INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Graded Response Action Plan
- GRAP is a set of emergency measures that kick in to prevent further deterioration of air quality once it reaches a certain threshold in the Delhi-NCR region.
- It was approved by Supreme Court.
- It is been implemented by Central Pollution Control Board.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
What is the Graded Response Action Plan?
GRAP is a set of emergency measures that kick in to prevent further deterioration of air quality once it reaches a certain threshold in the Delhi-NCR region. Approved by the Supreme Court in 2016 and notified in 2017, the plan was formulated after several meetings that the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) held with state government representatives and experts. The result was a plan that institutionalised measures to be taken when air quality deteriorates.
GRAP is incremental in nature and thus, when the air quality dips from ‘poor’ to ‘very poor,’ measures listed under both sections have to be followed. Stage 1 of GRAP is activated when the AQI is in the ‘poor’ category (201 to 300), Stage 2 is when it’s in the ‘Very poor’ category (301-400), Stage 3 is when the AQI is the ‘Severe’ category (401-450) and finally Stage 4 is when it rises to the ‘Severe +’ category (more than 450).
Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas has replaced Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA).
Incorrect
Solution: B
What is the Graded Response Action Plan?
GRAP is a set of emergency measures that kick in to prevent further deterioration of air quality once it reaches a certain threshold in the Delhi-NCR region. Approved by the Supreme Court in 2016 and notified in 2017, the plan was formulated after several meetings that the Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) held with state government representatives and experts. The result was a plan that institutionalised measures to be taken when air quality deteriorates.
GRAP is incremental in nature and thus, when the air quality dips from ‘poor’ to ‘very poor,’ measures listed under both sections have to be followed. Stage 1 of GRAP is activated when the AQI is in the ‘poor’ category (201 to 300), Stage 2 is when it’s in the ‘Very poor’ category (301-400), Stage 3 is when the AQI is the ‘Severe’ category (401-450) and finally Stage 4 is when it rises to the ‘Severe +’ category (more than 450).
Commission for Air Quality Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas has replaced Environment Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA).
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Project Lion
- Project Lion is being implemented by the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL).
- Project Lion envisages landscape ecology-based conservation of the Asiatic Lion in Gujarat by integrating conservation and eco-development.
- The financial assistance is provided under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS)- ‘Development of Wildlife Habitats’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
the Project Lion document titled “Lion @ 47: Vision for Amrutkal” has been prepared with the following objectives to secure & restore lions’ habitats for managing its growing population; scale up livelihood generation and participation of local communities; become a global hub of knowledge on big cat disease diagnostics and treatment and create inclusive biodiversity conservation through project lion initiative.
Project Lion envisages landscape ecology-based conservation of the Asiatic Lion in Gujarat by integrating conservation and eco-development. The Project is being implemented in the Gir landscape in Gujarat which is the last home of the Asiatic lion.
Project Lion is being implemented by the State Government of Gujarat and other stakeholders like Central Zoo Authority. Financial assistance of Rs. 124.58lakhs have been provided to State of Gujarat for conservation of wildlife including Asiatic Lions under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS)- ‘Development of Wildlife Habitats’ during last three years.
Asiatic Lions:
- Scientific name: Panthera leo persica
- IUCN Status: Endangered, CITES: Appendix I, Wildlife Conservation Act: Schedule I
- Slightly smaller than African Lions
- The most striking morphological character, which is always seen in Asiatic lions, and rarely in African lions, is a longitudinal fold of skin running along its belly.
- The fur ranges in colour from ruddy-tawny, heavily speckled with black, to sandy or buff-grey, sometimes with a silvery sheen in certain lights.
- Males have only moderate mane growth at the top of the head, so that their ears are always visible.
Incorrect
Solution: D
the Project Lion document titled “Lion @ 47: Vision for Amrutkal” has been prepared with the following objectives to secure & restore lions’ habitats for managing its growing population; scale up livelihood generation and participation of local communities; become a global hub of knowledge on big cat disease diagnostics and treatment and create inclusive biodiversity conservation through project lion initiative.
Project Lion envisages landscape ecology-based conservation of the Asiatic Lion in Gujarat by integrating conservation and eco-development. The Project is being implemented in the Gir landscape in Gujarat which is the last home of the Asiatic lion.
Project Lion is being implemented by the State Government of Gujarat and other stakeholders like Central Zoo Authority. Financial assistance of Rs. 124.58lakhs have been provided to State of Gujarat for conservation of wildlife including Asiatic Lions under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS)- ‘Development of Wildlife Habitats’ during last three years.
Asiatic Lions:
- Scientific name: Panthera leo persica
- IUCN Status: Endangered, CITES: Appendix I, Wildlife Conservation Act: Schedule I
- Slightly smaller than African Lions
- The most striking morphological character, which is always seen in Asiatic lions, and rarely in African lions, is a longitudinal fold of skin running along its belly.
- The fur ranges in colour from ruddy-tawny, heavily speckled with black, to sandy or buff-grey, sometimes with a silvery sheen in certain lights.
- Males have only moderate mane growth at the top of the head, so that their ears are always visible.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsTal Chhapar blackbuck sanctuary is located in the state of
Correct
Solution: A
Tal Chhapar blackbuck sanctuary
The famous Tal Chhapar blackbuck sanctuary in Rajasthan’s Churu district has received a protective cover against a proposed move of the State government to reduce the size of its eco-sensitive zone. The World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF) has also taken up a major project for the conservation of raptors in the sanctuary, spread in an area measuring 7.19 sq. km.
The sanctuary is host to about 4,000 blackbucks and other wild animals, over 40 species of raptors and more than 300 species of resident and migratory birds. The raptors, which include predators and scavengers, are on top of the food chain and control the populations of small mammals, birds and reptiles as well as insects.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Tal Chhapar blackbuck sanctuary
The famous Tal Chhapar blackbuck sanctuary in Rajasthan’s Churu district has received a protective cover against a proposed move of the State government to reduce the size of its eco-sensitive zone. The World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF) has also taken up a major project for the conservation of raptors in the sanctuary, spread in an area measuring 7.19 sq. km.
The sanctuary is host to about 4,000 blackbucks and other wild animals, over 40 species of raptors and more than 300 species of resident and migratory birds. The raptors, which include predators and scavengers, are on top of the food chain and control the populations of small mammals, birds and reptiles as well as insects.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsSaltie census 2023, was conducted to assess the population of
Correct
Solution: D
Saltie census 2023: 1,793 estuarine crocodiles including 20 whitish ones counted in Bhitarkanika
Context: The population of saltwater crocodiles in the water bodies of Bhitarkanika National Park and its nearby areas in Odisha’s Kendrapara district has marginally increased in 2023, according to the annual reptile census.
About the annual reptile census:
- Techniques used for the census: Spotlights at night, GPS, and Photographic Interpretation to measure the length and age of the crocodiles
Crocodile conservation programmes in India:
- The Gharial, Mugger and Saltwater crocodile conservation programme: The breeding and rearing programme for three species of crocodilians — saltwater crocodile, mugger and gharial — had been started in 1975 in 34 places in West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and other states in India and Nepal.
- ‘BAULA’ PROJECT AT DANGAMAL: ‘Baula’ is the Oriya term for Saltwater Crocodile. Dangmal is in the Bhitarkanika sanctuary.
- CAPTIVE BREEDING OF CROCODILES AT NANDANKANAN, Odisha
- Odisha is having the distinction for the existence of all three species of Indian crocodilians
Incorrect
Solution: D
Saltie census 2023: 1,793 estuarine crocodiles including 20 whitish ones counted in Bhitarkanika
Context: The population of saltwater crocodiles in the water bodies of Bhitarkanika National Park and its nearby areas in Odisha’s Kendrapara district has marginally increased in 2023, according to the annual reptile census.
About the annual reptile census:
- Techniques used for the census: Spotlights at night, GPS, and Photographic Interpretation to measure the length and age of the crocodiles
Crocodile conservation programmes in India:
- The Gharial, Mugger and Saltwater crocodile conservation programme: The breeding and rearing programme for three species of crocodilians — saltwater crocodile, mugger and gharial — had been started in 1975 in 34 places in West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and other states in India and Nepal.
- ‘BAULA’ PROJECT AT DANGAMAL: ‘Baula’ is the Oriya term for Saltwater Crocodile. Dangmal is in the Bhitarkanika sanctuary.
- CAPTIVE BREEDING OF CROCODILES AT NANDANKANAN, Odisha
- Odisha is having the distinction for the existence of all three species of Indian crocodilians
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sea cucumbers
- Sea cucumbers are part of a larger animal group called echinoderms, which also contains starfish and sea urchins.
- One way that sea cucumbers can confuse or harm predators is by propelling their own toxic internal organs from their bodies.
- Sea cucumbers are found in virtually all marine environments throughout the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Sea cucumbers are part of a larger animal group called echinoderms, which also contains starfish and sea urchins. Their body shape is similar to a cucumber, but they have small tentacle-like tube feet that are used for locomotion and feeding. One way that sea cucumbers can confuse or harm predators is by propelling their own toxic internal organs from their bodies in the direction of an attacker. The organs grow back, and it may save them from being eaten. Depending on the species, sea cucumbers normally vary in size from less than an inch (2.5 centimeters) to over six feet (1.8 meters).
Sea cucumbers are found in virtually all marine environments throughout the world, from shallow to deep-sea environments. Sea cucumbers are benthic, meaning they live on the ocean floor. However, their larvae are planktonic, meaning they float in the ocean with the currents.
Sea cucumbers are scavengers that feed on small food items in the benthic zone (seafloor), as well as plankton floating in the water column.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Sea cucumbers are part of a larger animal group called echinoderms, which also contains starfish and sea urchins. Their body shape is similar to a cucumber, but they have small tentacle-like tube feet that are used for locomotion and feeding. One way that sea cucumbers can confuse or harm predators is by propelling their own toxic internal organs from their bodies in the direction of an attacker. The organs grow back, and it may save them from being eaten. Depending on the species, sea cucumbers normally vary in size from less than an inch (2.5 centimeters) to over six feet (1.8 meters).
Sea cucumbers are found in virtually all marine environments throughout the world, from shallow to deep-sea environments. Sea cucumbers are benthic, meaning they live on the ocean floor. However, their larvae are planktonic, meaning they float in the ocean with the currents.
Sea cucumbers are scavengers that feed on small food items in the benthic zone (seafloor), as well as plankton floating in the water column.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Textile Corporation Limited (NTC)
- It is Central Public Enterprise under the Ministry of Textile.
- It was established primarily to manage the affairs of the sick textile undertakings taken over by the Govt. of India in three Nationalization Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
National Textile Corporation Limited, (NTC) is a schedule “A” Central Public Enterprise under the Ministry of Textile, Government of India, which was incorporated in April 1968 for managing the affairs of sick textile undertaking in the Private Sector, taken over by the Government.
National Textile Corporation Ltd. (NTC) was established primarily to manage the affairs of the sick textile undertakings taken over by the Govt. of India in three Nationalization Acts in the years 1974; 1986; and 1995. On account of obsolete technology; excess manpower; poor productivity, etc. 8 of its 9 subsidiaries were referred to BIFR in the year 1992-94. The BIFR approved Revival Schemes for all the 9 subsidiaries – 8 of them in the year 2002-03 and 9th in the year 2005. The Company has been implementing the Revival Scheme since then.
NTC engaged in production of yarn and fabric through its 23 mills in operation, located all over India with 7.68 lac spindles and 408 looms producing around 500 lac kgs of yarn and 200 lac meters of fabric per annum. NTC also manufactures garments through its JV Companies. In addition National Textile Corporation has well established retail network throughout the country with its 85 retail stores. The current employee strength is around 8000. The present net worth of the NTC as on 31.03.2022 is Rs. 763.11 Crores (Provisional).
Presently NTC is operating 23 Textile Mills located throughout the country.
Incorrect
Solution: C
National Textile Corporation Limited, (NTC) is a schedule “A” Central Public Enterprise under the Ministry of Textile, Government of India, which was incorporated in April 1968 for managing the affairs of sick textile undertaking in the Private Sector, taken over by the Government.
National Textile Corporation Ltd. (NTC) was established primarily to manage the affairs of the sick textile undertakings taken over by the Govt. of India in three Nationalization Acts in the years 1974; 1986; and 1995. On account of obsolete technology; excess manpower; poor productivity, etc. 8 of its 9 subsidiaries were referred to BIFR in the year 1992-94. The BIFR approved Revival Schemes for all the 9 subsidiaries – 8 of them in the year 2002-03 and 9th in the year 2005. The Company has been implementing the Revival Scheme since then.
NTC engaged in production of yarn and fabric through its 23 mills in operation, located all over India with 7.68 lac spindles and 408 looms producing around 500 lac kgs of yarn and 200 lac meters of fabric per annum. NTC also manufactures garments through its JV Companies. In addition National Textile Corporation has well established retail network throughout the country with its 85 retail stores. The current employee strength is around 8000. The present net worth of the NTC as on 31.03.2022 is Rs. 763.11 Crores (Provisional).
Presently NTC is operating 23 Textile Mills located throughout the country.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Global Offshore Wind Alliance (GOWA)
- It was officially launched at COP27.
- It was founded by Denmark, the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), and the Global Wind Energy Council (GWEC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Global Offshore Wind Alliance (GOWA), founded by Denmark, the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), and the Global Wind Energy Council (GWEC), was officially launched at COP27 in November 2022.
To date, fourteen countries, including Australia, Belgium, Colombia, Denmark, Germany, Ireland, Japan, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, Spain, Saint Lucia, the United Kingdom, the United States of America have joined the Alliance, pledging to a rapid ramp up of offshore wind.
The 22 March meeting was the first senior-level virtual meeting for GOWA members since the Alliance was launched and an opportunity to exchange views on current status, expectations and next steps of the alliance.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Global Offshore Wind Alliance (GOWA), founded by Denmark, the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), and the Global Wind Energy Council (GWEC), was officially launched at COP27 in November 2022.
To date, fourteen countries, including Australia, Belgium, Colombia, Denmark, Germany, Ireland, Japan, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, Spain, Saint Lucia, the United Kingdom, the United States of America have joined the Alliance, pledging to a rapid ramp up of offshore wind.
The 22 March meeting was the first senior-level virtual meeting for GOWA members since the Alliance was launched and an opportunity to exchange views on current status, expectations and next steps of the alliance.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding twin transition
- A twin transition approach recognizes that there is a huge and largely untapped opportunity for technology and data to drive sustainability goals.
- “Twin Transition Playbook” has been released by World Economic Forum to promote twin transition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
A twin transition approach recognizes that there is a huge and largely untapped opportunity for technology and data to drive sustainability goals. Rather than treating digital and sustainability in isolation, a twin transition strategy combines these critical functions to unlock huge benefits in terms of efficiency and productivity. The twin transition can make a positive impact by ‘greening’ technology, data assets and infrastructures while accelerating sustainability across the organization.
The twin transition – getting started
To encourage the adoption of sustainable digitization, Royal Schiphol Group and PA Consulting have partnered to co-produce the Twin Transition Playbook. The playbook provides business leaders with the guidance and tools needed to build a successful twin transition strategy. Broken down into three major phases and seven bitesize steps, the playbook is a living document that will be iteratively improved based on adopters’ feedback.
Incorrect
Solution: A
A twin transition approach recognizes that there is a huge and largely untapped opportunity for technology and data to drive sustainability goals. Rather than treating digital and sustainability in isolation, a twin transition strategy combines these critical functions to unlock huge benefits in terms of efficiency and productivity. The twin transition can make a positive impact by ‘greening’ technology, data assets and infrastructures while accelerating sustainability across the organization.
The twin transition – getting started
To encourage the adoption of sustainable digitization, Royal Schiphol Group and PA Consulting have partnered to co-produce the Twin Transition Playbook. The playbook provides business leaders with the guidance and tools needed to build a successful twin transition strategy. Broken down into three major phases and seven bitesize steps, the playbook is a living document that will be iteratively improved based on adopters’ feedback.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsAttukal Pongala, one of the world’s largest gatherings of women, is organized in
Correct
Solution: B
Attukal Pongala
Context: The Attukal Pongala falls on the ninth day of the annual ten-day festival at the Attukal Bhagavathy Temple, Thiruvananthapuram.
- It is one of the world’s largest gatherings of women.
About Pongala:
- Pongala is a ten-day-long festival of Attukal Bhagavathy Temple.
- The festival commences with the musical rendering of the story of the Goddess (Kannaki Charitam) during the “Kappu Kettu ceremony”.
- The story invokes the presence of Kodungallur Bhagavathy and the slaying of the Pandyan King. This festival commemorates the victory of Good over Evil, by the slaying of the Pandyan King.
About Attukal Bhagavathy temple:
- Dedicated to Goddess Bhagavathy.
- Also known as, “the Sabarimala of Women”, this temple attracts the biggest set of women devotees for the annual Attukal Pongala festival.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Attukal Pongala
Context: The Attukal Pongala falls on the ninth day of the annual ten-day festival at the Attukal Bhagavathy Temple, Thiruvananthapuram.
- It is one of the world’s largest gatherings of women.
About Pongala:
- Pongala is a ten-day-long festival of Attukal Bhagavathy Temple.
- The festival commences with the musical rendering of the story of the Goddess (Kannaki Charitam) during the “Kappu Kettu ceremony”.
- The story invokes the presence of Kodungallur Bhagavathy and the slaying of the Pandyan King. This festival commemorates the victory of Good over Evil, by the slaying of the Pandyan King.
About Attukal Bhagavathy temple:
- Dedicated to Goddess Bhagavathy.
- Also known as, “the Sabarimala of Women”, this temple attracts the biggest set of women devotees for the annual Attukal Pongala festival.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Inland Waterways
- Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly River System (Allahabad to Haldia) was first National Waterways declared in 1986.
- Inland waterways contribute around 20% of India’s internal freight movement.
- India has about 14,500 km of navigable waterways which comprise rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks, etc.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What are National Waterways?
Any major navigable body of water, having commercial and strategic importance is declared a National waterway (thereby Central government holds the responsibility of developing it).
- As per the National Waterways Act 2016, 111 waterways have been declared as National Waterways (NWs).
- Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly River System (Allahabad to Haldia) was first NW declared in 1986.
Need: Inland waterways contribute only around 2% of India’s internal freight movement. India has about 14,500 km of navigable waterways which comprise rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks, etc.
Benefits:
- Lower cost of freight movement (The cost of freight movement by road is Rs 2.50 per ton-Km, compared with Rs 1.36 per KM in the case of Railways and around Rs 1.06 per KM in waterways, as per RITES Report of 2014)
- Eco-friendly and reduced air pollution
- Less maintenance
- Better connectivity to the hinterland
Incorrect
Solution: C
What are National Waterways?
Any major navigable body of water, having commercial and strategic importance is declared a National waterway (thereby Central government holds the responsibility of developing it).
- As per the National Waterways Act 2016, 111 waterways have been declared as National Waterways (NWs).
- Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly River System (Allahabad to Haldia) was first NW declared in 1986.
Need: Inland waterways contribute only around 2% of India’s internal freight movement. India has about 14,500 km of navigable waterways which comprise rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks, etc.
Benefits:
- Lower cost of freight movement (The cost of freight movement by road is Rs 2.50 per ton-Km, compared with Rs 1.36 per KM in the case of Railways and around Rs 1.06 per KM in waterways, as per RITES Report of 2014)
- Eco-friendly and reduced air pollution
- Less maintenance
- Better connectivity to the hinterland
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979
- The act is applicable to all establishments in which Inter-State migrant workmen are employed.
- This Act makes provision for availing the onsite services of interstate workers by the contractors/establishments to overcome the temporary shortage of required skilled workers in a state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The law related to migrant labourers in India is “Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979” which was passed by both the houses of Parliament and President of India gave his assent on 11/06/1979.
This Act makes provision for availing with the onsite services of interstate workers by the contractors/establishments to overcome only the temporary shortage of required skilled workers in a state. The purpose of this act is not to encourage interstate migration of workers against the interests of local workers as the principal employers would have to incur more cost in deploying interstate workers.
This act applies to,
- every establishment in which five or more Inter-State migrant workmen (whether or not in addition to other workmen) are employed or who were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months
- every contractor who employs or who employed five or more Inter-State migrant workmen (whether or not in addition to other workmen) on any day of the preceding twelve months.
It shall be the duty of every contractor employing inter-state migrant worker,
- To ensure regular payment of wages to such worker
- To ensure equal pay for equal work irrespective of sex;
- To ensure suitable conditions of work to such workers having regard to the fact that they are required to work in a State different from their own State;
- To provide and maintain suitable residential accommodation to such workers during the period of their employment;
- To provide the prescribed medical facilities to the workers, free of charge;
- To provide such protective clothing to the workers as may be prescribed; and
- In the case of fatal accident or serious bodily injury to any such worker to report to the specified authorities of both the States and also the next-of-kin of the worker.
- Despite the contribution made by migrants to the National Economy, most remain on the margins of society, contributing cheap labour but unable to influence their pay or working and living conditions, and without political voice, especially where they migrate to other states.
- Migrants are preferred over local labour by employers because they are cheaper and work harder. As migrants become one of the most important sources of labour across the country, services and support for migrant workers need to be seen as an essential investment for India’s development trajectory.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The law related to migrant labourers in India is “Inter-State Migrant Workmen (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act, 1979” which was passed by both the houses of Parliament and President of India gave his assent on 11/06/1979.
This Act makes provision for availing with the onsite services of interstate workers by the contractors/establishments to overcome only the temporary shortage of required skilled workers in a state. The purpose of this act is not to encourage interstate migration of workers against the interests of local workers as the principal employers would have to incur more cost in deploying interstate workers.
This act applies to,
- every establishment in which five or more Inter-State migrant workmen (whether or not in addition to other workmen) are employed or who were employed on any day of the preceding twelve months
- every contractor who employs or who employed five or more Inter-State migrant workmen (whether or not in addition to other workmen) on any day of the preceding twelve months.
It shall be the duty of every contractor employing inter-state migrant worker,
- To ensure regular payment of wages to such worker
- To ensure equal pay for equal work irrespective of sex;
- To ensure suitable conditions of work to such workers having regard to the fact that they are required to work in a State different from their own State;
- To provide and maintain suitable residential accommodation to such workers during the period of their employment;
- To provide the prescribed medical facilities to the workers, free of charge;
- To provide such protective clothing to the workers as may be prescribed; and
- In the case of fatal accident or serious bodily injury to any such worker to report to the specified authorities of both the States and also the next-of-kin of the worker.
- Despite the contribution made by migrants to the National Economy, most remain on the margins of society, contributing cheap labour but unable to influence their pay or working and living conditions, and without political voice, especially where they migrate to other states.
- Migrants are preferred over local labour by employers because they are cheaper and work harder. As migrants become one of the most important sources of labour across the country, services and support for migrant workers need to be seen as an essential investment for India’s development trajectory.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
- It was established by the University Grants Commission.
- NAAC’s mandate includes the task of performance evaluation, assessment and accreditation of universities and colleges in the country.
- The Assessment and Accreditation done by NAAC is mandatory for all universities and colleges.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) was established by the UGC in September 1994 at Bangalore for evaluating the performance of the Universities and Colleges in the Country. NAAC’s mandate includes the task of performance evaluation, assessment and accreditation of universities and colleges in the country. The philosophy of NAAC is based on objective and continuous improvement rather than being punitive or judgmental, so that all institutions of higher learning are empowered to maximize their resources, opportunities and capabilities. Assessment is a performance evaluation of an institution and /or its units and is accomplished through a process based on self-study and peer review using defined criteria. Accreditation refers to the certification given by NAAC which is valid for a period of five years. At present the Assessment and Accreditation by NAAC is done on a voluntary basis.
Incorrect
Solution: B
National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) was established by the UGC in September 1994 at Bangalore for evaluating the performance of the Universities and Colleges in the Country. NAAC’s mandate includes the task of performance evaluation, assessment and accreditation of universities and colleges in the country. The philosophy of NAAC is based on objective and continuous improvement rather than being punitive or judgmental, so that all institutions of higher learning are empowered to maximize their resources, opportunities and capabilities. Assessment is a performance evaluation of an institution and /or its units and is accomplished through a process based on self-study and peer review using defined criteria. Accreditation refers to the certification given by NAAC which is valid for a period of five years. At present the Assessment and Accreditation by NAAC is done on a voluntary basis.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Japanese encephalitis
- Japanese encephalitis is a viral brain infection that’s spread through mosquito bites.
- The virus is found in pigs and birds, and is passed to mosquitoes when they bite infected animals.
- It cannot be spread from person to person.
- There’s currently no cure for Japanese encephalitis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Japanese encephalitis is a viral brain infection that’s spread through mosquito bites. It’s most common in rural areas in southeast Asia, the Pacific islands and the Far East, but is very rare in travellers.
The virus is found in pigs and birds, and is passed to mosquitoes when they bite infected animals. It cannot be spread from person to person.
There’s currently no cure for Japanese encephalitis. Treatment involves supporting the functions of the body as it tries to fight off the infection.
The person usually needs to be admitted to hospital so they can be given fluids, oxygen and medication to treat any symptoms.
The best way to prevent Japanese encephalitis is to be vaccinated against the infection.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Japanese encephalitis is a viral brain infection that’s spread through mosquito bites. It’s most common in rural areas in southeast Asia, the Pacific islands and the Far East, but is very rare in travellers.
The virus is found in pigs and birds, and is passed to mosquitoes when they bite infected animals. It cannot be spread from person to person.
There’s currently no cure for Japanese encephalitis. Treatment involves supporting the functions of the body as it tries to fight off the infection.
The person usually needs to be admitted to hospital so they can be given fluids, oxygen and medication to treat any symptoms.
The best way to prevent Japanese encephalitis is to be vaccinated against the infection.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Multi-Party Interim Appeal Arbitration Arrangement (MPIA)
- It is an alternative system for resolving WTO disputes.
- WTO members can resort to the use of the MPIA under Article 25 of the WTO Dispute Settlement Understanding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Multi-Party Interim Appeal Arbitration Arrangement (MPIA)
In order to maintain the efficacy of the rules-based trading system and for members to continue to have access to an independent appeal process for dispute settlement, 16 WTO members set up a separate appeal system for trade disputes in March 2020.
Known as the Multi-Party Interim Appeal Arbitration Arrangement (MPIA), it is an alternative system for resolving WTO disputes that are appealed by a Member in the absence of a functioning and staffed WTO Appellate Body.
WTO members can resort to the use of the MPIA under Article 25 of the WTO Dispute Settlement Understanding, as an alternative mechanism for dispute settlement. The MPIA embodies the WTO appellate review rules and in a dispute between members, it will supersede the previous appeal processes and also apply to future disputes between members.
Any member can join the MPIA by notifying the Dispute Settlement Body and a range of members have done so.
The MPIA is likely to remain in place for as long as the WTO Appellate Body is not functioning, and for disputes among those members that are party to it, the MPIA serves as a temporary solution to the WTO Appellate Body gridlock.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Multi-Party Interim Appeal Arbitration Arrangement (MPIA)
In order to maintain the efficacy of the rules-based trading system and for members to continue to have access to an independent appeal process for dispute settlement, 16 WTO members set up a separate appeal system for trade disputes in March 2020.
Known as the Multi-Party Interim Appeal Arbitration Arrangement (MPIA), it is an alternative system for resolving WTO disputes that are appealed by a Member in the absence of a functioning and staffed WTO Appellate Body.
WTO members can resort to the use of the MPIA under Article 25 of the WTO Dispute Settlement Understanding, as an alternative mechanism for dispute settlement. The MPIA embodies the WTO appellate review rules and in a dispute between members, it will supersede the previous appeal processes and also apply to future disputes between members.
Any member can join the MPIA by notifying the Dispute Settlement Body and a range of members have done so.
The MPIA is likely to remain in place for as long as the WTO Appellate Body is not functioning, and for disputes among those members that are party to it, the MPIA serves as a temporary solution to the WTO Appellate Body gridlock.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsMatch the following evacuation operations with the cause
- Operation Sukoon: Israel-Lebanon crisis
- Operation Safe Homecoming: Ukraine Crisis
- Operation Maitri: Taliban takeover of Afghan
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
Evacuation Operations By India
Operation Sukoon (2006)
As Israel and Lebanon broke into military conflict in July 2006, India rescued its stranded citizens by launching this operation, which is now famously known as the ‘Beirut Sealift’.
Operation Safe Homecoming (2011)
To bring back Indian citizens stranded in conflict-torn Libya. Under the operation, India evacuated 15,400 Indian nationals. The air-sea operation was conducted by the Indian Navy and Air India.
Operation Maitri (2015)
It is the joint relief and rescue operation by the Indian government and the Indian Armed forces in the aftershock of the 2015 Nepal earthquake. The joint Army-Air Force operation brought over 5,000 Indians back from Nepal by Air Force and civilian planes.
Operation Raahat (2015)
In 2015, a conflict raged between the Yemeni govt and Houthi rebels. Thousands of Indians were stranded, and Yemen was not accessible by air due to a no-fly zone announced by Saudi Arabia.
Operation Sankat Mochan (2016)
During the South Sudanese Civil War, the Indian Air Force conducted Operation Sankat Mochan to evacuate Indian citizens and other foreign nationals from South Sudan.
Operation Devi Shakti (2021)
An evacuation operation by the IAF was kicked off in August 2021 to safely bring back Indian nationals from Afghanistan after the collapse of the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan and the fall of Kabul, the capital city of the Taliban.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Evacuation Operations By India
Operation Sukoon (2006)
As Israel and Lebanon broke into military conflict in July 2006, India rescued its stranded citizens by launching this operation, which is now famously known as the ‘Beirut Sealift’.
Operation Safe Homecoming (2011)
To bring back Indian citizens stranded in conflict-torn Libya. Under the operation, India evacuated 15,400 Indian nationals. The air-sea operation was conducted by the Indian Navy and Air India.
Operation Maitri (2015)
It is the joint relief and rescue operation by the Indian government and the Indian Armed forces in the aftershock of the 2015 Nepal earthquake. The joint Army-Air Force operation brought over 5,000 Indians back from Nepal by Air Force and civilian planes.
Operation Raahat (2015)
In 2015, a conflict raged between the Yemeni govt and Houthi rebels. Thousands of Indians were stranded, and Yemen was not accessible by air due to a no-fly zone announced by Saudi Arabia.
Operation Sankat Mochan (2016)
During the South Sudanese Civil War, the Indian Air Force conducted Operation Sankat Mochan to evacuate Indian citizens and other foreign nationals from South Sudan.
Operation Devi Shakti (2021)
An evacuation operation by the IAF was kicked off in August 2021 to safely bring back Indian nationals from Afghanistan after the collapse of the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan and the fall of Kabul, the capital city of the Taliban.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are part of Climate Investment Funds (CIF)?
- Clean Technology Fund (CTF)
- Forest Investment Program (FIP)
- Scaling up Renewable Energy in low-income countries Program (SREP)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
The Climate Investment Funds (CIF) is an $8 billion multi-donor trust fund that seeks to accelerate climate action by empowering transformations in clean technology, energy access, climate resilience, and sustainable forests in developing and middle-income countries. CIF is comprised of four funds: The Clean Technology Fund (CTF); the Forest Investment Program (FIP); the Scaling up Renewable Energy in low-income countries Program (SREP); and the Pilot Program for Climate Resilience (PPCR).
Founded in 2008, CIF is the only multilateral climate fund to work exclusively with multilateral development banks (MDB) as implementing agencies; IFC is one of five MDBs that can access CIF funds to implement projects. Through its blended finance practice, IFC co-invests concessional funding provided by CIF alongside its own funds. The CIF-IFC blended finance partnership supports the deployment and testing of climate resilience and adaptation projects, meeting the need for critical climate interventions around the world.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Climate Investment Funds (CIF) is an $8 billion multi-donor trust fund that seeks to accelerate climate action by empowering transformations in clean technology, energy access, climate resilience, and sustainable forests in developing and middle-income countries. CIF is comprised of four funds: The Clean Technology Fund (CTF); the Forest Investment Program (FIP); the Scaling up Renewable Energy in low-income countries Program (SREP); and the Pilot Program for Climate Resilience (PPCR).
Founded in 2008, CIF is the only multilateral climate fund to work exclusively with multilateral development banks (MDB) as implementing agencies; IFC is one of five MDBs that can access CIF funds to implement projects. Through its blended finance practice, IFC co-invests concessional funding provided by CIF alongside its own funds. The CIF-IFC blended finance partnership supports the deployment and testing of climate resilience and adaptation projects, meeting the need for critical climate interventions around the world.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsIn India the steel production industry requires the import of
Correct
Solution: c)
Saltpetre (Potassium nitrate) is not used in the production of steel. It is instead used in fertilizers, tree stump removal, rocket propellants and fireworks. It is one of the major constituents of gunpowder (blackpowder) and has been used since the Middle Ages as a food preservative.
India definitely imports coking coal. So, the answer has to be C.
It requires 0.8 tonnes coking coal to produce one tonne of steel. The government had recently imposed a 2.5 per cent duty on coking coal import.Incorrect
Solution: c)
Saltpetre (Potassium nitrate) is not used in the production of steel. It is instead used in fertilizers, tree stump removal, rocket propellants and fireworks. It is one of the major constituents of gunpowder (blackpowder) and has been used since the Middle Ages as a food preservative.
India definitely imports coking coal. So, the answer has to be C.
It requires 0.8 tonnes coking coal to produce one tonne of steel. The government had recently imposed a 2.5 per cent duty on coking coal import. -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding GM crops
- GM mustard Dhara Mustard Hybrid 11 (DMH 11) was developed by University of Agricultural Sciences, Dharwad.
- Samba Mahsuri Rice Variety was Bacterial Blight Resistant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Bt Brinjal resistant to brinjal shoot fly developed by M/S Mahyco in collaboration with University of Agricultural Sciences, Dharwad; Tamil Nadu Agricultural University, Coimbatore and ICAR-Indian Institute of Vegetable Research, Varanasi was approved by GEAC in 2009 but due to 10 years moratorium imposed on GM crops by the Technical Expert Committee (TEC) appointed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India, no further action on commercialization has been taken.
GM mustard Dhara Mustard Hybrid 11 (DMH 11) developed by Delhi University is pending for commercial release as GEAC has advised to generate complete safety assessment data on environmental bio-safety, especially effects on beneficial insect species. No such request is pending in the matter.
Samba Mahsuri Rice Variety – Bacterial Blight Resistant: CSIR has in collaboration with DRR (ICAR) and DBT part funding developed an improved bacterial blight resistant Samba Mahsuri variety. It is being cultivated in ~ 90,000 hectares in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Bt Brinjal resistant to brinjal shoot fly developed by M/S Mahyco in collaboration with University of Agricultural Sciences, Dharwad; Tamil Nadu Agricultural University, Coimbatore and ICAR-Indian Institute of Vegetable Research, Varanasi was approved by GEAC in 2009 but due to 10 years moratorium imposed on GM crops by the Technical Expert Committee (TEC) appointed by the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India, no further action on commercialization has been taken.
GM mustard Dhara Mustard Hybrid 11 (DMH 11) developed by Delhi University is pending for commercial release as GEAC has advised to generate complete safety assessment data on environmental bio-safety, especially effects on beneficial insect species. No such request is pending in the matter.
Samba Mahsuri Rice Variety – Bacterial Blight Resistant: CSIR has in collaboration with DRR (ICAR) and DBT part funding developed an improved bacterial blight resistant Samba Mahsuri variety. It is being cultivated in ~ 90,000 hectares in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsThe Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) are designated based on which of the following categories?
- Threatened biodiversity
- Geographically restricted biodiversity
- Ecological integrity
- Biological processes
- Irreplaceability
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) is an umbrella term commonly used to include areas that contribute to the global persistence of biodiversity, including vital habitat for threatened plant and animal species in terrestrial, freshwater and marine ecosystems. Globally KBAs are designated based on 11 criteria defined under five broad categories of threatened biodiversity; geographically restricted biodiversity; ecological integrity; biological processes; and, irreplaceability. The criteria for designating a site as KBA have been described in the document “The Global Standard for the Identification of Key Biodiversity Areas (2016)” by International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). IUCN identifies 531 KBA sites in India but these have no legal basis.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) is an umbrella term commonly used to include areas that contribute to the global persistence of biodiversity, including vital habitat for threatened plant and animal species in terrestrial, freshwater and marine ecosystems. Globally KBAs are designated based on 11 criteria defined under five broad categories of threatened biodiversity; geographically restricted biodiversity; ecological integrity; biological processes; and, irreplaceability. The criteria for designating a site as KBA have been described in the document “The Global Standard for the Identification of Key Biodiversity Areas (2016)” by International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). IUCN identifies 531 KBA sites in India but these have no legal basis.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsAureofungin and Streptomycin, sometimes seen in news, are used as/for
Correct
Solution: C
Aureofungin, Kasugamycin, Validamycin and Streptomycin+ Tetracycline combination are antibiotics which are registered under the Insecticide Act 1968 for use as pesticides to combat certain fungal and bacterial diseases in plants.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Aureofungin, Kasugamycin, Validamycin and Streptomycin+ Tetracycline combination are antibiotics which are registered under the Insecticide Act 1968 for use as pesticides to combat certain fungal and bacterial diseases in plants.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding IUCN Red List
- The pink pages in this publication include the critically endangered species
- It is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species.
- Green pages are used for those species that were formerly endangered but have now recovered to a point where they are no longer threatened.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
IUCN Red List or Red Data List or Red Book
- The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species.
- When discussing the IUCN Red List, the official term “threatened” is a grouping of three categories: Critically Endangered, Endangered, and Vulnerable.
- The pink pages in this publication include the critically endangered species.
- As the status of the species changes, new pages are sent to the subscribers.
- Green pages are used for those species that were formerly endangered but have now recovered to a point where they are no longer threatened.
- With passing time, the number of pink pages continue to increase.
Species are classified by the IUCN Red List into nine groups
- Extinct (EX) No known individuals remaining.
- Extinct in the wild (EW) Known only to survive in captivity, or as a naturalized population outside its historic range.
- Critically endangered (CR) Extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
- reduction in population (greater than 90% over the last 10 years),
- population size (number less than 50 mature individuals),
- quantitative analysis showing the probability of extinction in wild in at least 50% in their 10 years, and
- it is therefore considered to be facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
- Endangered (EN) High risk of extinction in the wild.
- Vulnerable (VU) High risk of endangerment in the wild.
- Near threatened (NT) Likely to become endangered in the near future.
- Least concern (LC) Lowest risk. Does not qualify for a more at-risk category. Widespread and abundant taxa are included in this category.
- Data deficient (DD) Not enough data to assess its risk of extinction.
Not evaluated (NE) Has not yet been evaluated against the criteria
Incorrect
Solution: D
All the statements given above are correct.
IUCN Red List or Red Data List or Red Book
- The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, founded in 1964, is the world’s most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species.
- When discussing the IUCN Red List, the official term “threatened” is a grouping of three categories: Critically Endangered, Endangered, and Vulnerable.
- The pink pages in this publication include the critically endangered species.
- As the status of the species changes, new pages are sent to the subscribers.
- Green pages are used for those species that were formerly endangered but have now recovered to a point where they are no longer threatened.
- With passing time, the number of pink pages continue to increase.
Species are classified by the IUCN Red List into nine groups
- Extinct (EX) No known individuals remaining.
- Extinct in the wild (EW) Known only to survive in captivity, or as a naturalized population outside its historic range.
- Critically endangered (CR) Extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
- reduction in population (greater than 90% over the last 10 years),
- population size (number less than 50 mature individuals),
- quantitative analysis showing the probability of extinction in wild in at least 50% in their 10 years, and
- it is therefore considered to be facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild.
- Endangered (EN) High risk of extinction in the wild.
- Vulnerable (VU) High risk of endangerment in the wild.
- Near threatened (NT) Likely to become endangered in the near future.
- Least concern (LC) Lowest risk. Does not qualify for a more at-risk category. Widespread and abundant taxa are included in this category.
- Data deficient (DD) Not enough data to assess its risk of extinction.
Not evaluated (NE) Has not yet been evaluated against the criteria
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following green house gases:
- Methane
- Sulfur Hexafluoride
- Carbon dioxide
- Nitrous Oxide
Arrange the following green house gases (GHGs) in ascending order in terms of their Global warming potential (GWP)?
Correct
Solution: B
Global warming potential
- Global warming potential describes the impact of each gas on global warming.
- The two most important characteristics of a GHG in terms of climate impact are how well the gas absorbs energy (preventing it from immediately escaping to space), and how long the gas stays in the atmosphere.
- The Global Warming Potential (GWP) for a gas is a measure of the total energy that a gas absorbs over a particular period of time (usually 100 years), compared to carbon dioxide.
- Gases with a higher GWP absorb more energy, per pound, than gases with a lower GWP, and thus contribute more to warming Earth.
Carbon dioxide (CO2) has a GWP of 1 and serves as a baseline for other GWP values.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Global warming potential
- Global warming potential describes the impact of each gas on global warming.
- The two most important characteristics of a GHG in terms of climate impact are how well the gas absorbs energy (preventing it from immediately escaping to space), and how long the gas stays in the atmosphere.
- The Global Warming Potential (GWP) for a gas is a measure of the total energy that a gas absorbs over a particular period of time (usually 100 years), compared to carbon dioxide.
- Gases with a higher GWP absorb more energy, per pound, than gases with a lower GWP, and thus contribute more to warming Earth.
Carbon dioxide (CO2) has a GWP of 1 and serves as a baseline for other GWP values.
q
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following ecological rule which states that within a species of endotherms, more heavily pigmented forms tend to be found in more humid environments?
Correct
Solution: C
Bergmann’s rule is an ecogeographical rule that states that within a broadly distributed taxonomic clade, populations and species of larger size are found in colder environments, while populations and species of smaller size are found in warmer regions.
Gloger’s rule is an ecogeographical rule which states that within a species of endotherms, more heavily pigmented forms tend to be found in more humid environments, e.g. near the equator. It was named after the zoologist Constantin Wilhelm Lambert Gloger, who first remarked upon this phenomenon in 1833 in a review of covariation of climate and avian plumage color.
In ecology, the competitive exclusion principle, sometimes referred to as Gause’s law, is a proposition named for Georgy Gause that two species competing for the same limited resource cannot coexist at constant population values.
Allen’s rule is an ecogeographical rule formulated by Joel Asaph Allen in 1877, broadly stating that animals adapted to cold climates have shorter limbs and bodily appendages than animals adapted to warm climates. More specifically, it states that the body surface area-to-volume ratio for homeothermic animals varies with the average temperature of the habitat to which they are adapted (i.e. the ratio is low in cold climates and high in hot climates).
Incorrect
Solution: C
Bergmann’s rule is an ecogeographical rule that states that within a broadly distributed taxonomic clade, populations and species of larger size are found in colder environments, while populations and species of smaller size are found in warmer regions.
Gloger’s rule is an ecogeographical rule which states that within a species of endotherms, more heavily pigmented forms tend to be found in more humid environments, e.g. near the equator. It was named after the zoologist Constantin Wilhelm Lambert Gloger, who first remarked upon this phenomenon in 1833 in a review of covariation of climate and avian plumage color.
In ecology, the competitive exclusion principle, sometimes referred to as Gause’s law, is a proposition named for Georgy Gause that two species competing for the same limited resource cannot coexist at constant population values.
Allen’s rule is an ecogeographical rule formulated by Joel Asaph Allen in 1877, broadly stating that animals adapted to cold climates have shorter limbs and bodily appendages than animals adapted to warm climates. More specifically, it states that the body surface area-to-volume ratio for homeothermic animals varies with the average temperature of the habitat to which they are adapted (i.e. the ratio is low in cold climates and high in hot climates).
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Kuttanad Below Sea-level Farming System (KBSFS):
- It is being practiced in the state of Kerala
- It has been considered as a Globally Important Agriculture Heritage System (GIAHS) by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System
The only system in India that has been practicing rice cultivation below sea level since the past 2 centuries
Kuttanad is a delta region of about 900 sq. km situated in the west coast of Kerala State, India. The area is a larger mosaic of fragmented landscape patches and varied ecosystems such as coastal backwaters, rivers, vast stretches of paddy fields, marshes, ponds, garden lands, edges, corridors and remarkably networked water ways.
The Kuttanad Below Sea-level Farming System (KBSFS) is unique, as it is the only system in India that practices rice cultvation below sea level.
The major land use structure of KBSFS is flat stretches of rice fields in about 50,000 ha of mostly reclaimed delta swamps. The rice fields, which are popularly known as “Puncha Vayals” exist in three landscape elements: Karapadam (upland rice fields), Kayal (wetland rice fields) and Kari (land buried with black coal like materials).
The ecology of Kuttanad has been considered as a Globally Important Agriculture Heritage System (GIAHS) by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
Kuttanad Below Sea Level Farming System
The only system in India that has been practicing rice cultivation below sea level since the past 2 centuries
Kuttanad is a delta region of about 900 sq. km situated in the west coast of Kerala State, India. The area is a larger mosaic of fragmented landscape patches and varied ecosystems such as coastal backwaters, rivers, vast stretches of paddy fields, marshes, ponds, garden lands, edges, corridors and remarkably networked water ways.
The Kuttanad Below Sea-level Farming System (KBSFS) is unique, as it is the only system in India that practices rice cultvation below sea level.
The major land use structure of KBSFS is flat stretches of rice fields in about 50,000 ha of mostly reclaimed delta swamps. The rice fields, which are popularly known as “Puncha Vayals” exist in three landscape elements: Karapadam (upland rice fields), Kayal (wetland rice fields) and Kari (land buried with black coal like materials).
The ecology of Kuttanad has been considered as a Globally Important Agriculture Heritage System (GIAHS) by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are effects of the Rainwater harvesting technique?
- It reduces flood hazards.
- It increases the productivity of aquifer.
- It leads to rise in ground water levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Rain water harvesting is the technique of collection and storage of rain water at surface or in sub-surface aquifers, before it is lost as surface run-off. The augmented resource can be harvested in the time of need. Artificial recharge to ground water is a process by which the ground water reservoir is augmented at rate exceeding that under natural conditions of replenishment.
ADVANTAGES :
- Cost of recharge to sub-surface reservoir is lower than surface reservoirs.
- The aquifer serves as distribution system also.
- No land is wasted for storage purpose and no population displacement is involved.
- Ground water is not directly exposed to evaporation and pollution.
- Storing water underground is environment friendly.
- It increases the productivity of aquifer.
- It reduces flood hazards.
- Effects rise in ground water levels.
- Mitigates the effects of drought.
- Reduces soil erosion.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Rain water harvesting is the technique of collection and storage of rain water at surface or in sub-surface aquifers, before it is lost as surface run-off. The augmented resource can be harvested in the time of need. Artificial recharge to ground water is a process by which the ground water reservoir is augmented at rate exceeding that under natural conditions of replenishment.
ADVANTAGES :
- Cost of recharge to sub-surface reservoir is lower than surface reservoirs.
- The aquifer serves as distribution system also.
- No land is wasted for storage purpose and no population displacement is involved.
- Ground water is not directly exposed to evaporation and pollution.
- Storing water underground is environment friendly.
- It increases the productivity of aquifer.
- It reduces flood hazards.
- Effects rise in ground water levels.
- Mitigates the effects of drought.
- Reduces soil erosion.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsStatements: All rods are bricks.
Some bricks are ropes.
All ropes are doors.
Conclusions:
- Some rods are doors.
- Some doors are bricks.
- Some rods are not doors.
- All doors are ropes.
Correct
Answer (d) None of these
Explanation:
All rods are bricks. Some bricks are ropes.
Since the middle term ‘bricks’ is not distributed even once in the premises, no definite conclusion follows.
Some bricks are ropes. All ropes are doors.
Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be particular and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘Some bricks are doors’.
II is the converse of this conclusion and so it holds.
All rods are bricks. Some bricks are doors.
Since the middle term `bricks’ is not distributed even once in the premises, no definite conclusion follows.
However, I and III involve the extreme terms.
But, since they are not contradictory, they do not form a complementary pair. Hence, only II follows.
Incorrect
Answer (d) None of these
Explanation:
All rods are bricks. Some bricks are ropes.
Since the middle term ‘bricks’ is not distributed even once in the premises, no definite conclusion follows.
Some bricks are ropes. All ropes are doors.
Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be particular and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘Some bricks are doors’.
II is the converse of this conclusion and so it holds.
All rods are bricks. Some bricks are doors.
Since the middle term `bricks’ is not distributed even once in the premises, no definite conclusion follows.
However, I and III involve the extreme terms.
But, since they are not contradictory, they do not form a complementary pair. Hence, only II follows.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsStatement: Should there be a complete ban on use of all types of chemical pesticides in India?
Arguments: I. No. The pests will destroy all the crops and the farmers will have nothing to harvest.
Yes. The chemical pesticides used in agriculture pollute the water underground and this has become a serious health hazard.
Give answer
Correct
Answer (d) if both I and II are strong.
Explanation:
Clearly, Pesticides are meant to prevent the crops from harmful pests.
But at the same time, they get washed away with water and contaminate ground water. Thus, both the arguments hold strong
Incorrect
Answer (d) if both I and II are strong.
Explanation:
Clearly, Pesticides are meant to prevent the crops from harmful pests.
But at the same time, they get washed away with water and contaminate ground water. Thus, both the arguments hold strong
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsStatement : Cases of food poisoning due to consumption of liquor are increasing in rural areas.
Assumptions I. Percentage of people consuming liquor is more in rural areas.
- There are many unauthorized spurious liquor shops in the rural areas.
Give answer
Correct
Answer (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Explanation:
The statement talks of number of cases of food poisoning due to consumption of liquor and not number of cases consuming liquor.
So, I is not implicit
Besides, the statement indicates that people in rural areas are getting spurious or low-grade liquor and no check is being kept on shops selling liquor there.
So, II is implicit.
Incorrect
Answer (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Explanation:
The statement talks of number of cases of food poisoning due to consumption of liquor and not number of cases consuming liquor.
So, I is not implicit
Besides, the statement indicates that people in rural areas are getting spurious or low-grade liquor and no check is being kept on shops selling liquor there.
So, II is implicit.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsStatement: There has been unprecedented increase in the prices of essential commodities during the past few days due to the strike call given by the transporters’ association.
Course of action: I. The transporters’ as sociation should be ordered by the government to immediately withdraw strike call or else they will face severe consequences.
II. The government should immediately make alternative arrangements to ensure adequate supply of essential commodities in the market.
III. The government should immediately declare the strike illegal and put all those responsible for the strike behind the bars.
Correct
Answer (a) Only I and II follow
Explanation:
Clearly, the situation demands that strike be called off, either through warning or
negotiations, and till then alternative arrangements be made to retain also, normalcy in supply of essential commodities. So, both I and II follow.
Taking extreme steps (as getting the striking transporters arrested) at the first stage, doesn’t seem proper. So, III does not follow.
Incorrect
Answer (a) Only I and II follow
Explanation:
Clearly, the situation demands that strike be called off, either through warning or
negotiations, and till then alternative arrangements be made to retain also, normalcy in supply of essential commodities. So, both I and II follow.
Taking extreme steps (as getting the striking transporters arrested) at the first stage, doesn’t seem proper. So, III does not follow.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsAssertion (A): Eskimos reside in igloos.
Reason (R): No other material except snow is available.
Correct
Answer: C) A is true but R is false.
Explanation:
Eskimos live in snow houses called igloos because snow, being a bad conductor of heat, these houses are warm inside.
Incorrect
Answer: C) A is true but R is false.
Explanation:
Eskimos live in snow houses called igloos because snow, being a bad conductor of heat, these houses are warm inside.
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