing dependence on the US dollar for trade) -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsNational Manufacturing Innovation Survey (NMIS) 2021-22, was released by
Correct
Solution: A
The Department of Science and Technology in India has released the “National Manufacturing Innovation Survey (NMIS) 2021-22: Summary for Policymakers” to enhance the competitiveness of Indian manufacturing and increase its share in the GDP.
About NMIS:
Information National Manufacturing Innovation Survey (NMIS) 2021-22 Conducted By Department of Science and Technology (DST) in collaboration with the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) Objective To evaluate the innovation performance of manufacturing firms in India Components Firm-level survey and sectoral systems of innovation (SSI) survey (in 5 selected sectors i.e., food & beverage, textiles, automotive, pharmaceutical, and Information and Communication Technology (ICT)) India Manufacturing Innovation Index (IMII) The firm-level survey captured data related to the process of innovation, access to finance, resources, and information for innovation etc. for firms. These data were then used to compile India Manufacturing Innovation Index (IMII), covering 28 states and 6 UTs Follow-up DST’s first National Innovation Survey held in 2011 About UNIDO UNIDO (est: 1966; HQ: Vienna, Austria) is a specialized agency of the UN to promote and accelerate industrial development. India is one of UNIDO’s Founding Members. Status of India’s Manufacturing Sector The Indian manufacturing industry generated 16-17% of India’s GDP (the target is 25%) and is projected to be one of the fastest-growing sectors. Incorrect
Solution: A
The Department of Science and Technology in India has released the “National Manufacturing Innovation Survey (NMIS) 2021-22: Summary for Policymakers” to enhance the competitiveness of Indian manufacturing and increase its share in the GDP.
About NMIS:
Information National Manufacturing Innovation Survey (NMIS) 2021-22 Conducted By Department of Science and Technology (DST) in collaboration with the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) Objective To evaluate the innovation performance of manufacturing firms in India Components Firm-level survey and sectoral systems of innovation (SSI) survey (in 5 selected sectors i.e., food & beverage, textiles, automotive, pharmaceutical, and Information and Communication Technology (ICT)) India Manufacturing Innovation Index (IMII) The firm-level survey captured data related to the process of innovation, access to finance, resources, and information for innovation etc. for firms. These data were then used to compile India Manufacturing Innovation Index (IMII), covering 28 states and 6 UTs Follow-up DST’s first National Innovation Survey held in 2011 About UNIDO UNIDO (est: 1966; HQ: Vienna, Austria) is a specialized agency of the UN to promote and accelerate industrial development. India is one of UNIDO’s Founding Members. Status of India’s Manufacturing Sector The Indian manufacturing industry generated 16-17% of India’s GDP (the target is 25%) and is projected to be one of the fastest-growing sectors. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Code on Social Security, 2020
- For the first time, the definition of “gig worker” and “platform worker” has been provided in the Code on Social Security, 2020.
- One of the sources of Social Security Fund under Code on Social Security, 2020, is contribution from aggregator between 1 to 2% of annual turnover of an aggregator.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Code on Social Security, 2020 envisages social security benefits for gig and platform workers
For the first time, the definition of “gig worker” and “platform worker” has been provided in the Code on Social Security, 2020. The Code on Social Security, 2020 envisages social security benefits through formulation of schemes for gig and platform workers and can be implemented through Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) and Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) which hitherto provides social security benefits to organized sector workers. The Code also provides for framing of suitable social security schemes for gig workers and platform workers on matters relating to life and disability cover, accident insurance, health and maternity benefits, old age protection, etc. The Code also provides for setting up a Social Security Fund and one of the sources of fund, is contribution from aggregator between 1 to 2% of annual turnover of an aggregator subject to the limit of 5% of the amount paid or payable by an aggregator to such workers.
Further, the Code envisages that the appropriate Government may set up a toll free call centre or helpline or such facilitation centres, etc., for unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers, as may be considered necessary from time to time to disseminate information on available social security schemes, facilitate filing, processing and forwarding of application forms for their registration, assist them to obtain registration, and to facilitate their enrolment in the social security schemes.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Code on Social Security, 2020 envisages social security benefits for gig and platform workers
For the first time, the definition of “gig worker” and “platform worker” has been provided in the Code on Social Security, 2020. The Code on Social Security, 2020 envisages social security benefits through formulation of schemes for gig and platform workers and can be implemented through Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) and Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) which hitherto provides social security benefits to organized sector workers. The Code also provides for framing of suitable social security schemes for gig workers and platform workers on matters relating to life and disability cover, accident insurance, health and maternity benefits, old age protection, etc. The Code also provides for setting up a Social Security Fund and one of the sources of fund, is contribution from aggregator between 1 to 2% of annual turnover of an aggregator subject to the limit of 5% of the amount paid or payable by an aggregator to such workers.
Further, the Code envisages that the appropriate Government may set up a toll free call centre or helpline or such facilitation centres, etc., for unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers, as may be considered necessary from time to time to disseminate information on available social security schemes, facilitate filing, processing and forwarding of application forms for their registration, assist them to obtain registration, and to facilitate their enrolment in the social security schemes.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding lesser flamingo
- The lesser flamingo is the smallest species of flamingo.
- Their core habitat is fresh water lakes and rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
About the lesser flamingo:
Information The lesser flamingo is the smallest species of flamingo, though it is a tall and large bird by most standards, with pale pink colour and deep red legs and bills. Their colour comes from the carotenoid pigments they consume as part of their diet. Size Approximately 80 to 90 cm long; females are smaller Diet Microscopic blue-green algae and benthic diatoms; Small aquatic invertebrates such as rotifers (less often) Habitat Large undisturbed alkaline and saline lakes, salt pans, coastal lagoons, and estuaries Range Primarily eastern and southern Africa; Madagascar, Yemen, Pakistan and Western India Conservation Status IUCN: Near Threatened; CITES: Appendix II Facts Its name has been derived from Portuguese, meaning “red goose”. It is most numerous and lives in the largest flocks; Both males and females provide young with crop milk About Pulicat Lake It is the second-largest brackish water lagoon in India, (after Chilika Lake). Its major part comes in the Andhra Pradesh. It encompasses the Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary. The barrier island of Sriharikota separates the lagoon from the Bay of Bengal and is home to the Satish Dhawan Space Centre. Incorrect
Solution: A
About the lesser flamingo:
Information The lesser flamingo is the smallest species of flamingo, though it is a tall and large bird by most standards, with pale pink colour and deep red legs and bills. Their colour comes from the carotenoid pigments they consume as part of their diet. Size Approximately 80 to 90 cm long; females are smaller Diet Microscopic blue-green algae and benthic diatoms; Small aquatic invertebrates such as rotifers (less often) Habitat Large undisturbed alkaline and saline lakes, salt pans, coastal lagoons, and estuaries Range Primarily eastern and southern Africa; Madagascar, Yemen, Pakistan and Western India Conservation Status IUCN: Near Threatened; CITES: Appendix II Facts Its name has been derived from Portuguese, meaning “red goose”. It is most numerous and lives in the largest flocks; Both males and females provide young with crop milk About Pulicat Lake It is the second-largest brackish water lagoon in India, (after Chilika Lake). Its major part comes in the Andhra Pradesh. It encompasses the Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary. The barrier island of Sriharikota separates the lagoon from the Bay of Bengal and is home to the Satish Dhawan Space Centre. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following countries are part of European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?
- Iceland
- Liechtenstein
- Norway
- Switzerland
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is a regional trade organization and free trade area consisting of four European states: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland. The organization operates in parallel with the European Union (EU), and all four member states participate in the European Single Market and are part of the Schengen Area. They are not, however, party to the European Union Customs Union.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is a regional trade organization and free trade area consisting of four European states: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland. The organization operates in parallel with the European Union (EU), and all four member states participate in the European Single Market and are part of the Schengen Area. They are not, however, party to the European Union Customs Union.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Cantonment Board
- A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area.
- It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006.
- A cantonment board consists of nominated members only.
- The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the president of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Cantonment Board
A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area. It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006–a legislation enacted by the Central government. It works under the administrative control of the defence ministry of the Central government. Thus, unlike the above four types of urban local bodies, which are created and administered by the state government, a cantonment board is created as well as administered by the Central government.
The Cantonments Act of 2006 was enacted to consolidate and amend the law relating to the administration of cantonments with a view to impart greater democratisation, improvement of their financial base to make provisions for developmental activities and for matters connected with them. This Act has repealed the Cantonments Act of 1924.
A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members. The elected members hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-officio members) continue so long as they hold the office in that station. The military officer commanding the station is the ex-officio president of the board and presides over its meetings. The vice-president of the board is elected by the elected members from amongst themselves for a term of five years.
The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the president of India.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Cantonment Board
A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area. It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006–a legislation enacted by the Central government. It works under the administrative control of the defence ministry of the Central government. Thus, unlike the above four types of urban local bodies, which are created and administered by the state government, a cantonment board is created as well as administered by the Central government.
The Cantonments Act of 2006 was enacted to consolidate and amend the law relating to the administration of cantonments with a view to impart greater democratisation, improvement of their financial base to make provisions for developmental activities and for matters connected with them. This Act has repealed the Cantonments Act of 1924.
A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members. The elected members hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-officio members) continue so long as they hold the office in that station. The military officer commanding the station is the ex-officio president of the board and presides over its meetings. The vice-president of the board is elected by the elected members from amongst themselves for a term of five years.
The executive officer of the cantonment board is appointed by the president of India.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are neurotoxins?
- Methane
- Hydrogen sulphide
- Carbon monoxide
- Carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
What are neurotoxins?
Neurotoxins are poisonous substances which can directly affect the nervous system. They directly attack the respiratory tract of the body, thereby overpowering the oxygen concentration of the body and then the nervous system as well.
What are neurotoxic gases?
- Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide are common neurotoxic gases.
- While methane and carbon monoxide are odourless gases, hydrogen sulphide has a pungent odour and in higher concentrations, it can be fatal for humans.
Incorrect
Solution: D
What are neurotoxins?
Neurotoxins are poisonous substances which can directly affect the nervous system. They directly attack the respiratory tract of the body, thereby overpowering the oxygen concentration of the body and then the nervous system as well.
What are neurotoxic gases?
- Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide are common neurotoxic gases.
- While methane and carbon monoxide are odourless gases, hydrogen sulphide has a pungent odour and in higher concentrations, it can be fatal for humans.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act 2013
- Every employer must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) in all establishment, whether Private or Public.
- It is compulsory for the aggrieved victim to file a complaint for the ICC to take action.
- The law broadened and gave legislative backing to the Vishaka Guidelines.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What exactly is the law against sexual harassment of women at the workplace?
The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, commonly known as the PoSH Act, was passed in 2013. It defined sexual harassment, lay down the procedures for complaint and inquiry, and the action to be taken in cases of sexual harassment.
How did the PoSH Act come about?
The 2013 law broadened and gave legislative backing to what are known as the Vishaka Guidelines, which were laid down by the Supreme Court in a judgment passed in 1997.
The case in question was filed by women’s rights groups, including one called Vishaka, over the alleged gangrape of a social worker from Rajasthan named Bhanwari Devi. Bhanwari had fought against the marriage of a one-year-old baby girl in 1992, and had been allegedly gangraped as retribution.
The Vishaka Guidelines defined sexual harassment and imposed three key obligations on institutions — prohibition, prevention, redress. The Supreme Court directed that they should establish a Complaints Committee, which would look into matters of sexual harassment of women at the workplace. The court made the guidelines legally binding.
And what does the PoSH Act say about the complaints committee?
The PoSH Act subsequently mandated that every employer must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) at each office or branch that had 10 or more employees. It defined various aspects of sexual harassment, and lay down procedures for action in case of a complaint.
The aggrieved victim under the Act can be a woman “of any age whether employed [at the workplace] or not”, who “alleges to have been subjected to any act of sexual harassment”. In effect, the Act protects the rights of all women who are working or visiting any workplace, in any capacity.
What is the procedure for complaint under the Act?
It is not compulsory for the aggrieved victim to file a complaint for the ICC to take action. The Act says that she “may” do so — and if she cannot, any member of the ICC “shall” render “all reasonable assistance” to her to complain in writing.
If the woman cannot complain because of “physical or mental incapacity or death or otherwise”, her legal heir may do so.
Incorrect
Solution: C
What exactly is the law against sexual harassment of women at the workplace?
The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, commonly known as the PoSH Act, was passed in 2013. It defined sexual harassment, lay down the procedures for complaint and inquiry, and the action to be taken in cases of sexual harassment.
How did the PoSH Act come about?
The 2013 law broadened and gave legislative backing to what are known as the Vishaka Guidelines, which were laid down by the Supreme Court in a judgment passed in 1997.
The case in question was filed by women’s rights groups, including one called Vishaka, over the alleged gangrape of a social worker from Rajasthan named Bhanwari Devi. Bhanwari had fought against the marriage of a one-year-old baby girl in 1992, and had been allegedly gangraped as retribution.
The Vishaka Guidelines defined sexual harassment and imposed three key obligations on institutions — prohibition, prevention, redress. The Supreme Court directed that they should establish a Complaints Committee, which would look into matters of sexual harassment of women at the workplace. The court made the guidelines legally binding.
And what does the PoSH Act say about the complaints committee?
The PoSH Act subsequently mandated that every employer must constitute an Internal Complaints Committee (ICC) at each office or branch that had 10 or more employees. It defined various aspects of sexual harassment, and lay down procedures for action in case of a complaint.
The aggrieved victim under the Act can be a woman “of any age whether employed [at the workplace] or not”, who “alleges to have been subjected to any act of sexual harassment”. In effect, the Act protects the rights of all women who are working or visiting any workplace, in any capacity.
What is the procedure for complaint under the Act?
It is not compulsory for the aggrieved victim to file a complaint for the ICC to take action. The Act says that she “may” do so — and if she cannot, any member of the ICC “shall” render “all reasonable assistance” to her to complain in writing.
If the woman cannot complain because of “physical or mental incapacity or death or otherwise”, her legal heir may do so.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding debt-for-climate swaps
- It was introduced as a debt restructuring device that aims to combat climate change by ensuring that debt-ridden countries do not incur additional debt while addressing climate change locally.
- Debt-for-nature swap first appears to have been used in the 1980s in South East Asian Island Nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
debt-for-climate swaps has grown relatively popular among low- and middle-income countries.
Multilateral development banks and multilateral organisations such as the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) have also been advocating this instrument as a debt-relief measure.
According to an article by officials with the International Monetary Fund (IMF), debt-for-climate and debt-for-nature swaps seek to free up fiscal resources so that governments can improve resilience without triggering a fiscal crisis or sacrificing spending on other development priorities.
The concept is not new. Debt-for-nature swap first appears to have been used in the 1980s in Latin America, where the countries aimed to reduce unsustainable external debts and address worsening environmental conditions.
The concept of debt-for-climate swap was also envisioned around the same time by then deputy vice-president of Worldwide Fund for Nature, a conservation group.
It was introduced as a debt restructuring device that aims to combat climate change by ensuring that debt-ridden countries do not incur additional debt while addressing climate change locally.
Incorrect
Solution: A
debt-for-climate swaps has grown relatively popular among low- and middle-income countries.
Multilateral development banks and multilateral organisations such as the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) have also been advocating this instrument as a debt-relief measure.
According to an article by officials with the International Monetary Fund (IMF), debt-for-climate and debt-for-nature swaps seek to free up fiscal resources so that governments can improve resilience without triggering a fiscal crisis or sacrificing spending on other development priorities.
The concept is not new. Debt-for-nature swap first appears to have been used in the 1980s in Latin America, where the countries aimed to reduce unsustainable external debts and address worsening environmental conditions.
The concept of debt-for-climate swap was also envisioned around the same time by then deputy vice-president of Worldwide Fund for Nature, a conservation group.
It was introduced as a debt restructuring device that aims to combat climate change by ensuring that debt-ridden countries do not incur additional debt while addressing climate change locally.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the impact of El Niño?
- Warm water during summer in the northern hemisphere can fuel hurricanes in the central/eastern Pacific Ocean.
- Severe droughts over parts of southern South America, the southern US, the Horn of Africa and central Asia.
- Increased rainfall in Australia, Indonesia, and parts of southern Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
According to the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO), the world should prepare for the development of El Niño, which is often associated with increased heat, drought or rainfall in different parts of the world.
Background:
- La Niña has now ended after persisting for three years and the tropical Pacific is currently in an ENSO-neutral state (neither El Niño nor La Niña).
- There is a 60% chance for a transition from ENSO-neutral to El Niño during May-July 2023.
- 2016 was the warmest year on record because of the confluence of a very powerful El Niño event and global warming.
The typical impacts of El Niño include:
- Increased rainfall in parts of southern South America, the southern US, the Horn of Africa and central Asia.
- Severe droughts over Australia, Indonesia, and parts of southern Asia.
- Warm water during summer in the northern hemisphere can fuel hurricanes in the central/eastern Pacific Ocean and can hinder hurricane formation in the Atlantic Basin.
Incorrect
Solution: A
According to the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO), the world should prepare for the development of El Niño, which is often associated with increased heat, drought or rainfall in different parts of the world.
Background:
- La Niña has now ended after persisting for three years and the tropical Pacific is currently in an ENSO-neutral state (neither El Niño nor La Niña).
- There is a 60% chance for a transition from ENSO-neutral to El Niño during May-July 2023.
- 2016 was the warmest year on record because of the confluence of a very powerful El Niño event and global warming.
The typical impacts of El Niño include:
- Increased rainfall in parts of southern South America, the southern US, the Horn of Africa and central Asia.
- Severe droughts over Australia, Indonesia, and parts of southern Asia.
- Warm water during summer in the northern hemisphere can fuel hurricanes in the central/eastern Pacific Ocean and can hinder hurricane formation in the Atlantic Basin.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following regions are coal mines?
- Korba
- Adilabad
- Bokaro
- Raniganj
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsVaishakh Buddha Purnima is the most sacred day of the year for Buddhists all over the world as it marks the main events of Lord Buddha’s life, which are?
- Birth
- Enlightenment
- Mahaparinirvana
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Vaishakh Buddha Purnima (also known as Vesak or Buddha Jayanti):
- It is the most sacred day of the year for Buddhists all over the world as it marks the three main events of Lord Buddha’s life –
- Birth (564 BC, Lumbini Province, Nepal),
- Enlightenment [Siddhartha became a Buddha (“enlightened one”)], and
- Mahaparinirvana [Kushinagar (India) is said to be the place of death of Gautama Buddha].
- Since 1999 it has also been recognised by the United Nations as the ‘UN Day of Vesak’.
- This year the Vaishakh Buddha Purnima is being celebrated on 5th May.
- The festival falls on the full moon day (Purnima) in the Hindu month of Vaishakh (April or May)
Incorrect
Solution: D
Vaishakh Buddha Purnima (also known as Vesak or Buddha Jayanti):
- It is the most sacred day of the year for Buddhists all over the world as it marks the three main events of Lord Buddha’s life –
- Birth (564 BC, Lumbini Province, Nepal),
- Enlightenment [Siddhartha became a Buddha (“enlightened one”)], and
- Mahaparinirvana [Kushinagar (India) is said to be the place of death of Gautama Buddha].
- Since 1999 it has also been recognised by the United Nations as the ‘UN Day of Vesak’.
- This year the Vaishakh Buddha Purnima is being celebrated on 5th May.
- The festival falls on the full moon day (Purnima) in the Hindu month of Vaishakh (April or May)
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are consequences of President’s rule?
- He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any other executive authority in the state.
- He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.
- He can take all other necessary steps including the suspension of the constitutional provisions relating to anybody or authority in the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
President’s rule
Parliamentary Approval and Duration
A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
Consequences of President’s Rule
The President acquires the following extraordinary powers when the President’s Rule is imposed in a state:
- He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any other executive authority in the state.
- He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.
- He can take all other necessary steps including the suspension of the constitutional provisions relating to anybody or authority in the state.
Incorrect
Solution: D
President’s rule
Parliamentary Approval and Duration
A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
Consequences of President’s Rule
The President acquires the following extraordinary powers when the President’s Rule is imposed in a state:
- He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any other executive authority in the state.
- He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.
- He can take all other necessary steps including the suspension of the constitutional provisions relating to anybody or authority in the state.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding naming of Cyclones
- They are named by the regional specialised meteorological centres (RSMCs) and Tropical Cyclone Warning Centres (TCWCs).
- As an RSMC, the India Meteorological Department names the cyclones developing over the north Indian Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
How are cyclones named?
- They are named by the regional specialised meteorological centres (RSMCs) and Tropical Cyclone Warning Centres (TCWCs).
- There are six RSMCs in the world and five
- As an RSMC, the India Meteorological Department names the cyclones developing over the north Indian Ocean, including the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea.
- The IMD is also mandated to issue advisories to 12 other countries in the region on the development of cyclones and storms.
WMO/ESCAP (World Meteorological Organisation/United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific):
- In 2000, the group (comprising Bangladesh, India, the Maldives, Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Thailand), decided to start naming cyclones in the region.
- After each country sent in suggestions, the WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones (PTC) finalised the list.
Incorrect
Solution: C
How are cyclones named?
- They are named by the regional specialised meteorological centres (RSMCs) and Tropical Cyclone Warning Centres (TCWCs).
- There are six RSMCs in the world and five
- As an RSMC, the India Meteorological Department names the cyclones developing over the north Indian Ocean, including the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea.
- The IMD is also mandated to issue advisories to 12 other countries in the region on the development of cyclones and storms.
WMO/ESCAP (World Meteorological Organisation/United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific):
- In 2000, the group (comprising Bangladesh, India, the Maldives, Myanmar, Oman, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Thailand), decided to start naming cyclones in the region.
- After each country sent in suggestions, the WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones (PTC) finalised the list.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Jaina Architecture
- Gomatesvara statue was erected by Chamundaraya, the minister of a Ganga ruler, Rachamalla.
- The Jainas have constructed cave temples cut in Hathigumpha caves.
- The relief works and statues at Udaigiri hills and Ellora are the examples of excellent Jain architecture and sculpture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Jaina Architecture
- Mathura, Bundelkhand, Madhya Bharat and south India are full of Jaina statues. They belong to the 11th and the 12th centuries.
- The gigantic statues of Bahubali, called Gomatesvara, at Sravana Belgola and Karkal in Mysore are among the wonders of the world.
- The former statue, 56.5 feet high, carved out of a mass of granite, standing at the top of a hill was erected in 982 AD by Chamundaraya, the minister of a Ganga ruler, Rachamalla.
- The Jaina caves with their relief works and statues at Udaigiri hills near Bhilsa in Madhya Bharat and Ellora in Maharashtra are the examples of excellent architecture and sculpture of the period.
- The Jainas have also constructed cave temples cut in rocks, the earliest examples of which, belonging to the 2nd century BC, exist in Orissa. They are called Hathigumpha caves.
- The Jaina tower at Chittor in Rajasthan is one of the best specimens of Jaina architecture.
- The Jaina temples at Mount Abu, in Rajasthan, belonging to the 11th century, are a witness of the Indian genius for the invention of graceful patterns and their application to the decoration of masonry.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Jaina Architecture
- Mathura, Bundelkhand, Madhya Bharat and south India are full of Jaina statues. They belong to the 11th and the 12th centuries.
- The gigantic statues of Bahubali, called Gomatesvara, at Sravana Belgola and Karkal in Mysore are among the wonders of the world.
- The former statue, 56.5 feet high, carved out of a mass of granite, standing at the top of a hill was erected in 982 AD by Chamundaraya, the minister of a Ganga ruler, Rachamalla.
- The Jaina caves with their relief works and statues at Udaigiri hills near Bhilsa in Madhya Bharat and Ellora in Maharashtra are the examples of excellent architecture and sculpture of the period.
- The Jainas have also constructed cave temples cut in rocks, the earliest examples of which, belonging to the 2nd century BC, exist in Orissa. They are called Hathigumpha caves.
- The Jaina tower at Chittor in Rajasthan is one of the best specimens of Jaina architecture.
- The Jaina temples at Mount Abu, in Rajasthan, belonging to the 11th century, are a witness of the Indian genius for the invention of graceful patterns and their application to the decoration of masonry.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ahom Revolt
- It was a revolt against the British who attempted to incorporate the Ahom’s’ territories in the Company’s dominion
- The rebellion was organized under the leadership of Gomdhar Konwar, an Ahom prince.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Ahom Revolt (1828)
The British had pledged to withdraw from Assam after the First Burma War (1824-26). But, after the war, instead of withdrawing, the British attempted to incorporate the Ahoms’ territories in the Company’s dominion.
This sparked off a rebellion in 1828 under the leadership of Gomdhar Konwar, an Ahom prince, alongwith compatriots, such as Dhanjoy Bongohain, and Jairam Khargharia Phukan. Assembling near Jorhat, the rebels formally made Gomdhar Konwar the king.
Finally, the Company decided to follow a conciliatory policy and handed over Upper Assam to Maharaja Purandar Singh Narendra and part of the kingdom was restored to the Assamese king
Incorrect
Solution: C
Ahom Revolt (1828)
The British had pledged to withdraw from Assam after the First Burma War (1824-26). But, after the war, instead of withdrawing, the British attempted to incorporate the Ahoms’ territories in the Company’s dominion.
This sparked off a rebellion in 1828 under the leadership of Gomdhar Konwar, an Ahom prince, alongwith compatriots, such as Dhanjoy Bongohain, and Jairam Khargharia Phukan. Assembling near Jorhat, the rebels formally made Gomdhar Konwar the king.
Finally, the Company decided to follow a conciliatory policy and handed over Upper Assam to Maharaja Purandar Singh Narendra and part of the kingdom was restored to the Assamese king
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian Association of Calcutta
- It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
- It protested against the reduction of age limit in 1877 for candidates of the Indian Civil Service examination.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Indian Association of Calcutta (also known as the Indian National Association) superseded the Indian League and was founded in 1876 by younger nationalists of Bengal led by Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose, who were getting discontented with the conservative and pro-landlord policies of the British Indian Association. The Indian Association was the most important of pre-Congress associations and aimed to “promote by every legitimate means the political, intellectual and material advancement of the people.” It set out to—
(i) create a strong public opinion on political questions, and
(ii) unify Indian people in a common political programme.
It protested against the reduction of age limit in 1877 for candidates of the Indian Civil Service examination. The association demanded simultaneous holding of civil service examination in England and India and Indianisation of higher administrative posts. It led a campaign against the repressive arms act and the vernacular press act.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Indian Association of Calcutta (also known as the Indian National Association) superseded the Indian League and was founded in 1876 by younger nationalists of Bengal led by Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose, who were getting discontented with the conservative and pro-landlord policies of the British Indian Association. The Indian Association was the most important of pre-Congress associations and aimed to “promote by every legitimate means the political, intellectual and material advancement of the people.” It set out to—
(i) create a strong public opinion on political questions, and
(ii) unify Indian people in a common political programme.
It protested against the reduction of age limit in 1877 for candidates of the Indian Civil Service examination. The association demanded simultaneous holding of civil service examination in England and India and Indianisation of higher administrative posts. It led a campaign against the repressive arms act and the vernacular press act.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Point of Order
- It is an extra ordinary device as it suspends the proceedings before the House.
- A member can raise a point of order when the proceedings of the House do not follow the normal rules of procedure.
- No debate is allowed on a point of order
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- A member can raise a point of order when the proceedings of the House do not follow the normal rules of procedure.
- A point of order should relate to the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of the House or such articles of the Constitution that regulate the business of the House and should raise a question that is within the cognizance of the Speaker.
- It is usually raised by an opposition member in order to control the government.
- It is an extra ordinary device as it suspends the proceedings before the House.
- No debate is allowed on a point of order.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- A member can raise a point of order when the proceedings of the House do not follow the normal rules of procedure.
- A point of order should relate to the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of the House or such articles of the Constitution that regulate the business of the House and should raise a question that is within the cognizance of the Speaker.
- It is usually raised by an opposition member in order to control the government.
- It is an extra ordinary device as it suspends the proceedings before the House.
- No debate is allowed on a point of order.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mahatma Ayyankali
- Mahatma Ayyankali pioneered a movement for democratizing public places and asserting the rights of workers.
- Ayyankali established Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangham to help the Dalits by providing them education, finance and legal support.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Mahatma Ayyankali was one of those renowned social reformers who played a vital role in cleansing the Hindu society of social evils. He was born in 1863 in Venganoor under the rule the Travancore state.
- Mahatma Ayyankali also pioneered a movement for democratizing public places and asserting the rights of workers even before the establishment of any trade unions in Kerala.
- With the support he received from his well-wishers, Ayyankali established Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangham to help the Dalits by providing them education, finance and legal support.
- During that period, after Sree Narayana Guru’s SNDP, the next most powerful welfare organization was Ayyankali’s SJPS with the slogan ‘Progress through education and organization.’
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Mahatma Ayyankali was one of those renowned social reformers who played a vital role in cleansing the Hindu society of social evils. He was born in 1863 in Venganoor under the rule the Travancore state.
- Mahatma Ayyankali also pioneered a movement for democratizing public places and asserting the rights of workers even before the establishment of any trade unions in Kerala.
- With the support he received from his well-wishers, Ayyankali established Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangham to help the Dalits by providing them education, finance and legal support.
- During that period, after Sree Narayana Guru’s SNDP, the next most powerful welfare organization was Ayyankali’s SJPS with the slogan ‘Progress through education and organization.’
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Secret Societies
- Mitra Mela was formed by the Savarkar brothers in 1899.
- Ganesh Savarkar founded the Abhinava Bharat.
- Ghadar Party was formed by Rashbehari Bose.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
- Anushilan Samiti: The Anushilan Samiti of Calcutta was formed by Barindrakumar Ghosh, Jatindranath Banerji and Pramotha Mitter in 1902.
- The Anushilan Samiti of Dacca was founded by Pulin Das in 1902.
- These were the first revolutionary secret societies in Bengal.
- Mitra Mela : The Mitra Mela was formed by the Savarkar brothers in 1899.
- This society was the first one in Maharashtra as well as in India.
- Abhinava Bharat: Ganesh Savarkar (elder brother of V. D. Savarkar) founded the Abhinava Bharat in 1907.
- Hindustan Republican Association
-
- The Hindustan Republican Association was formed in 1924 by Sachin Sanyal and Jogesh Chandra Chatterji.
- It was the first association at the all India level.
- Ghadar Party: The Ghadar Party was formed by Har Dayal and Sohan Singh Bhakna in 1913 in the USA (San Francisco).
- Indian Independence League The Indian Independence League was founded by Rashbehari Bose in 1942 in Japan.
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Anushilan Samiti: The Anushilan Samiti of Calcutta was formed by Barindrakumar Ghosh, Jatindranath Banerji and Pramotha Mitter in 1902.
- The Anushilan Samiti of Dacca was founded by Pulin Das in 1902.
- These were the first revolutionary secret societies in Bengal.
- Mitra Mela : The Mitra Mela was formed by the Savarkar brothers in 1899.
- This society was the first one in Maharashtra as well as in India.
- Abhinava Bharat: Ganesh Savarkar (elder brother of V. D. Savarkar) founded the Abhinava Bharat in 1907.
- Hindustan Republican Association
-
- The Hindustan Republican Association was formed in 1924 by Sachin Sanyal and Jogesh Chandra Chatterji.
- It was the first association at the all India level.
- Ghadar Party: The Ghadar Party was formed by Har Dayal and Sohan Singh Bhakna in 1913 in the USA (San Francisco).
- Indian Independence League The Indian Independence League was founded by Rashbehari Bose in 1942 in Japan.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Macaulay’s Minute
- Macaulay’s Minute on Education marked the victory of the so-called ‘Anglicists’ as well as ‘progressive’ Indians.
- On the basis of ‘Macaulay’s Minute’, Bentinck ruled that all the funds appropriated for the purpose of education would be best employed on English education alone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Macaulay’s Minute on Education
Submitted by Thomas Babington Macaulay in his capacity as president of the Committee on Public Instruction on February 2, 1835, it was to form the basis of the Company’s educational policy in India. It marked the victory of the so-called ‘Anglicists’ as well as ‘progressive’ Indians, who supported the introduction and popularization of English education over the opposing school of thought represented by the ‘Orientalists’ who preferred to encourage the pursuit of traditional learning.
On the basis of ‘Macaulay’s Minute’, Bentinck ruled that all the funds appropriated for the purpose of education would be best employed on English education alone. Consequently, a resolution based on Macaulay’s Minute and accepted by William Bentinck’s government on March 7, 1835 proclaimed English as India’s official language.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Macaulay’s Minute on Education
Submitted by Thomas Babington Macaulay in his capacity as president of the Committee on Public Instruction on February 2, 1835, it was to form the basis of the Company’s educational policy in India. It marked the victory of the so-called ‘Anglicists’ as well as ‘progressive’ Indians, who supported the introduction and popularization of English education over the opposing school of thought represented by the ‘Orientalists’ who preferred to encourage the pursuit of traditional learning.
On the basis of ‘Macaulay’s Minute’, Bentinck ruled that all the funds appropriated for the purpose of education would be best employed on English education alone. Consequently, a resolution based on Macaulay’s Minute and accepted by William Bentinck’s government on March 7, 1835 proclaimed English as India’s official language.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding newspapers and journals
- First vernacular newspaper was the Samachar Darpan.
- The Leader was started by Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya.
- Motilal Nehru set up the Independent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
- The first vernacular newspaper, the Samachar Darpan, appeared in 1818, in Bengali due to the efforts of the famous Serampore missionaries.
- The Bombay Chronicle, inspired by Pherozeshah Mehta, was launched in 1913.
- The Leader was started in Allahabad by Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya.
- Annie Besat bought the Madras Standard and renamed it New India.
- The Servant of India appeared in 1918 with V.S. Srinivasa Sastri as its first editor.
- In 1919, Motilal Nehru set up the Independent which survived only four years.
- Another newspaper to come into existence in 1919 was the Hindustan Times with K.M. Panikkar as its first editor. Later it became the official organ of the Swaraj Party.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The first vernacular newspaper, the Samachar Darpan, appeared in 1818, in Bengali due to the efforts of the famous Serampore missionaries.
- The Bombay Chronicle, inspired by Pherozeshah Mehta, was launched in 1913.
- The Leader was started in Allahabad by Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya.
- Annie Besat bought the Madras Standard and renamed it New India.
- The Servant of India appeared in 1918 with V.S. Srinivasa Sastri as its first editor.
- In 1919, Motilal Nehru set up the Independent which survived only four years.
- Another newspaper to come into existence in 1919 was the Hindustan Times with K.M. Panikkar as its first editor. Later it became the official organ of the Swaraj Party.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following events took place during Civil Disobedience Movement?
- Manilal was involved in a march towards the Dharsana Salt Works.
- C. Rajagopalachari led a salt march from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam.
- Imam Saheb marched from Calicut to Payanneer in defiance of salt laws.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Civil Disobedience Movement
M.K. Gandhi formally launched the Civil Disobedience Movement on April 6, 1930 by picking a handful of salt after the completion of historic ‘Dandi March’ from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, thus breaking the salt law imposed by the Government. He was the major force behind the movement and inspired grass-root participation in the freedom struggle.
- Rajagopalachari led a salt march from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore coast in Tamil Nadu, in support of the Civil Disobedience Movement. He was arrested on April 30, 1930.
- Kelappan, a Nair Congress leader, launched the Vaikom Satyagraha and marched from Calicut to Payanneer in defiance of salt laws.
- Krishna Pillai defended the national flag and resisted lathicharge on the Calicut beach on November 11, 1930. He later founded the Kerala Communist Movement.
Sarojini Naidu, the first Indian woman to become the president of the Congress, was involved in a march towards the Dharsana Salt Works, a government salt depot. Other leaders who participated in this total nonviolent affair were Imam Saheb, Gandhi’s comrade of the South African struggle, and Manilal, Gandhi’s son.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Civil Disobedience Movement
M.K. Gandhi formally launched the Civil Disobedience Movement on April 6, 1930 by picking a handful of salt after the completion of historic ‘Dandi March’ from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, thus breaking the salt law imposed by the Government. He was the major force behind the movement and inspired grass-root participation in the freedom struggle.
- Rajagopalachari led a salt march from Trichinopoly to Vedaranniyam on the Tanjore coast in Tamil Nadu, in support of the Civil Disobedience Movement. He was arrested on April 30, 1930.
- Kelappan, a Nair Congress leader, launched the Vaikom Satyagraha and marched from Calicut to Payanneer in defiance of salt laws.
- Krishna Pillai defended the national flag and resisted lathicharge on the Calicut beach on November 11, 1930. He later founded the Kerala Communist Movement.
Sarojini Naidu, the first Indian woman to become the president of the Congress, was involved in a march towards the Dharsana Salt Works, a government salt depot. Other leaders who participated in this total nonviolent affair were Imam Saheb, Gandhi’s comrade of the South African struggle, and Manilal, Gandhi’s son.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsArrange the following physical features of South America from north to south.
- Campos
- Pampas
- Gran Chaco
- Patagonia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsWhat is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice?
Correct
Answer: Option C) 1/9
Explanation:
In two throws of a dice, n(S) = (6 x 6) = 36.
Let E = event of getting a sum ={(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3)}.
P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 4 / 36 = 1/ 9 .
Incorrect
Answer: Option C) 1/9
Explanation:
In two throws of a dice, n(S) = (6 x 6) = 36.
Let E = event of getting a sum ={(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3)}.
P(E) = n(E) / n(S) = 4 / 36 = 1/ 9 .
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA and B can do a piece of work in 6 days, while C and D can do the same work in 12 days. In how many days will A, B, C and D do it together?
Correct
Sol : Option B) 4 days
Explanation:
A, B, C and D will together take 1/6+ 1/12
= 3/12 = 1/4
⇒ 4 days to complete the work.
Incorrect
Sol : Option B) 4 days
Explanation:
A, B, C and D will together take 1/6+ 1/12
= 3/12 = 1/4
⇒ 4 days to complete the work.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsRohan travels 20% distance of the total journey by car and 50% of the remaining by train and taxi in the respective ratio of 5:3 and the remaining distance he covers on feet. If the sum of the distance which he travels by car and by Taxi is 126 km, then find the total distance which Rohan travels during his journey?
Correct
Correct Option: A) 360km
Let total distance = 100x
Distance covered by car = 20% of 100x = 20x
Distance covered by Train = (5/5 + 3)× 50% of (100x – 20x) = (5/8)*40 x = 25x
Distance covered by Taxi = (3/5 + 3)× 50% of (100x – 20x) = (3/8) *40 x = 15x
Distance covered on feet = 100x – 20x – 25x – 15x = 40x
Total distance covered by Car and Taxi = 20x + 15x = 35x = 126 km (Given)
Length of journey = 100 × (126/35) = 360 km
Hence, option (A) is correct.
Incorrect
Correct Option: A) 360km
Let total distance = 100x
Distance covered by car = 20% of 100x = 20x
Distance covered by Train = (5/5 + 3)× 50% of (100x – 20x) = (5/8)*40 x = 25x
Distance covered by Taxi = (3/5 + 3)× 50% of (100x – 20x) = (3/8) *40 x = 15x
Distance covered on feet = 100x – 20x – 25x – 15x = 40x
Total distance covered by Car and Taxi = 20x + 15x = 35x = 126 km (Given)
Length of journey = 100 × (126/35) = 360 km
Hence, option (A) is correct.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 points20 persons shake hands with one another in a party. How many shake hands took place?
Correct
Correct Option: B) 190
Total possible ways = 20C2
= 20 × 19/ 2 × 1
= 190
Hence, option B is correct.
Incorrect
Correct Option: B) 190
Total possible ways = 20C2
= 20 × 19/ 2 × 1
= 190
Hence, option B is correct.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsA train 105 m long passes a person, running at 2 kmph in the direction opposite to that of the train, in 2 seconds. The speed of the train is:
Correct
Correct Option: C) 187kmph
Speed of the train relative to person
= (105/2 ) m/sec ⇒ (105/2 × 18/5) = 189 km/hr.
Let speed of the train be x kmph.
then, relative speed ⇒ (x + 2) = 189
⇒ x = 187 kmph.
Hence, option C is correct.
Incorrect
Correct Option: C) 187kmph
Speed of the train relative to person
= (105/2 ) m/sec ⇒ (105/2 × 18/5) = 189 km/hr.
Let speed of the train be x kmph.
then, relative speed ⇒ (x + 2) = 189
⇒ x = 187 kmph.
Hence, option C is correct.
Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE
Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE
Subscribe to our YouTube ChannelHERE
Follow our Twitter Account HERE
Follow our Instagram ID HERE
Follow us on LinkedIn : HERE