INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ramjet engine
- A ramjet is a form of airbreathing jet engine that uses the forward motion of the engine to produce thrust.
- Ramjet-powered vehicles don’t produce thrust when the vehicle is stationary.
- Ramjets work most efficiently at hypersonic speeds, over Mach 6.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
A ramjet, or athodyd (aero thermodynamic duct), is a form of airbreathing jet engine that uses the forward motion of the engine to produce thrust. Since it produces no thrust when stationary (no ram air) ramjet-powered vehicles require an assisted take-off like a rocket assist to accelerate it to a speed where it begins to produce thrust. Ramjets work most efficiently at supersonic speeds around Mach 3 (2,300 mph; 3,700 km/h) and can operate up to speeds of Mach 6 (4,600 mph; 7,400 km/h).
A ramjet equipped aircraft requires another type of propulsion to accelerate it to a speed at which the ramjet is capable of producing thrust. A ramjet can theoretically be started at speeds as low as 100 knots but it does not start to produce any significant thrust until the airspeed reaches approximately mach 0.5. Even at this speed, efficiency is very low and peak efficiency will not be attained until reaching supersonic speeds in the realm of mach 3. Ramjet engines are limited to a maximum speed of about mach 6 due to the shockwave induced pressure loss which occurs when slowing the intake air to subsonic speed.
Incorrect
Solution: B
A ramjet, or athodyd (aero thermodynamic duct), is a form of airbreathing jet engine that uses the forward motion of the engine to produce thrust. Since it produces no thrust when stationary (no ram air) ramjet-powered vehicles require an assisted take-off like a rocket assist to accelerate it to a speed where it begins to produce thrust. Ramjets work most efficiently at supersonic speeds around Mach 3 (2,300 mph; 3,700 km/h) and can operate up to speeds of Mach 6 (4,600 mph; 7,400 km/h).
A ramjet equipped aircraft requires another type of propulsion to accelerate it to a speed at which the ramjet is capable of producing thrust. A ramjet can theoretically be started at speeds as low as 100 knots but it does not start to produce any significant thrust until the airspeed reaches approximately mach 0.5. Even at this speed, efficiency is very low and peak efficiency will not be attained until reaching supersonic speeds in the realm of mach 3. Ramjet engines are limited to a maximum speed of about mach 6 due to the shockwave induced pressure loss which occurs when slowing the intake air to subsonic speed.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsINS Vagir is a
Correct
Solution: C
INS Vagir (S25) is the fifth submarine of the first batch of six Kalvari-class submarines for the Indian Navy. It is a diesel-electric attack submarine based on the Scorpène class, designed by French naval defence and energy group Naval Group and manufactured by Mazagon Dock Limited, an Indian shipyard in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
Incorrect
Solution: C
INS Vagir (S25) is the fifth submarine of the first batch of six Kalvari-class submarines for the Indian Navy. It is a diesel-electric attack submarine based on the Scorpène class, designed by French naval defence and energy group Naval Group and manufactured by Mazagon Dock Limited, an Indian shipyard in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsPHYTORID technology is associated with
Correct
Solution: B
PHYTORID is a subsurface mixed flow constructed wetland system developed and internationally patented by CSIR-NEERI, Nagpur with successful demonstration in the field for more than 10 years of continuous operation as a stand-alone sewage treatment system.
Phytorid is a self-sustainable technology for wastewater treatment that works on the principle of natural wetland. It uses certain specific plants which can absorb nutrients directly from wastewater but do not require soil. These plants act as nutrient sinker and remover.
Using Phytorid Technology for the treatment of sewage, it is possible to recover and reuse the treated water for gardening purposes.
Incorrect
Solution: B
PHYTORID is a subsurface mixed flow constructed wetland system developed and internationally patented by CSIR-NEERI, Nagpur with successful demonstration in the field for more than 10 years of continuous operation as a stand-alone sewage treatment system.
Phytorid is a self-sustainable technology for wastewater treatment that works on the principle of natural wetland. It uses certain specific plants which can absorb nutrients directly from wastewater but do not require soil. These plants act as nutrient sinker and remover.
Using Phytorid Technology for the treatment of sewage, it is possible to recover and reuse the treated water for gardening purposes.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the advantages of National Quantum Mission?
- Develop magnetometers with high sensitivity in atomic systems and Atomic Clocks for precision timing, communications and navigation.
- Support design and synthesis of quantum materials such as superconductors and novel semiconductor structures.
- Develop single photon sources/detectors or entangled photon sources for quantum communications.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Cabinet approves National Quantum Mission to scale-up scientific & industrial R&D for quantum technologies
National Quantum Mission received cabinet approval at a total cost of Rs. 6003.65 crore, to scale up scientific and industrial R&D, for accelerating Quantum Technology led economic growth and leverage India into a leading nation in the area
The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Hon’ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, approved the National Quantum Mission (NQM) at a total cost of Rs.6003.65 crore from 2023-24 to 2030-31, aiming to seed, nurture and scale up scientific and industrial R&D and create a vibrant & innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT). This will accelerate QT led economic growth, nurture the ecosystem in the country and make India one of the leading nations in the development of Quantum Technologies & Applications (QTA).
The new mission targets developing intermediate scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years in various platforms like superconducting and photonic technology. Satellite based secure quantum communications between ground stations over a range of 2000 kilometres within India, long distance secure quantum communications with other countries, inter-city quantum key distribution over 2000 km as well as multi-node Quantum network with quantum memories are also some of the deliverables of the Mission.
The mission will help develop magnetometers with high sensitivity in atomic systems and Atomic Clocks for precision timing, communications and navigation. It will also support design and synthesis of quantum materials such as superconductors, novel semiconductor structures and topological materials for fabrication of quantum devices. Single photon sources/detectors, entangled photon sources will also be developed for quantum communications, sensing and metrological applications.
Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) will be set up in top academic and National R&D institutes on the domains – Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology and Quantum Materials & Devices. The hubs which will focus on generation of new knowledge through basic and applied research as well as promote R&D in areas that are mandated to them.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Cabinet approves National Quantum Mission to scale-up scientific & industrial R&D for quantum technologies
National Quantum Mission received cabinet approval at a total cost of Rs. 6003.65 crore, to scale up scientific and industrial R&D, for accelerating Quantum Technology led economic growth and leverage India into a leading nation in the area
The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Hon’ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, approved the National Quantum Mission (NQM) at a total cost of Rs.6003.65 crore from 2023-24 to 2030-31, aiming to seed, nurture and scale up scientific and industrial R&D and create a vibrant & innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT). This will accelerate QT led economic growth, nurture the ecosystem in the country and make India one of the leading nations in the development of Quantum Technologies & Applications (QTA).
The new mission targets developing intermediate scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years in various platforms like superconducting and photonic technology. Satellite based secure quantum communications between ground stations over a range of 2000 kilometres within India, long distance secure quantum communications with other countries, inter-city quantum key distribution over 2000 km as well as multi-node Quantum network with quantum memories are also some of the deliverables of the Mission.
The mission will help develop magnetometers with high sensitivity in atomic systems and Atomic Clocks for precision timing, communications and navigation. It will also support design and synthesis of quantum materials such as superconductors, novel semiconductor structures and topological materials for fabrication of quantum devices. Single photon sources/detectors, entangled photon sources will also be developed for quantum communications, sensing and metrological applications.
Four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) will be set up in top academic and National R&D institutes on the domains – Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology and Quantum Materials & Devices. The hubs which will focus on generation of new knowledge through basic and applied research as well as promote R&D in areas that are mandated to them.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the benefits of Fuel cells over conventional combustion-based technologies?
- Fuel cells can operate at higher efficiencies than combustion engines and can convert the chemical energy in the fuel directly to electrical energy with efficiencies capable of exceeding 60%.
- Fuel cells have lower or zero emissions compared to combustion engines.
- Fuel cells are quiet during operation as they have few moving parts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
A fuel cell uses the chemical energy of hydrogen or other fuels to cleanly and efficiently produce electricity. If hydrogen is the fuel, the only products are electricity, water, and heat. Fuel cells are unique in terms of the variety of their potential applications; they can use a wide range of fuels and feedstocks and can provide power for systems as large as a utility power station and as small as a laptop computer.
Fuel cells have several benefits over conventional combustion-based technologies currently used in many power plants and vehicles. Fuel cells can operate at higher efficiencies than combustion engines and can convert the chemical energy in the fuel directly to electrical energy with efficiencies capable of exceeding 60%. Fuel cells have lower or zero emissions compared to combustion engines. Hydrogen fuel cells emit only water, addressing critical climate challenges as there are no carbon dioxide emissions. There also are no air pollutants that create smog and cause health problems at the point of operation. Fuel cells are quiet during operation as they have few moving parts.
Incorrect
Solution: D
A fuel cell uses the chemical energy of hydrogen or other fuels to cleanly and efficiently produce electricity. If hydrogen is the fuel, the only products are electricity, water, and heat. Fuel cells are unique in terms of the variety of their potential applications; they can use a wide range of fuels and feedstocks and can provide power for systems as large as a utility power station and as small as a laptop computer.
Fuel cells have several benefits over conventional combustion-based technologies currently used in many power plants and vehicles. Fuel cells can operate at higher efficiencies than combustion engines and can convert the chemical energy in the fuel directly to electrical energy with efficiencies capable of exceeding 60%. Fuel cells have lower or zero emissions compared to combustion engines. Hydrogen fuel cells emit only water, addressing critical climate challenges as there are no carbon dioxide emissions. There also are no air pollutants that create smog and cause health problems at the point of operation. Fuel cells are quiet during operation as they have few moving parts.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding DataSmart Cities
- It was launched by Smart Cities Mission, Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
- This initiative would focus on evolution of culture of data driven governance in Smart Cities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Smart Cities Mission-Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs intends to launch ‘DataSmart Cities’-Strategy to leverage the potential of data to address complex urban challenges in Smart Cities. DataSmart Cities initiative would focus on evolution of culture of data driven governance in Smart Cities.
DataSmart Cities initiative would encourage cities to setup building blocks of Data Culture at the City level such as setting up Smart City Data Alliance, Smart Cities Data Network, and City Data Strategy etc. It also intends to enable peer to peer learning across cities over the data driven governance and outline reusable use cases for Smart cities in different domains.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Smart Cities Mission-Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs intends to launch ‘DataSmart Cities’-Strategy to leverage the potential of data to address complex urban challenges in Smart Cities. DataSmart Cities initiative would focus on evolution of culture of data driven governance in Smart Cities.
DataSmart Cities initiative would encourage cities to setup building blocks of Data Culture at the City level such as setting up Smart City Data Alliance, Smart Cities Data Network, and City Data Strategy etc. It also intends to enable peer to peer learning across cities over the data driven governance and outline reusable use cases for Smart cities in different domains.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS)
- National Automated Fingerprint Identification System assigns a unique 10-digit National Fingerprint Number for each criminal, based on biometrics.
- Uttar Pradesh became the first state in the country to identify a deceased individual through the National Automated Fingerprint Identification System.
- The national-level NAFIS solution is implemented and managed by the National Crime Records Bureau.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated the National Automated Fingerprint Identification System, or NAFIS, which is designed to help in quick and easy disposal of cases with the help of a centralised fingerprint database.
In April, Madhya Pradesh became the first state in the country to identify a deceased individual through the National Automated Fingerprint Identification System.
The identification of the deceased led to the registration of a homicide case based on circumstantial clues.
NAFIS is the Centre’s ambitious scheme under which workstations were set up in every state for identification through fingerprint and palm print database and matching system.
Its software serves as the key application for fingerprint experts for crime and criminal investigation functions. It also functions as the central information repository of all the crime and criminal-related fingerprint data of the country.
The national-level NAFIS solution is implemented and managed by the Central Fingerprint Bureau (CFPB) at National Crime Records Bureau, New Delhi.
It will enable law enforcement agencies to upload, trace and retrieve information from the database 24×7 in real-time
The identification system aims to establish a robust online searchable national database of fingerprints from all states and UTs.
The key objective of the web-based application is to provide standards-based, interoperable, fast and accurate biometric enrolment and search services at the national and state level.
The system would have configurable virtual partitions which can be accessed by each state or UT and central agencies.
National Automated Fingerprint Identification System assigns a unique 10-digit National Fingerprint Number for each criminal, based on biometrics.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated the National Automated Fingerprint Identification System, or NAFIS, which is designed to help in quick and easy disposal of cases with the help of a centralised fingerprint database.
In April, Madhya Pradesh became the first state in the country to identify a deceased individual through the National Automated Fingerprint Identification System.
The identification of the deceased led to the registration of a homicide case based on circumstantial clues.
NAFIS is the Centre’s ambitious scheme under which workstations were set up in every state for identification through fingerprint and palm print database and matching system.
Its software serves as the key application for fingerprint experts for crime and criminal investigation functions. It also functions as the central information repository of all the crime and criminal-related fingerprint data of the country.
The national-level NAFIS solution is implemented and managed by the Central Fingerprint Bureau (CFPB) at National Crime Records Bureau, New Delhi.
It will enable law enforcement agencies to upload, trace and retrieve information from the database 24×7 in real-time
The identification system aims to establish a robust online searchable national database of fingerprints from all states and UTs.
The key objective of the web-based application is to provide standards-based, interoperable, fast and accurate biometric enrolment and search services at the national and state level.
The system would have configurable virtual partitions which can be accessed by each state or UT and central agencies.
National Automated Fingerprint Identification System assigns a unique 10-digit National Fingerprint Number for each criminal, based on biometrics.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following factors can lead to economic crises?
- Inappropriate fiscal and monetary policies
- An exchange rate fixed at an inappropriate level
- Weak financial system
- Political instability and weak institutions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
What are IMF bailouts?
In a general sense, a bailout means extending support to an entity facing a threat of bankruptcy. Countries seek IMF bailouts when they are facing macroeconomic risks, currency crises and need assistance to meet external debt obligations, to buy essential imports and push the exchange value of their currencies.
According to the IMF website, inappropriate fiscal and monetary policies, which can lead to large current account and fiscal deficits and high public debt levels; an exchange rate fixed at an inappropriate level, which can erode competitiveness and result in the loss of official reserves, and a weak financial system, which can create economic booms and busts are among factors that lead to economic crises. Political instability and weak institutions also can trigger crises, as can insolvent financial institutions.
The IMF was set up in 1945 with the aim to bring about international economic coordination to prevent competing currency devaluation by countries trying to promote their own exports. It later went on to become a last resort lender for countries facing severe economic crises.
Incorrect
Solution: D
What are IMF bailouts?
In a general sense, a bailout means extending support to an entity facing a threat of bankruptcy. Countries seek IMF bailouts when they are facing macroeconomic risks, currency crises and need assistance to meet external debt obligations, to buy essential imports and push the exchange value of their currencies.
According to the IMF website, inappropriate fiscal and monetary policies, which can lead to large current account and fiscal deficits and high public debt levels; an exchange rate fixed at an inappropriate level, which can erode competitiveness and result in the loss of official reserves, and a weak financial system, which can create economic booms and busts are among factors that lead to economic crises. Political instability and weak institutions also can trigger crises, as can insolvent financial institutions.
The IMF was set up in 1945 with the aim to bring about international economic coordination to prevent competing currency devaluation by countries trying to promote their own exports. It later went on to become a last resort lender for countries facing severe economic crises.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Tibetan Buddhism
- Tibetan Buddhism combines the essential teachings of Mahayana Buddhism with Tantric and Shamanic, and material from an ancient Tibetan religion called Bon.
- Tibetan Buddhist practice features a number of rituals, and spiritual practices such as the use of mantras and yogic techniques.
- Supernatural beings are prominent in Tibetan Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Tibetan Buddhism
Tibetan Buddhism combines the essential teachings of Mahayana Buddhism with Tantric and Shamanic, and material from an ancient Tibetan religion called Bon.
Although Tibetan Buddhism is often thought to be identical with Vajrayana Buddhism, they are not identical – Vajrayana is taught in Tibetan Buddhism together with the other vehicles.
History
Buddhism became a major presence in Tibet towards the end of the 8th century CE. It was brought from India at the invitation of the Tibetan king, Trisong Detsen, who invited two Buddhist masters to Tibet and had important Buddhist texts translated into Tibetan.
First to come was Shantarakshita, abbot of Nalanda in India, who built the first monastery in Tibet. He was followed by Padmasambhava, who came to use his wisdom and power to overcome “spiritual” forces that were stopping work on the new monastery.
Special features of Tibetan Buddhism
- the status of the teacher or “Lama”
- preoccupation with the relationship between life and death
- important role of rituals and initiations
- rich visual symbolism
- elements of earlier Tibetan faiths
- mantras and meditation practice
Tibetan Buddhist practice features a number of rituals, and spiritual practices such as the use of mantras and yogic techniques.
Supernatural beings are prominent in Tibetan Buddhism. Buddhas and bodhisattvas abound, gods and spirits taken from earlier Tibetan religions continue to be taken seriously. Bodhisattvas are portrayed as both benevolent godlike figures and wrathful deities.
This metaphysical context has allowed Tibetan Buddhism to develop a strong artistic tradition, and paintings and other graphics are used as aids to understanding at all levels of society.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Tibetan Buddhism
Tibetan Buddhism combines the essential teachings of Mahayana Buddhism with Tantric and Shamanic, and material from an ancient Tibetan religion called Bon.
Although Tibetan Buddhism is often thought to be identical with Vajrayana Buddhism, they are not identical – Vajrayana is taught in Tibetan Buddhism together with the other vehicles.
History
Buddhism became a major presence in Tibet towards the end of the 8th century CE. It was brought from India at the invitation of the Tibetan king, Trisong Detsen, who invited two Buddhist masters to Tibet and had important Buddhist texts translated into Tibetan.
First to come was Shantarakshita, abbot of Nalanda in India, who built the first monastery in Tibet. He was followed by Padmasambhava, who came to use his wisdom and power to overcome “spiritual” forces that were stopping work on the new monastery.
Special features of Tibetan Buddhism
- the status of the teacher or “Lama”
- preoccupation with the relationship between life and death
- important role of rituals and initiations
- rich visual symbolism
- elements of earlier Tibetan faiths
- mantras and meditation practice
Tibetan Buddhist practice features a number of rituals, and spiritual practices such as the use of mantras and yogic techniques.
Supernatural beings are prominent in Tibetan Buddhism. Buddhas and bodhisattvas abound, gods and spirits taken from earlier Tibetan religions continue to be taken seriously. Bodhisattvas are portrayed as both benevolent godlike figures and wrathful deities.
This metaphysical context has allowed Tibetan Buddhism to develop a strong artistic tradition, and paintings and other graphics are used as aids to understanding at all levels of society.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Corporate debt market development fund
- It has been set up by RBI in the form of an alternative investment fund with an initial corpus of Rs 3,000 crore.
- It will act as a backstop facility for purchase of investment grade corporate debt securities during times of stress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
corporate debt market development fund
Sebi decided to set up a corporate debt market development fund in the form of an AIF with an initial corpus of Rs 3,000 crore to act as a backstop facility for purchase of investment grade corporate debt securities during times of stress.
The move is aimed at instilling confidence amongst the participants in the corporate bond market and to generally enhance secondary market liquidity.
The proposed Corporate Debt Market Development Fund (CDMDF) will have an initial corpus of Rs 3,000 crore contributed by mutual funds.
Further, she said the government has allowed a 10x usage of this corpus to be availed taking the available fund to Rs 33,000 crore and this additional corpus is also guaranteed by the central credit guarantee corporation.
CDMDF, based on a guarantee to be provided by National Credit Guarantee Trust Company (NCGTC) may raise funds, for purchase of corporate debt securities during market dislocation.
Incorrect
Solution: B
corporate debt market development fund
Sebi decided to set up a corporate debt market development fund in the form of an AIF with an initial corpus of Rs 3,000 crore to act as a backstop facility for purchase of investment grade corporate debt securities during times of stress.
The move is aimed at instilling confidence amongst the participants in the corporate bond market and to generally enhance secondary market liquidity.
The proposed Corporate Debt Market Development Fund (CDMDF) will have an initial corpus of Rs 3,000 crore contributed by mutual funds.
Further, she said the government has allowed a 10x usage of this corpus to be availed taking the available fund to Rs 33,000 crore and this additional corpus is also guaranteed by the central credit guarantee corporation.
CDMDF, based on a guarantee to be provided by National Credit Guarantee Trust Company (NCGTC) may raise funds, for purchase of corporate debt securities during market dislocation.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Piezoelectricity
- Piezoelectricity is the electric charge that accumulates in certain solid materials, in response to applied mechanical stress.
- It can develop in crystals, certain ceramics, and biological matter such as bone, DNA, and various proteins.
- Pierre Curie was one of the scientists who discovered piezoelectricity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Piezoelectricity is the electric charge that accumulates in certain solid materials—such as crystals, certain ceramics, and biological matter such as bone, DNA, and various proteins—in response to applied mechanical stress. The word piezoelectricity means electricity resulting from pressure and latent heat.
French physicists Jacques and Pierre Curie discovered piezoelectricity in 1880. The piezoelectric effect has been exploited in many useful applications, including the production and detection of sound, piezoelectric inkjet printing, generation of high voltage electricity, as a clock generator in electronic devices, in microbalances, to drive an ultrasonic nozzle, and in ultrafine focusing of optical assemblies. It forms the basis for scanning probe microscopes that resolve images at the scale of atoms. It is used in the pickups of some electronically amplified guitars and as triggers in most modern electronic drums. The piezoelectric effect also finds everyday uses, such as generating sparks to ignite gas cooking and heating devices, torches, and cigarette lighters.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Piezoelectricity is the electric charge that accumulates in certain solid materials—such as crystals, certain ceramics, and biological matter such as bone, DNA, and various proteins—in response to applied mechanical stress. The word piezoelectricity means electricity resulting from pressure and latent heat.
French physicists Jacques and Pierre Curie discovered piezoelectricity in 1880. The piezoelectric effect has been exploited in many useful applications, including the production and detection of sound, piezoelectric inkjet printing, generation of high voltage electricity, as a clock generator in electronic devices, in microbalances, to drive an ultrasonic nozzle, and in ultrafine focusing of optical assemblies. It forms the basis for scanning probe microscopes that resolve images at the scale of atoms. It is used in the pickups of some electronically amplified guitars and as triggers in most modern electronic drums. The piezoelectric effect also finds everyday uses, such as generating sparks to ignite gas cooking and heating devices, torches, and cigarette lighters.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Patents in India
- The Patent Act was enacted based on the Justice Ann report ‘s recommendations, an Ayyangar Committee led by Iyengar Rajagopala.
- The patent has a limited term of 20 years, which is counted from the date of approval of the patent application.
- The Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) provides a way to file an international patent application in which a patent can be filed through a single patent application in a large number of countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The history of patent law in India begins with the enactment of the Indian Patents and Designs Act in 1911. Subsequently, in 1972, the current Patents Act 1970, came into effect, amending and consolidating the established patent legislation in India. The Patent Act essentially is based on the Justice Ann report ‘s recommendations, an Ayyangar Committee led by Iyengar Rajagopala. One of the recommendations was the granting of process patents in relation to drug, drug, food, and chemical inventions. The Patents Act, 1970 was amended once again by the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005 concerning the extension of product patents in all areas of technology including food, medicine, chemicals, and microorganisms.
The patent has a limited term of 20 years, which is counted from the date of filing of the patent application. A patent is a territorial right. Thus it can only be applied in the country where it has been granted. A patent is a territorial right. Thus it can only be applied in the country where it has been granted. Therefore, any legal action against infringement or infringement of patent rights can only be taken in that country. To obtain patent protection in different countries, each country must apply for a patent. The Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) provides a way to file an international patent application in which a patent can be filed through a single patent application in a large number of countries. However, the PCT of a patent remains discretionary of the individual patent office only after the application is filed.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The history of patent law in India begins with the enactment of the Indian Patents and Designs Act in 1911. Subsequently, in 1972, the current Patents Act 1970, came into effect, amending and consolidating the established patent legislation in India. The Patent Act essentially is based on the Justice Ann report ‘s recommendations, an Ayyangar Committee led by Iyengar Rajagopala. One of the recommendations was the granting of process patents in relation to drug, drug, food, and chemical inventions. The Patents Act, 1970 was amended once again by the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2005 concerning the extension of product patents in all areas of technology including food, medicine, chemicals, and microorganisms.
The patent has a limited term of 20 years, which is counted from the date of filing of the patent application. A patent is a territorial right. Thus it can only be applied in the country where it has been granted. A patent is a territorial right. Thus it can only be applied in the country where it has been granted. Therefore, any legal action against infringement or infringement of patent rights can only be taken in that country. To obtain patent protection in different countries, each country must apply for a patent. The Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT) provides a way to file an international patent application in which a patent can be filed through a single patent application in a large number of countries. However, the PCT of a patent remains discretionary of the individual patent office only after the application is filed.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsGandhamardan Hill, which was recently declared as biodiversity heritage site
Correct
Solution: A
Odisha declares Gandhamardan Hill as biodiversity heritage site
The Odisha government has declared the Gandhamardan Hill Range in Bargarh and Balangir district as a Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS), three decades after a highly successful people’s resistance against bauxite mining there.
A notification issued by the State Forest, Environment and Climate Change Department says, the government declared an area of 18,963.898 hectare of Gandhamardan Hill (Gandhamardan Reserve Forest) including 12,431.8 ha (Bargarh) and 6,532.098 ha (Balangir) as BHS of Odisha.
Prior to the declaration, the Odisha Biodiversity Board had received several representations from individuals and organisations for declaring Gandhamardan as BHS.
This is the third BHS of Odisha after Mandasuru Gorge in Kandhamal district and Mahendragiri Hill Range in Gajapati district.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Odisha declares Gandhamardan Hill as biodiversity heritage site
The Odisha government has declared the Gandhamardan Hill Range in Bargarh and Balangir district as a Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS), three decades after a highly successful people’s resistance against bauxite mining there.
A notification issued by the State Forest, Environment and Climate Change Department says, the government declared an area of 18,963.898 hectare of Gandhamardan Hill (Gandhamardan Reserve Forest) including 12,431.8 ha (Bargarh) and 6,532.098 ha (Balangir) as BHS of Odisha.
Prior to the declaration, the Odisha Biodiversity Board had received several representations from individuals and organisations for declaring Gandhamardan as BHS.
This is the third BHS of Odisha after Mandasuru Gorge in Kandhamal district and Mahendragiri Hill Range in Gajapati district.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the features of Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations?
- Diplomats must not be liable to any form of arrest or detention.
- Family members of diplomats living in the host country enjoy most of the same protections as the diplomats themselves.
- Diplomatic missions are exempt from taxes and customs duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961 is an international treaty that defines a framework for diplomatic relations between independent countries.
Summary of provisions
The Vienna Convention is an extensive document, containing 53 articles. The following is a basic overview of its key provisions.
- The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff to be persona non grata. The sending state must recall this person within a reasonable period of time, or otherwise this person may lose their diplomatic immunity (Article 9).
- The premises of a diplomatic mission, diplomatic premiers are the houses of ambassadors and are inviolable and must not be entered by the host country except by permission of the head of the mission; likewise, the host country must never search the premises, may not seize its documents or property, and must protect the mission from intrusion or damage (Article 22). Article 30 extends this provision to the private residence of the diplomats.
- The archives and documents of a diplomatic mission are inviolable and shall not be seized or opened by the host government (Article 24).
- The host country must permit and protect free communication between the diplomats of the mission and their home country. A diplomatic bag must never be opened, even on suspicion of abuse, and a diplomatic courier must never be arrested or detained (Article 27).
- Diplomats must not be liable to any form of arrest or detention, and the receiving state must make all efforts to protect their person and dignity (Article 29).
- Diplomats are immune from the civil and criminal jurisdiction of the host state, with exceptions for professional activities outside the diplomat’s official functions (Article 31). Article 32 permits sending states to waive this immunity.
- Diplomatic missions are exempt from taxes (Article 34) and customs duties (Article 36).
- Family members of diplomats living in the host country enjoy most of the same protections as the diplomats themselves (Article 37).
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961 is an international treaty that defines a framework for diplomatic relations between independent countries.
Summary of provisions
The Vienna Convention is an extensive document, containing 53 articles. The following is a basic overview of its key provisions.
- The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff to be persona non grata. The sending state must recall this person within a reasonable period of time, or otherwise this person may lose their diplomatic immunity (Article 9).
- The premises of a diplomatic mission, diplomatic premiers are the houses of ambassadors and are inviolable and must not be entered by the host country except by permission of the head of the mission; likewise, the host country must never search the premises, may not seize its documents or property, and must protect the mission from intrusion or damage (Article 22). Article 30 extends this provision to the private residence of the diplomats.
- The archives and documents of a diplomatic mission are inviolable and shall not be seized or opened by the host government (Article 24).
- The host country must permit and protect free communication between the diplomats of the mission and their home country. A diplomatic bag must never be opened, even on suspicion of abuse, and a diplomatic courier must never be arrested or detained (Article 27).
- Diplomats must not be liable to any form of arrest or detention, and the receiving state must make all efforts to protect their person and dignity (Article 29).
- Diplomats are immune from the civil and criminal jurisdiction of the host state, with exceptions for professional activities outside the diplomat’s official functions (Article 31). Article 32 permits sending states to waive this immunity.
- Diplomatic missions are exempt from taxes (Article 34) and customs duties (Article 36).
- Family members of diplomats living in the host country enjoy most of the same protections as the diplomats themselves (Article 37).
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsInternational Debt Report (IDR) is released by
Correct
Solution: A
The International Debt Report (IDR), formerly International Debt Statistics (IDS), is a longstanding annual publication of the World Bank featuring external debt statistics and analysis for the 121 low- and middle-income countries that report to the World Bank Debt Reporting System (DRS).
Incorrect
Solution: A
The International Debt Report (IDR), formerly International Debt Statistics (IDS), is a longstanding annual publication of the World Bank featuring external debt statistics and analysis for the 121 low- and middle-income countries that report to the World Bank Debt Reporting System (DRS).
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Bacteriophages:
- It is a type of bacteria that infects fungus.
- It is composed of a nucleic acid molecule that is surrounded by a protein structure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
A bacteriophage is a type of virus that infects bacteria. In fact, the word “bacteriophage” literally means “bacteria eater,” because bacteriophages destroy their host cells.
All bacteriophages are composed of a nucleic acid molecule that is surrounded by a protein structure.
Incorrect
Solution: B
A bacteriophage is a type of virus that infects bacteria. In fact, the word “bacteriophage” literally means “bacteria eater,” because bacteriophages destroy their host cells.
All bacteriophages are composed of a nucleic acid molecule that is surrounded by a protein structure.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Gamete IntraFallopian Transfer (GIFT):
- Under this, ovum collected from the donor is transferred to the fallopian tube of the recipient along with the sperm.
- Fertilization occurs inside a woman’s body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
In Vitro Fertilization
In Vitro Fertilization is the most common form of ART that is used by maximum patients than for any other ARTs today. IVF is the one where a woman’s eggs are combined with man’s sperm in a laboratory. This sperm is placed inside the woman’s uterus soon after the embryos are fertilized.
GIFT – Gamete IntraFallopian Transfer:
Gamete Intrafallopian transfer was one of the common forms of ART but not today. The GIFT, ovum collected from the donor is transferred to the fallopian tube of the recipient along with the sperm. Fertilization occurs inside a woman’s body in GIFT treatments and not in a lab.
This ART is a better option for the couples who opt for a natural treatment which enables the fertilization and implantation to occur naturally inside the woman’s body.
Incorrect
Solution: C
In Vitro Fertilization
In Vitro Fertilization is the most common form of ART that is used by maximum patients than for any other ARTs today. IVF is the one where a woman’s eggs are combined with man’s sperm in a laboratory. This sperm is placed inside the woman’s uterus soon after the embryos are fertilized.
GIFT – Gamete IntraFallopian Transfer:
Gamete Intrafallopian transfer was one of the common forms of ART but not today. The GIFT, ovum collected from the donor is transferred to the fallopian tube of the recipient along with the sperm. Fertilization occurs inside a woman’s body in GIFT treatments and not in a lab.
This ART is a better option for the couples who opt for a natural treatment which enables the fertilization and implantation to occur naturally inside the woman’s body.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding G6PD deficiency
- It is a hereditary condition.
- Due to the deficiency, the white blood cells break down when the body is exposed to certain foods, drugs, infections or stress.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is a hereditary condition in which red blood cells break down (hemolysis) when the body is exposed to certain foods, drugs, infections or stress. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
It occurs when a person is missing or has low levels of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase. This enzyme helps red blood cells work properly. Symptoms during a hemolytic episode may include dark urine, fatigue, paleness, rapid heart rate, shortness of breath, and yellowing of the skin (jaundice). G6PD deficiency is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner and symptoms are more common in males (particularly African Americans and those from certain parts of Africa, Asia, and the Mediterranean).
It is caused by mutations in the G6PD gene. Treatment may involve medicines to treat infection, stopping drugs that are causing red blood cell destruction, and/or transfusions, in some cases.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is a hereditary condition in which red blood cells break down (hemolysis) when the body is exposed to certain foods, drugs, infections or stress. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
It occurs when a person is missing or has low levels of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase. This enzyme helps red blood cells work properly. Symptoms during a hemolytic episode may include dark urine, fatigue, paleness, rapid heart rate, shortness of breath, and yellowing of the skin (jaundice). G6PD deficiency is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner and symptoms are more common in males (particularly African Americans and those from certain parts of Africa, Asia, and the Mediterranean).
It is caused by mutations in the G6PD gene. Treatment may involve medicines to treat infection, stopping drugs that are causing red blood cell destruction, and/or transfusions, in some cases.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following pollutants are contaminating the ground water in India?
- Nitrate
- Arsenic
- Iron
- Uranium
- Cadmium
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
Scientists have found widespread uranium contamination in groundwater from aquifers across 16 states in India, much above the WHO provisional standard for the country.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Fast breeder Reactor
- Sodium is used as moderator in the reactor.
- The mixture of Uranium-238 and Plutonium-239 is used as fuel.
- No coolant is required for the reactor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Fast breeder Reactor:
Fuel – Mixture of Uranium-238 and Plutonium-239
No Moderator is needed.
Sodium is used as coolant.
Pu-239 is a fissile material and on reaction this too results in extra neutrons than current chain reaction needs. These extra neutrons again are absorbed by U-238 and converted to Pu-239. At this stage more fuel is generated than is consumed. That is why it is called ‘Breeder reactor’.
This reactor doesn’t use Moderator as at high speed of neutrons only, does Pu-239 produces extra neutrons.
Further, 2nd stage is crucial for 3rs stage as it will convert Thorium-232 (which occurs naturally) into Uranium – 233 by transmutation. This will be done in following way –
Incorrect
Solution: C
Fast breeder Reactor:
Fuel – Mixture of Uranium-238 and Plutonium-239
No Moderator is needed.
Sodium is used as coolant.
Pu-239 is a fissile material and on reaction this too results in extra neutrons than current chain reaction needs. These extra neutrons again are absorbed by U-238 and converted to Pu-239. At this stage more fuel is generated than is consumed. That is why it is called ‘Breeder reactor’.
This reactor doesn’t use Moderator as at high speed of neutrons only, does Pu-239 produces extra neutrons.
Further, 2nd stage is crucial for 3rs stage as it will convert Thorium-232 (which occurs naturally) into Uranium – 233 by transmutation. This will be done in following way –
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Fairbank’s disease:
- It is a non-communicable bacterial disease.
- It affects the growing ends of bones.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
- Fairbank’s disease or multiple epiphyseal dysplasia (MED) is a rare genetic disorder (dominant form: 1 in 10,000 births) that affects the growing ends of bones.
- Long bones normally elongate by expansion of cartilage in the growth plate (epiphyseal plate) near their ends.
Incorrect
Solution: B
- Fairbank’s disease or multiple epiphyseal dysplasia (MED) is a rare genetic disorder (dominant form: 1 in 10,000 births) that affects the growing ends of bones.
- Long bones normally elongate by expansion of cartilage in the growth plate (epiphyseal plate) near their ends.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsTritiya Ratna and Shetkarayacha Aasud (Cultivator’s Whipcord) were the works of
Correct
Solution: D
Jyotirao Phule:
About Jyotirao Phule:
- Born in 1827 in Satara district of Maharashtra.
- Phule was given the title of Mahatma on May 11, 1888, by Vithalrao Krishnaji Vandekar, a Maharashtrian social activist.
Social reforms and key contributions:
- His work is related mainly to eradication of untouchability and caste system, emancipation and empowerment of women, reform of Hindu family life.
- Along with his wife, Savitribai Phule, he is regarded as pioneers of women’s education in India.
- The couples were the first native Indians to open the first indigenously-run school for girls in India in August 1848 at Pune in Maharashtra.
- Later, the Phules started schools for children from the then untouchable castes such as Mahar and Mang.
- In 1863, he opened a home for pregnant Brahmin widows to give birth in a safe and secure place.
- He opened an orphanage home to avoid infanticide. In this regard, he is believed to be the first Hindu to start an orphanage for the unfortunate children.
- In 1868, Jyotirao decided to construct a common bathing tank outside his house to exhibit his embracing attitude towards all human beings and wished to dine with everyone, regardless of their caste.
- In 1873, Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj, or the Society of Seekers of Truth, for the rights of depressed classes, to denounce the caste system and to spread rational thinking.
His famous works:
Tritiya Ratna (1855), Gulamgiri (1873), Shetkarayacha Aasud, or Cultivator’s Whipcord (1881), Satyashodhak Samajokt Mangalashtakasah Sarva Puja-vidhi (1887).
Incorrect
Solution: D
Jyotirao Phule:
About Jyotirao Phule:
- Born in 1827 in Satara district of Maharashtra.
- Phule was given the title of Mahatma on May 11, 1888, by Vithalrao Krishnaji Vandekar, a Maharashtrian social activist.
Social reforms and key contributions:
- His work is related mainly to eradication of untouchability and caste system, emancipation and empowerment of women, reform of Hindu family life.
- Along with his wife, Savitribai Phule, he is regarded as pioneers of women’s education in India.
- The couples were the first native Indians to open the first indigenously-run school for girls in India in August 1848 at Pune in Maharashtra.
- Later, the Phules started schools for children from the then untouchable castes such as Mahar and Mang.
- In 1863, he opened a home for pregnant Brahmin widows to give birth in a safe and secure place.
- He opened an orphanage home to avoid infanticide. In this regard, he is believed to be the first Hindu to start an orphanage for the unfortunate children.
- In 1868, Jyotirao decided to construct a common bathing tank outside his house to exhibit his embracing attitude towards all human beings and wished to dine with everyone, regardless of their caste.
- In 1873, Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj, or the Society of Seekers of Truth, for the rights of depressed classes, to denounce the caste system and to spread rational thinking.
His famous works:
Tritiya Ratna (1855), Gulamgiri (1873), Shetkarayacha Aasud, or Cultivator’s Whipcord (1881), Satyashodhak Samajokt Mangalashtakasah Sarva Puja-vidhi (1887).
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsUnder which of the following cases that the Supreme Court of India held that access to information via the Internet is a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution?
Correct
Solution: A
Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India case:
The legality of internet shutdown and movement restrictions are challenged under Article 32 of the Constitution
The Supreme Court of India ruled that an undefined restriction of internet services would be illegal and that orders for internet shutdown must satisfy the tests of necessity and proportionality.
The Court recapitulates that freedom of speech and expression included right to the internet and therefore was protected under the constitution. However, it could only be restricted when there is a risk against citizens and in the name of national security.
The court ruled that this order which imposes a complete restriction on the internet should be published for the public and was also subject to judicial review.Incorrect
Solution: A
Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India case:
The legality of internet shutdown and movement restrictions are challenged under Article 32 of the Constitution
The Supreme Court of India ruled that an undefined restriction of internet services would be illegal and that orders for internet shutdown must satisfy the tests of necessity and proportionality.
The Court recapitulates that freedom of speech and expression included right to the internet and therefore was protected under the constitution. However, it could only be restricted when there is a risk against citizens and in the name of national security.
The court ruled that this order which imposes a complete restriction on the internet should be published for the public and was also subject to judicial review. -
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons (ICAN)
- It was awarded Nobel Peace prize.
- It is working to promote adherence to and full implementation of the Treaty on Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons is a global civil society coalition working to promote adherence to and full implementation of the Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons. The campaign helped bring about this treaty.
ICAN was launched in 2007 and counts 541 partner organizations in 103 countries as of 2019.
The campaign received the 2017 Nobel Peace Prize “for its work to draw attention to the catastrophic humanitarian consequences of any use of nuclear weapons and for its ground-breaking efforts to achieve a treaty-based prohibition of such weapons.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The International Campaign to Abolish Nuclear Weapons is a global civil society coalition working to promote adherence to and full implementation of the Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons. The campaign helped bring about this treaty.
ICAN was launched in 2007 and counts 541 partner organizations in 103 countries as of 2019.
The campaign received the 2017 Nobel Peace Prize “for its work to draw attention to the catastrophic humanitarian consequences of any use of nuclear weapons and for its ground-breaking efforts to achieve a treaty-based prohibition of such weapons.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following organizations has released the AWaRe (for Access, Watch, and Reserve) tool?
Correct
Solution: C
The tool, called AWaRe (for Access, Watch, and Reserve), was developed by the WHO Essential Medicines List to reduce the spread of antimicrobial resistance (AMR), antibiotic-related adverse events, and drug costs.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The tool, called AWaRe (for Access, Watch, and Reserve), was developed by the WHO Essential Medicines List to reduce the spread of antimicrobial resistance (AMR), antibiotic-related adverse events, and drug costs.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsStatement: Should cutting of trees be banned altogether?
Arguments: I. Yes. It is very much necessary to do so to restore ecological balance.
II. No. A total ban would harm timber based industries.
Give answer
Correct
Answer (d) if both I and II are strong.
Explanation:
Clearly, trees play a vital role in maintaining ecological balance and so must be preserved. So, argument I holds. Also, trees form the basic source of timber and a complete ban on cutting of trees would harm timber based industries. So, only a controlled cutting of trees should be allowed and the loss replenished by planting more trees. So, argument II is also valid.
Incorrect
Answer (d) if both I and II are strong.
Explanation:
Clearly, trees play a vital role in maintaining ecological balance and so must be preserved. So, argument I holds. Also, trees form the basic source of timber and a complete ban on cutting of trees would harm timber based industries. So, only a controlled cutting of trees should be allowed and the loss replenished by planting more trees. So, argument II is also valid.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsStatements: Some bricks are trees.
All trees are pens.
All pens are boats.
Conclusions: I. Some boats are bricks
II. Some pens are bricks
III. Some trees are bricks.
IV. Some bricks are boats.
Correct
Answer (d) All follow
Explanation:
III is the converse of the first premise and so it holds.
Some bricks are trees. All trees are pens.
Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be particular and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘Some bricks are pens’.
II is the converse of this conclusion and so it holds.
All trees are pens. All pens are boats.
Since both the premises are universal and affirmative, the conclusion must be universal affirmative and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘All trees are boats’.
Some bricks are trees. All trees are boats. Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be particular and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘Some bricks are boats’. Thus, IV follows. I is the converse of this conclusion and so it also holds.
Incorrect
Answer (d) All follow
Explanation:
III is the converse of the first premise and so it holds.
Some bricks are trees. All trees are pens.
Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be particular and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘Some bricks are pens’.
II is the converse of this conclusion and so it holds.
All trees are pens. All pens are boats.
Since both the premises are universal and affirmative, the conclusion must be universal affirmative and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘All trees are boats’.
Some bricks are trees. All trees are boats. Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be particular and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘Some bricks are boats’. Thus, IV follows. I is the converse of this conclusion and so it also holds.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsStatement : Lack of coordination between the University, its colleges and various authorities has resulted in students ousted from one college seeking migration to another.
Courses of action :
I.If a student is ousted from a college, the information should be sent to all the other colleges of the University.
II. The admissions to all the colleges of the University should be handled by the University directly.
III. A separate section should be made for taking strict action against students indulging in anti-social activities
Correct
Answer (a) Only I follows
Explanation:
Clearly, the issue is not so big as to allot all powers of admissions to colleges, to the University only. So, II does not follow. The problem So, can be solved by circulating the information of the ousted students to all the colleges so as to ensure that such students do not get admission elsewhere also. This might prove useful in rectifying such students. So, I follows while III does not.
Incorrect
Answer (a) Only I follows
Explanation:
Clearly, the issue is not so big as to allot all powers of admissions to colleges, to the University only. So, II does not follow. The problem So, can be solved by circulating the information of the ousted students to all the colleges so as to ensure that such students do not get admission elsewhere also. This might prove useful in rectifying such students. So, I follows while III does not.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsSince Malcolm Gladwell’s book, Outliers, popularized the concept, many now believe that to become world-class in a skill, they must complete 10,000 hours of deliberate practice in order to beat the competition, going as deep as possible into one field. Modern polymaths like Elon Musk, Steve Jobs go against the grain of this popular advice, building atypical combinations of skills and knowledge across fields and then integrating them to create breakthrough ideas and even brand new fields and industries where there is little competition.
Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?
Correct
Ans. C.
A is wrong as the passage is talking about polymaths which cant be generalized for specialists as well. B is wrong as being a polymath was useful even in earlier years as is evident by the examples. C is correct based on the reading of the passage.
Incorrect
Ans. C.
A is wrong as the passage is talking about polymaths which cant be generalized for specialists as well. B is wrong as being a polymath was useful even in earlier years as is evident by the examples. C is correct based on the reading of the passage.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsStatement : Be humble even after being victorious.
Assumptions :
I. Many people are humble after being victorious.
II.Generally people are not humble.
Correct
Answer (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Explanation:
Clearly, nothing is mentioned about the nature of the people.
So, I is not implicit.
Also, the statement gives an advice of being humble even after being victorious. This means that generally people are not humble. So, II is implicit.
Incorrect
Answer (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Explanation:
Clearly, nothing is mentioned about the nature of the people.
So, I is not implicit.
Also, the statement gives an advice of being humble even after being victorious. This means that generally people are not humble. So, II is implicit.
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