Solution: C

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), functioning under Dept. of Personnel, Ministry of Personnel, Pension & Public Grievances, Government of India, is the premier investigating police agency in India. It is an elite force playing a major role in preservation of values in public life and in ensuring the health of the national economy. It is also the nodal police agency in India, which coordinates investigation on behalf of Interpol Member countries.

CBI derives power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 Section 2 of the Act vests DSPE with jurisdiction to investigate offences in the Union Territories only. However, the jurisdiction can be extended by the Central Government to other areas including Railway areas and States under Section 5(1) of the Act, provided the State Government accords consent under Section 6 of the Act. The executive officers of CBI of the rank of Sub Inspector and above, exercise all powers of a station office in-charge of the police station for the concerned area for the purpose of investigation. As per Section 3 of the Act, Special Police Establishment is authorized to investigate only those cases, which are notified by the Central Government from time to time.

Solution: C

In Administrative law, the term ‘tribunal’ is used in a significant sense and refers to only the adjudicatory bodies which lie outside the sphere of the ordinary judicial system. Technically in India, the judicial powers are vested in the Courts which aims to safeguard the rights of the individuals and promotes justice. Therefore, to institute an effective system of the judiciary with fewer complexities, the judicial powers are delegated to the administrative authorities, thus, giving rise to administrative tribunals or administrative adjudicatory bodies which holds quasi-judicial features.

The concept of tribunalisation came into existence in India with the establishment of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal before the independence of the country. After independence, a need was being felt for resolving administrative disputes with flexibility and speed. The core objective of tribunalisation was to provide specialised and speedy justice to the people.

The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution introduced Part XIV-A which included Article 323A and 323B providing for constitution of tribunals dealing with administrative matters and other issues. According to these provisions of the Constitution, tribunals are to be organized and established in such a manner that they do not violate the integrity of the judicial system given in the Constitution which forms the basic structure of the Constitution.

Solution: B

What is pardoning power

A pardon is an antediluvian concept of grace, mercy, or forgiveness, used by the British Crown at one time to either forgive and pardon or punish a person accused of a crime. The power to pardon has been bestowed upon the President of India (under Article 72 of the Indian Constitution) and the Governor of a State (under Article 161 of the Indian Constitution). Such a constitutional scheme has been provided to ensure justice from harsh and unjust laws or from judgements resulting in injustice. The recent ruling on the Governor’s pardoning power overrides Section 433A of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, which states that a prisoner’s sentence can only be remitted after he has served 14 years in prison. The Supreme Court ruled on August 3, 2021, that the Governor of a State has the authority to pardon inmates, including those on death row, even before they have completed at least 14 years of imprisonment.

Pardoning powers of a Governor

The power of the Governor to grant a pardon has been entailed under Article 161 of the Indian Constitution. It states that the Governor shall have the power “to grant pardons, etc, and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases The Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends”. The executive action of pardoning must be exercised to promote justice rather than subvert it.

Effect of a pardon

The effect of a pardon is to absolve the person not only from the punishments or the penal consequences of the offence but also from civil disqualifications, for instance, loss of office following conviction, in order to place the person in the same position as if he had never committed the offence in question [Deputy Inspector General of Police v. D. Rajaram (1959)].

Article 161 of the Indian Constitution entails within its scope the power to grant a pardon for all offences. However, the Governor would have the authority to exercise such power only when the offence in question relates to a law ‘to which the executive power of the State extends’.

Solution: C

National Health Accounts Estimates for India (2019-20) released

• Share of Out-of-Pocket Expenditure (OOPE) in Total Health Expenditure declines from 62.6% in 2014-15 to 47.1% in 2019-20
• Government Health Expenditure’s share in country’s total GDP increases from 1.13% (2014-15) to 1.35% (2019-20)
• Share of Government Health Expenditure in Total Health Expenditure increases from 29% (2014-15) to 41.4% (2019-20)

In per capita terms, GHE has doubled from Rs. 1,108 to Rs. 2,014 between 2014-15 to 2019-20. The government spending on health between 2018-19 and 2019-20 increased by 12%, more than double the growth rate between 2017-18 and 2018-19 which was at 5%.

Additionally, in General Government Expenditure (GGE), the share of health sector spending has steadily increased from 3.94% to 5.02% between 2014-15 and 2019-20. This clearly indicates that healthcare has been the priority for public investment in the country.

The share of primary healthcare in Current Government Health Expenditure (CGHE) has increased from 51.3% in 2014-15 to 55.9% in 2019-20. The increased focus on primary healthcare reinforces the government’s decisions to prioritize primary healthcare in the country.

Another positive trend in the country’s health financing space is the increase in Social Security Expenditure (SSE) on healthcare. This increase in social security has a direct impact on reducing out-of-pocket payments. A robust social security mechanism ensures that individuals will not face financial hardship and the risk of poverty as a consequence of accessing essential healthcare services.

The share of SSE on health, which includes government-funded health insurance, medical reimbursement to government employees, and social health insurance programs, in THE, has increased from 5.7% in 2014-15 to 9.3% in 2019-20.

Solution: D

The medical devices sector in India is a sunrise sector which is growing at a fast pace. The market size of the medical devices sector in India is estimated to be $11 billion (approximately, ₹ 90,000 Cr) in 2020 and its share in the global medical device market is estimated to be 1.5%. The Indian medical devices sector is on a growth track and has an enormous potential to become self-reliant and to contribute towards the goal of universal health care. The Government of India has already initiated implementation of PLI Scheme for medical devices and support for setting up of 4 Medical devices Parks in the States of Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh.

Salient Features of National Medical Devices Policy, 2023:

Vision: Accelerated growth path with a patient-centric approach and to emerge as the global leader in the manufacturing and innovation of medical devices by achieving 10-12% share in the expanding global market over the next 25 years.  Policy is expected to help the Medical Devices Sector grow from present $11 Bn to $50 Bn by 2030.

Solution: B

Delhi-based non-profit Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) has launched a coalition of coastal cities to fight marine litter pollution across India.

The Coalition of Coastal Cities to Combat Marine Litter was launched on April 19, 2023 at a workshop organised and spearheaded by CSE.

About 80 per cent of marine litter comes from land-based mismanagement of solid waste that reaches the ocean bed through various land-to-sea pathways. The remaining 20 per cent is contributed by coastal settlements, according to global research estimates.

Plastic accounts for 90 per cent of all the waste that ends up in the marine ecosystem.

Of the 460 million tonnes (MT) of global plastic production, nearly 353 MT comes back as plastic waste — 8 MT (2.26 per cent) of which is leaked into the marine ecosystem, Narain pointed out.

Solution: C

PM praised “Abhilekh Patal” a portal with over 1 Crore Pages of Historical Records of the National Archives.

About the Portal:

It is a web portal to access records of the National Archives of India (NAI) and make its content available to all.

About NAI

The National Archives of India (est. 1891; HQ: New Delhi) is a repository of the non-current records of the Government of India and holds them in trust for the use of administrators and scholars. NAI is an Attached Office of the Ministry of Culture.

Solution: A

Who are the Hakki Pikki?

The Hakki Pikki is a tribe that lives in several states in west and south India, especially near forest areas. Hakki Pikkis (Hakki in Kannada means ‘bird’ and Pikki means ‘catchers’) are a semi-nomadic tribe, traditionally of bird catchers and hunters.

According to the 2011 census, the Hakki Pikki population in Karnataka is 11,892, and they live majorly in Davangere, Mysuru, Kolar, Hassan and Shivmogga districts. In different regions, they are known by different names, such as Mel-Shikari in northern Karnataka and Maharashtra.

Where do they live?

Hakki Pikki people are believed to hail originally from the bordering districts of Gujarat and Rajasthan. According to Gangadhar, they came to the south in search of game. “To Karnataka, they seem to have arrived via Andhra Pradesh, as they still remember a place called Jalapally near Hyderabad as their ancestral home, where their forefathers lived for a considerable period. They are now spread across south India,” he said.

Till a few years ago, women used to wear the ghagra (skirt) common in Rajasthan, although now they wear saris and other garments.

Solution: C

Critical minerals refer to mineral resources, both primary and processed, which are essential inputs in the production process of an economy, and whose supplies are likely to be disrupted due to the risks of non-availability or unaffordable price spikes. To tackle such supply risks, major global economies periodically evaluate which minerals are critical for their jurisdiction through a quantitative assessment.

A recent working paper from Centre for Social and Economic Progress (CSEP) extends the earlier minerals assessment for 23 minerals by assessing the criticality levels of 43 select minerals for India based on their economic importance (demand-side factors) and supply risks (supply-side factors) which are determined through the evaluation of specific indicators.

Minerals such as antimony, cobalt, gallium, graphite, lithium, nickel, niobium, and strontium are among the 22 assessed to be critical for India. Many of these are required to meet the manufacturing needs of green technologies, high-tech equipment, aviation, and national defence.

India faces four significant challenges to enable their sustainable extraction. First, many critical and strategic minerals constitute part of the list of atomic minerals in the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (MMDR) Act, 1957.

However, the present policy regime reserves these minerals only for public sector undertakings. Some of these are minerals and ores bearing beryllium, lithium, niobium, titanium, tantalum, zirconium, beach sand minerals, and rare earth group minerals containing uranium and thorium.

Solution: A

State of the Global Climate in 2022

The WMO State of the Global Climate report 2022 focuses on key climate indicators – greenhouse gases, temperatures, sea level rise, ocean heat and acidification, sea ice and glaciers. It also highlights the impacts of climate change and extreme weather.

• Drought, floods and heatwaves affect large parts of the world and the costs are rising
• Global mean temperatures for the past 8 years have been the highest on record
• Sea level and ocean heat are at record levels – and this trend will continue for many centuries
• Antarctic sea ice falls to lowest extent on record
• Europe shatters records for glacier melt

Solution: A

Following the four successful rounds of bidding, the Ministry of Civil Aviation has launched the 5^th round of the Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS) – Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik (UDAN) to further enhance the connectivity to remote and regional areas of the country and achieve last mile connectivity.

Key Features of UDAN 5.0 are as follows:

• This round of UDAN focuses on Category-2 (20-80 seats) and Category-3 (>80 seats).
• The earlier stage length cap of 600 km is waived off and there is no restriction on the distance between the origin and destination of the flight.
• Viability gap funding (VGF) to be provided will be capped at 600 km stage length for both Priority and Non-Priority areas which was earlier capped at 500 km.
• No predetermined routes would be offered. Only Network and Individual Route Proposal proposed by airlines will be considered.
• The airlines would be required to submit an action/business plan after 2 months from the issuance of LoA wherein they submit their aircraft acquisition plan/availability of aircraft, crew, slots, etc. at the time of the Technical Proposal.
• The same route will not be awarded to a single airline more than once, whether in different networks or in the same network.
• Exclusivity will be withdrawn if the average quarterly PLF is higher than 75% for four continuous quarters, to prevent exploitation of the monopoly on a route.
• 25% of the Performance Guarantee to be encashed for each month of delay up to 4 months, to further incentivize quick operationalization.
• Airlines would be required to commence operations within 4 months of the award of the route. Earlier this deadline was 6 months.

Solution: C

The World Development Report 2023 was recently released by World Bank

• It is an annual report released by World Bank.
• This Report provides a comprehensive analysis of international migration and its potential to serve as a force for growth and shared prosperity in all countries.

Key Highlights of the Reports:

• About 2.3 per cent of the world’s population—184 million people, including 37 million refugees—live outside their country of nationality. 
• It found that low-skilled Indians who migrated to the United States tended to see a significant gain in their income of around 500%.
• The gains for highly-skilled workers such as engineers or doctors are much higher, however, low-skilled workers are also finding themselves having a multi-fold jump in their income.
• It categorised the migrants into four types – Refugees with skills in demand, economic migrants with skills that match with demand, distressed migrants and
• India-US, India-Bangladesh and India- Gulf Cooperation Council have been considered among the top migrant corridors.

Solution: C

The government introduced Mahila Samman Savings Certificate, 2023 in the Budget 2023. This scheme is meant specifically for women investors and the government notified the new small savings scheme via a gazette notification on March 31, 2023. This scheme was launched to encourage investment among women investors.

The deposits made under this scheme will fetch interest at the rate of 7.5 per cent per annum. The interest will be compounded quarterly and credited to the account. Under the scheme, the maximum investment limit allowed is Rs 2 lakh.

Features of Mahila Samman Savings Certificate

The following are the features of the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate:

• Guaranteed Returns: The scheme is backed by the Government of India, and thus the returns are guaranteed.
• Interest Rate: 7.50% p.a.
• Eligibility: Only women are eligible to invest in the scheme.
• Minimum Investment Amount: INR 1,000, and in multiples of INR 100 thereafter.
• Maximum Investment Amount: INR 2,00,000
• Number of Accounts: A woman or guardian of a minor girl child can open a second account with a minimum gap of three months.
• Tenure: 2 years. The interest will be paid upon maturity of the scheme.
• Partial Withdrawals: Available. Depositors can withdraw up to 40% of the corpus amount after 1 year from the date of account opening.
• Premature Closure: The account cannot be prematurely closed. However, under certain conditions premature closure facility is available.

Solution: C

Shingles is a viral infection that causes a painful rash. Shingles can occur anywhere on your body. It typically looks like a single stripe of blisters that wraps around the left side or the right side of your torso.

Shingles is caused by the varicella-zoster virus — the same virus that causes chickenpox. After you’ve had chickenpox, the virus stays in your body for the rest of your life. Years later, the virus may reactivate as shingles.

Shingles isn’t life-threatening. But it can be very painful. Vaccines can help lower the risk of shingles. Early treatment may shorten a shingles infection and lessen the chance of complications. The most common complication is postherpetic neuralgia. This is a painful condition that causes shingles pain for a long time after your blisters have cleared.

Solution: D

The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) was launched on 8^th April 2015 by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi with the aim to facilitate easy collateral-free micro credit of up to ₹10 lakh to non-corporate, non-farm small and micro entrepreneurs for income generating activities. The loans under PMMY are provided by Member Lending Institutions (MLIs), i.e., Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) and other financial intermediaries.

Features

• The loans have been divided into three categories based on the need for finance and stage in maturity of the business.  These are Shishu (loans up to ₹50,000/-), Kishore (loans above ₹50,000/- and up to ₹5 lakh), and Tarun (loans above ₹5 lakh and up to ₹10 lakh).

• Loans under PMMY are provided to meet both term loan and working capital components of financing for income generating activities in manufacturing, trading and service sectors, including activities allied to agriculture such as poultry, dairy, beekeeping, etc.

• The rate of interest is decided by lending institutions in terms of RBI guidelines.  In case of working capital facility, interest is charged only on money held overnight by borrower.

Solution: B

Charter Act of 1813

The features of this Act were as follows:

1. It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was thrown open to all British merchants. However, it continued the monopoly of the company over trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in India.
3. It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
4. It provided for the spread of western education among the inhabitants of the British territories in India.
5. It authorized the Local Governments in India to impose taxes on persons. They could also punish the persons for not paying taxes.

Solution: A

About DMFs:

• District Mineral Foundations are statutory bodies set up as non-profit organizations in districts which are affected by the mining works.
• Each District Mineral Foundation is established by the State Governments by notification as a trust or non-profit body in the mining operation affected districts.
• DMFs were instituted under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (MMDR) Amendment Act 2015.
• They are non-profit trusts to work for the interest and benefit of persons and areas affected by mining-related operations.
• Objective: to work for the interest of the benefit of the persons and areas affected mining related operations in such manner as may be prescribed by the State Government.
• Jurisdiction: Its manner of operation comes under the jurisdiction of the relevant State Government.

Solution: A

Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance
Commission as a quasi-judicial body.

It is constituted by the president of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.

The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the president. They hold office for such period as specified by the president in his order. They are eligible for reappointment.

The Constitution authorizes the Parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be selected.

Accordingly, the Parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission. The chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs and the four other members should be selected from amongst the following:

1. A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one.
2. A person who has specialized knowledge of finance and accounts of the government.
3. A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in administration.
4. A person who has special knowledge of economics.

Solution: A

Solution: C

Parole is a system of releasing a prisoner with suspension of the sentence. The release is conditional, usually subject to behaviour, and requires periodic reporting to the authorities for a set period of time. Parole is considered a reformative process.

In India, parole (as well as furlough) are covered under The Prisons Act of 1894. Prisoners convicted of multiple murders or under the anti-terror Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA) are not eligible for parole.

Since prisons is a State subject in the Constitution, the Prisons Act of each state government defines the rules under which parole is granted in that state.

If a plea for parole is rejected, the convict can move the High Court challenging the order of the competent authority.

Furlough is given in cases of long-term imprisonment. The period of furlough granted to a prisoner is treated as remission of his sentence.

Furlough is seen as a matter of right for a prisoner, to be granted periodically irrespective of any reason, and merely to enable the prisoner to retain family and social ties, and to counter the ill-effects of prolonged time spent in prison.

Parole, by contrast, is not seen as a matter of right, and is given to a prisoner for a specific reason, such as a death in the family or a wedding of a blood relative

Solution: A

A cognizable offence is an offence in which the police officer as per the first schedule or under any other law for the time being in force, can arrest the convict without a warrant and can start an investigation without the permission of the court.

Cognizable offences are generally heinous or serious in nature such as murder, rape, kidnapping, theft, dowry death etc. The first information report (FIR) is registered only in cognizable crimes.

Solution: A

The Family Courts Act, 1984 was enacted to provide for the establishment of
Family Courts with a view to promote conciliation and secure speedy
settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs.

The salient features of the Family Courts Act, 1984 are as follows:

1. It provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts.
2. It makes it obligatory on the State Governments to set up a Family Court in every city or town with a population exceeding one million.
3. It enables the State Governments to set up Family Courts in other areas also, if they deem it necessary.
4. It exclusively provides within the jurisdiction of the Family Courts the matters relating to:

(i) matrimonial relief, including nullity of marriage, judicial separate divorce, restitution of conjugal rights, or declaration as to validity of marriage or as to the matrimonial status of any person

(ii) the property of the spouses or of either of them;

(iii) declaration as to the legitimacy of any person;

(iv) guardianship of a person or the custody of any minor; and

(v) maintenance of wife, children and parents.

5. It makes it obligatory on the part of the Family Court to endeavour, in the first instance to effect a reconciliation or a settlement between the parties to a family dispute. During this stage, the proceedings will be informal and rigid rules of procedure shall not apply.
6. It provides for the association of social welfare agencies, counsellors, etc., during conciliation stage and also to secure the service of medical and welfare experts.
7. It provides that the parties to a dispute before a Family Court shall not be entitled, as of right, to be represented by legal practitioner. However, the Court may, in the interest of justice, seek assistance of a legal expert as amicus curiae.
8. It simplifies the rules of evidence and procedure so as to enable a Family Court to deal effectively with a dispute.
9. It provides for only one right of appeal which shall lie to the High Court.

Solution: C

Widely known as the world’s “Atoms for Peace and Development” organization within the United Nations family, the IAEA is the international centre for cooperation in the nuclear field. The Agency works with its Member States and multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.

The IAEA was created in 1957 in response to the deep fears and expectations generated by the discoveries and diverse uses of nuclear technology. The Agency’s genesis was U.S. President Eisenhower’s “Atoms for Peace” address to the General Assembly of the United Nations on 8 December 1953.

International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)

• The IAEA is the world’s centre for cooperation in the nuclear field.
• It was set up as the world’s “Atoms for Peace” organization in 1957.
• It was established as an autonomous organization in 1957 through its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute.
• The Agency works with its Member States and multiple partners worldwide to promote the safe, secure and peaceful use of nuclear technologies.
• It seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons.
• IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.
• The IAEA has its headquarters in Vienna, Austria.
• The IAEA serves as an intergovernmental forum for scientific and technical cooperation in the peaceful use of nuclear technology and nuclear power worldwide.
• The IAEA and its former Director General, Mohamed ElBaradei, were jointly awarded the Nobel Peace Prize on 7 October 2005.

The IAEA was established as an autonomous organisation on 29 July 1957. Though established independently of the United Nations through its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute, the IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.

Solution: C

Both the statements given above are correct.

• The cabinet secretariat functions directly under the PM.
• The PM is the head of the secretariat but administrative head is cabinet secretary who is also chairman of the civil service board.
• Cabinet secretary is the head of the civil service.

Solution: D

Who are Uighurs?

Uighurs are a Muslim minority community concentrated in the country’s northwestern Xinjiang province. 

They claim closer ethnic ties to Turkey and other central Asian countries than to China, by brute — and brutal — force.

Answer  (b) None follows

Explanation:

Since each combination of premises shall contain two particular premises, no definite conclusion can be drawn.

Answer  (a) if only assumption I is implicit

Explanation:

The statement indicates the impossibility of phone contact from Karshik. Thus, the fact in I may be assumed from the given statement. So, I is implicit.

However, II indicates difficulty, not the impossibility of contact as is indicated in the statement. So, II is not implicit.

Answer : A) a

Explanation:

All Carrots are Vegetables. All Vegetables are Foods.

Answer (a) Only I follows

Explanation:

The statement indirectly asserts that the decision makers can work effectively to eliminate poverty, only if they get to know the basic problems afflicting the poor people through interaction with them. So, only I follows.

Answer  (a) if only argument I is strong

Explanation:

Closing down public-sector enterprises will definitely throw the engaged persons out of employment. So, argument I holds. Also, closing downy no solution for a loss-making enterprise. Rather. its causes of failure should be studied, analyzed and the essential reforms implemented. Even if this does not work out, the enterprise may privatized.

So, argument II is vague.