INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
Click Here to Download the Insta Test PDF
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following commodities have been identified as essential commodities under Essential Commodities Act, 1955?
- Drugs
- Fertilizers
- Petroleum and its products
- Jute
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
The Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
Object and Scope of the Act
This Act extends to the whole of India. The Act was enacted to ensure the availability of essential commodities to consumers and protect them from the exploitation of unscrupulous traders, therefore, the Act provides rules related to the regulation and control of production, pricing, and distribution of the essential commodities.
Important Definitions
Essential Commodity
According to the Essential Commodities Act, essential commodities mean any commodity specified in the schedule. Thus, there are 7 following commodities that are specified in the schedule:
- Drugs (this is used in the same sense as defined under clause b of Section 3 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940);
- Fertilizers, whether organic, inorganic or mixed;
- Foodstuffs, including edible oils and its seeds;
- Hank yarn, made wholly with cotton;
- Petroleum and its products;
- Jute, whether in the form of raw or textiles;
- Seed, whether of fruits and vegetables, of cattle fodder, or of jute.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Essential Commodities Act, 1955.
Object and Scope of the Act
This Act extends to the whole of India. The Act was enacted to ensure the availability of essential commodities to consumers and protect them from the exploitation of unscrupulous traders, therefore, the Act provides rules related to the regulation and control of production, pricing, and distribution of the essential commodities.
Important Definitions
Essential Commodity
According to the Essential Commodities Act, essential commodities mean any commodity specified in the schedule. Thus, there are 7 following commodities that are specified in the schedule:
- Drugs (this is used in the same sense as defined under clause b of Section 3 of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940);
- Fertilizers, whether organic, inorganic or mixed;
- Foodstuffs, including edible oils and its seeds;
- Hank yarn, made wholly with cotton;
- Petroleum and its products;
- Jute, whether in the form of raw or textiles;
- Seed, whether of fruits and vegetables, of cattle fodder, or of jute.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding G20 Digital Innovation Alliance (G20-DIA)
- It is an alliance to identify, recognize, and enable the adoption of innovative and impactful digital technologies developed by startups.
- Startups, only from G20 countries can participate in this alliance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
About G20 Digital Innovation Alliance (G20-DIA)
The objective of the G20 Digital Innovation Alliance (G20-DIA) is to identify, recognize, and enable the adoption of innovative and impactful digital technologies developed by startups, from G20 nations as well as the invited non-member nations, which can address the needs of humanity in the critically important sectors of Agri-tech, Health-tech, Ed-tech, Fin-tech, Secured Digital Infrastructure, and Circular Economy.
Startup products in the aforementioned six themes enabled through Digital Public Goods Infrastructure can create a global population-scale impact and reduce the digital divide and enable sustainable, and inclusive techno-socio-economic development.
The G20 Digital Innovation Alliance (G20–DIA) summit which will be held in Bangalore on the sidelines of the Digital Economy Working Group (DEWG) meeting will be a multi-day program where top nominated startups from each of the theme areas from all of the G20 countries and the non-member invited countries will showcase their solutions to the global community of investors, mentors, corporates, and other government stakeholders.
The engagement of innovators, entrepreneurs, startups, corporations, investors, mentors, and other ecosystem stakeholders will lead to the speedy acceptance of the platform that India plans to offer through the G20 Digital Innovation Alliance (G20-DIA). The G20-DIA Summit will bring together the key players in the innovation ecosystem from both G20 member countries and the invited non-member countries in order to recognise and support startups creating cutting-edge digital solutions in the six themes that bridge the digital divide between different segments of humanity and advance the world economy.
Incorrect
Solution: A
About G20 Digital Innovation Alliance (G20-DIA)
The objective of the G20 Digital Innovation Alliance (G20-DIA) is to identify, recognize, and enable the adoption of innovative and impactful digital technologies developed by startups, from G20 nations as well as the invited non-member nations, which can address the needs of humanity in the critically important sectors of Agri-tech, Health-tech, Ed-tech, Fin-tech, Secured Digital Infrastructure, and Circular Economy.
Startup products in the aforementioned six themes enabled through Digital Public Goods Infrastructure can create a global population-scale impact and reduce the digital divide and enable sustainable, and inclusive techno-socio-economic development.
The G20 Digital Innovation Alliance (G20–DIA) summit which will be held in Bangalore on the sidelines of the Digital Economy Working Group (DEWG) meeting will be a multi-day program where top nominated startups from each of the theme areas from all of the G20 countries and the non-member invited countries will showcase their solutions to the global community of investors, mentors, corporates, and other government stakeholders.
The engagement of innovators, entrepreneurs, startups, corporations, investors, mentors, and other ecosystem stakeholders will lead to the speedy acceptance of the platform that India plans to offer through the G20 Digital Innovation Alliance (G20-DIA). The G20-DIA Summit will bring together the key players in the innovation ecosystem from both G20 member countries and the invited non-member countries in order to recognise and support startups creating cutting-edge digital solutions in the six themes that bridge the digital divide between different segments of humanity and advance the world economy.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)
- It is an initiative aiming at promoting open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic networks.
- ONDC is to be based on open-sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols independent of any specific platform.
- ONDC is expected to make e-Commerce more inclusive and accessible for consumers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
ONDC Project
Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative aiming at promoting open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic networks. ONDC is to be based on open-sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols independent of any specific platform.
The foundations of ONDC are to be open protocols for all aspects in the entire chain of activities in exchange of goods and services, similar to hypertext transfer protocol for information exchange over internet, simple mail transfer protocol for exchange of emails and unified payments interface for payments.
These open protocols would be used for establishing public digital infrastructure in the form of open registries and open network gateways to enable exchange of information between providers and consumers. Providers and consumers would be able to use any compatible application of their choice for exchange of information and carrying out transactions over ONDC.
Thus, ONDC goes beyond the current platform-centric digital commerce model where the buyer and seller have to use the same platform or application to be digitally visible and do a business transaction.
ONDC protocols would standardize operations like cataloguing, inventory management, order management and order fulfilment. Thus, small businesses would be able to use any ONDC compatible applications instead of being governed by specific platform centric policies. This will provide multiple options to small businesses to be discoverable over network and conduct business. It would also encourage easy adoption of digital means by those currently not on digital commerce networks.
ONDC is expected to make e-Commerce more inclusive and accessible for consumers. Consumers can potentially discover any seller, product or service by using any compatible application or platform, thus increasing freedom of choice for consumers. It will enable the consumers to match demand with the nearest available supply. This would also give consumers the liberty to choose their preferred local businesses. Thus, ONDC would standardize operations, promote inclusion of local suppliers, drive efficiencies in logistics and lead to enhancement of value for consumers.
Incorrect
Solution: D
ONDC Project
Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative aiming at promoting open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital or electronic networks. ONDC is to be based on open-sourced methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols independent of any specific platform.
The foundations of ONDC are to be open protocols for all aspects in the entire chain of activities in exchange of goods and services, similar to hypertext transfer protocol for information exchange over internet, simple mail transfer protocol for exchange of emails and unified payments interface for payments.
These open protocols would be used for establishing public digital infrastructure in the form of open registries and open network gateways to enable exchange of information between providers and consumers. Providers and consumers would be able to use any compatible application of their choice for exchange of information and carrying out transactions over ONDC.
Thus, ONDC goes beyond the current platform-centric digital commerce model where the buyer and seller have to use the same platform or application to be digitally visible and do a business transaction.
ONDC protocols would standardize operations like cataloguing, inventory management, order management and order fulfilment. Thus, small businesses would be able to use any ONDC compatible applications instead of being governed by specific platform centric policies. This will provide multiple options to small businesses to be discoverable over network and conduct business. It would also encourage easy adoption of digital means by those currently not on digital commerce networks.
ONDC is expected to make e-Commerce more inclusive and accessible for consumers. Consumers can potentially discover any seller, product or service by using any compatible application or platform, thus increasing freedom of choice for consumers. It will enable the consumers to match demand with the nearest available supply. This would also give consumers the liberty to choose their preferred local businesses. Thus, ONDC would standardize operations, promote inclusion of local suppliers, drive efficiencies in logistics and lead to enhancement of value for consumers.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Self-Reliant India (SRI) Fund
- SRI Fund will employ a ‘Funds-of-Fund’ investment strategy wherein the Fund shall invest in SEBI registered Category I and Category II Alternative Investment Funds.
- The fund will be managed by SIDBI.
- The Daughter Funds shall invest at least 10 times the amount of capital contribution received from SRI Fund (net of fees and expenses) in MSMEs, covered under the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Self-Reliant India (SRI) Fund
Overview
In line with the vision of Prime Minister of India Mr. Narendra Modi, The finance minister, announced creation of a Fund of Funds for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) under the Atmanirbhar Bharat package on the 13th May 2020, to address shortage of funds being faced by MSMEs in securing growth capital.
Consequently, NSIC Venture Capital Fund Limited (NVCFL), a 100% subsidiary of The National Small Industries Corporation Limited (“NSIC”), a Mini-Ratna Corporation of Government of India under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME), Government of India, was incorporated.
The ‘Self Reliant India (SRI) Fund’, with an overall fund corpus of INR.10,006 Cr, is organized as the first scheme of NVCFL. NVCFL is registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (“SEBI”) as a Category II Alternative Investment Fund under the provisions of the SEBI (Alternative Investment Fund) Regulations, 2012 (“AIF Regulations”). SRI Fund has been sponsored by NSIC.
SRI Fund will employ a ‘Funds-of-Fund’ investment strategy wherein the Fund shall invest in SEBI registered Category I and Category II Alternative Investment Funds (“Daughter Funds”), which shall in turn invest in MSMEs. The Daughter Funds shall invest at least 5 times the amount of capital contribution received from SRI Fund (net of fees and expenses) in MSMEs, covered under the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Self-Reliant India (SRI) Fund
Overview
In line with the vision of Prime Minister of India Mr. Narendra Modi, The finance minister, announced creation of a Fund of Funds for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) under the Atmanirbhar Bharat package on the 13th May 2020, to address shortage of funds being faced by MSMEs in securing growth capital.
Consequently, NSIC Venture Capital Fund Limited (NVCFL), a 100% subsidiary of The National Small Industries Corporation Limited (“NSIC”), a Mini-Ratna Corporation of Government of India under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME), Government of India, was incorporated.
The ‘Self Reliant India (SRI) Fund’, with an overall fund corpus of INR.10,006 Cr, is organized as the first scheme of NVCFL. NVCFL is registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (“SEBI”) as a Category II Alternative Investment Fund under the provisions of the SEBI (Alternative Investment Fund) Regulations, 2012 (“AIF Regulations”). SRI Fund has been sponsored by NSIC.
SRI Fund will employ a ‘Funds-of-Fund’ investment strategy wherein the Fund shall invest in SEBI registered Category I and Category II Alternative Investment Funds (“Daughter Funds”), which shall in turn invest in MSMEs. The Daughter Funds shall invest at least 5 times the amount of capital contribution received from SRI Fund (net of fees and expenses) in MSMEs, covered under the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Surety Bond Insurance
- The Surety Bond Insurance is a risk transfer tool for the principal and shields the principal from the losses that may arise in case the contractor fails to perform their contractual obligation.
- Like a bank guarantee, the Surety Bond Insurance requires large collateral from the contractor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Surety Bond Insurance will act as a security arrangement for infrastructure projects and will insulate the contractor as well as the principal. The product will cater to the requirements of a diversified group of contractors, many of whom are operating in today’s increasingly volatile environment. The Surety Bond Insurance is a risk transfer tool for the Principal and shields the Principal from the losses that may arise in case the contractor fails to perform their contractual obligation. The product gives the principal a contract of guarantee that contractual terms and other business deals will be concluded in accordance with the mutually agreed terms. In case the contractor doesn’t fulfil the contractual terms, the Principal can raise a claim on the surety bond and recover the losses they have incurred. Unlike a bank guarantee, the Surety Bond Insurance does not require large collateral from the contractor thus freeing up significant funds for the contractor, which they can utilize for the growth of the business. The product will also help in reducing the contractors’ debts to a large extent thus addressing their financial worries. The product will facilitate the growth of upcoming infrastructure projects in the country.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Surety Bond Insurance will act as a security arrangement for infrastructure projects and will insulate the contractor as well as the principal. The product will cater to the requirements of a diversified group of contractors, many of whom are operating in today’s increasingly volatile environment. The Surety Bond Insurance is a risk transfer tool for the Principal and shields the Principal from the losses that may arise in case the contractor fails to perform their contractual obligation. The product gives the principal a contract of guarantee that contractual terms and other business deals will be concluded in accordance with the mutually agreed terms. In case the contractor doesn’t fulfil the contractual terms, the Principal can raise a claim on the surety bond and recover the losses they have incurred. Unlike a bank guarantee, the Surety Bond Insurance does not require large collateral from the contractor thus freeing up significant funds for the contractor, which they can utilize for the growth of the business. The product will also help in reducing the contractors’ debts to a large extent thus addressing their financial worries. The product will facilitate the growth of upcoming infrastructure projects in the country.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ‘Friend-Shoring’ Plan
- It refers to the relocation of business processes to a lower-cost location inside the national borders.
- Friendshoring is part of a “deglobalisation” process.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
‘Friend-Shoring’ Plan
Context: US will pursue the ‘friendshoring’ approach of deepening economic integration with trusted trading partners like India to diversify away from countries that present geopolitical and security risks to supply chains.
Friendshoring means deploying economic policies that will encourage the companies to spread business and manufacturing within the group (sharing similar values). Friendshoring is part of a “deglobalisation” process, which could see further supply shocks and higher prices in the short term and lower growth in the long run.
Many of the western companies that embraced offshoring – cutting costs by shifting manufacturing to countries with cheaper labour – have been encouraged by tariffs and pandemic supply chain disruption to bring production back to their home country, in a trend known as onshoring or reshoring.
Incorrect
Solution: B
‘Friend-Shoring’ Plan
Context: US will pursue the ‘friendshoring’ approach of deepening economic integration with trusted trading partners like India to diversify away from countries that present geopolitical and security risks to supply chains.
Friendshoring means deploying economic policies that will encourage the companies to spread business and manufacturing within the group (sharing similar values). Friendshoring is part of a “deglobalisation” process, which could see further supply shocks and higher prices in the short term and lower growth in the long run.
Many of the western companies that embraced offshoring – cutting costs by shifting manufacturing to countries with cheaper labour – have been encouraged by tariffs and pandemic supply chain disruption to bring production back to their home country, in a trend known as onshoring or reshoring.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsAid-for-Trade Initiative is an initiative led by
Correct
Solution: B
Aid for Trade
Aid for Trade helps developing countries, and particularly least developed countries, trade. Many developing countries face a range of supply-side and trade-related infrastructure obstacles which constrains their ability to engage in international trade.
The WTO-led Aid-for-Trade Initiative encourages developing country governments and donors to recognize the role that trade can play in development. In particular, the initiative seeks to mobilize resources to address the trade-related constraints identified by developing and least-developed countries.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Aid for Trade
Aid for Trade helps developing countries, and particularly least developed countries, trade. Many developing countries face a range of supply-side and trade-related infrastructure obstacles which constrains their ability to engage in international trade.
The WTO-led Aid-for-Trade Initiative encourages developing country governments and donors to recognize the role that trade can play in development. In particular, the initiative seeks to mobilize resources to address the trade-related constraints identified by developing and least-developed countries.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA)
- It is a statutory body under Competition Act, 2002.
- The Authority’s core function is to ensure that the benefits of the reduction in GST rates on goods and services done by the GST Council and of the Input tax credit are passed on to the recipients by way of commensurate reduction in the prices by the suppliers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA) is the statutory mechanism under GST law to check the unfair profiteering activities by the registered suppliers under GST law. The Authority’s core function is to ensure that the commensurate benefits of the reduction in GST rates on goods and services done by the GST Council and of the Input tax credit are passed on to the recipients by way of commensurate reduction in the prices by the suppliers.
The formation of NAA comes in the background of rate-reduction of large number of items by GST Council in its 22nd meeting at Guwahati. At the meeting, the Council reduced rates of more than 200 items including goods and services. This has made tremendous price reduction effect and the consumers will be benefited only if the registered suppliers under GST law are reducing the prices of respective items immediately.
The Authority’s main function is to ensure that the registered suppliers under GST law are not profiteering by charging higher prices from recipients in the name of GST. The legal mandate of NAA is to examine and check such profiteering activities and recommend punitive actions including cancellation of Registration. The chairman, NAA along with 4 Technical members and with help of the Standing Committee, Screening Committee in every State and the Directorate General of Anti-Profiteering in the Central Board of Indirect taxes & Customs (CBIC), will work together on the anti-profiteering front.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA) is the statutory mechanism under GST law to check the unfair profiteering activities by the registered suppliers under GST law. The Authority’s core function is to ensure that the commensurate benefits of the reduction in GST rates on goods and services done by the GST Council and of the Input tax credit are passed on to the recipients by way of commensurate reduction in the prices by the suppliers.
The formation of NAA comes in the background of rate-reduction of large number of items by GST Council in its 22nd meeting at Guwahati. At the meeting, the Council reduced rates of more than 200 items including goods and services. This has made tremendous price reduction effect and the consumers will be benefited only if the registered suppliers under GST law are reducing the prices of respective items immediately.
The Authority’s main function is to ensure that the registered suppliers under GST law are not profiteering by charging higher prices from recipients in the name of GST. The legal mandate of NAA is to examine and check such profiteering activities and recommend punitive actions including cancellation of Registration. The chairman, NAA along with 4 Technical members and with help of the Standing Committee, Screening Committee in every State and the Directorate General of Anti-Profiteering in the Central Board of Indirect taxes & Customs (CBIC), will work together on the anti-profiteering front.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Seabed 2030 project
- The project was launched at the United Nations (UN) Ocean Conference 2023.
- It aims to bring together all available bathymetric data to produce the definitive map of the world ocean floor by 2030 and make it available to all.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Seabed 2030 is a collaborative project between the Nippon Foundation of Japan and the General Bathymetric Chart of the Oceans (GEBCO). It aims to bring together all available bathymetric data to produce the definitive map of the world ocean floor by 2030 and make it available to all.
The project was launched at the United Nations (UN) Ocean Conference in June 2017 and is aligned with the UN’s Sustainable Development Goal #14 to conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas and marine resources.
Why has Seabed 2030 been setup?
Knowing the depth and shape of the seafloor (bathymetry) is fundamental for understanding ocean circulation, tides, tsunami forecasting, fishing resources, sediment transport, environmental change, underwater geo-hazards, infrastructure construction and maintenance, cable and pipeline routing and much more.
Despite many years of effort, less than 20 per cent of the world ocean’s seafloor has been mapped. A co-ordinated international effort is needed to bring together all existing data sets and to identify areas for future surveys – to help us ‘map the gaps’.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Seabed 2030 is a collaborative project between the Nippon Foundation of Japan and the General Bathymetric Chart of the Oceans (GEBCO). It aims to bring together all available bathymetric data to produce the definitive map of the world ocean floor by 2030 and make it available to all.
The project was launched at the United Nations (UN) Ocean Conference in June 2017 and is aligned with the UN’s Sustainable Development Goal #14 to conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas and marine resources.
Why has Seabed 2030 been setup?
Knowing the depth and shape of the seafloor (bathymetry) is fundamental for understanding ocean circulation, tides, tsunami forecasting, fishing resources, sediment transport, environmental change, underwater geo-hazards, infrastructure construction and maintenance, cable and pipeline routing and much more.
Despite many years of effort, less than 20 per cent of the world ocean’s seafloor has been mapped. A co-ordinated international effort is needed to bring together all existing data sets and to identify areas for future surveys – to help us ‘map the gaps’.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP)
- These are financial instruments that any non-profit organisation can use to raise funds.
- The borrowing entity does not have to pay interest and it does not have to pay the principal either.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Social Stock Exchange
Context: The National Stock Exchange of India has received final approval from SEBI to launch a Social Stock Exchange (SSE) as a separate segment of the NSE.
- Aim: To provide new avenues for social enterprises to finance social initiatives, provide them visibility, and bring in increased transparency in fund mobilisation and utilisation.
- Eligibility: Any social enterprise, Non-Profit Organization (NPOs), or For-Profit Social Enterprise (FPE) that establishes its primacy of social intent can get registered/listed on the SSE segment.
- Function:
- The SSE will allow social enterprises to raise capital as equity, debt, or as units like a mutual fund.
- The minimum issue size is set at INR 1 crore, and the minimum application size for subscription is INR 2 lakhs for Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) issuance.
What is ZCZP?
These are financial instruments that any non-profit organisation can use to raise funds. The borrowing entity does not have to pay interest—therefore zero coupon—and it does not have to pay the principal (zero principal) either.
BSE had already got approval for the SSE as a separate segment (in 2022)
The idea of SSE was first floated by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in her 2019-20 Budget speech.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Social Stock Exchange
Context: The National Stock Exchange of India has received final approval from SEBI to launch a Social Stock Exchange (SSE) as a separate segment of the NSE.
- Aim: To provide new avenues for social enterprises to finance social initiatives, provide them visibility, and bring in increased transparency in fund mobilisation and utilisation.
- Eligibility: Any social enterprise, Non-Profit Organization (NPOs), or For-Profit Social Enterprise (FPE) that establishes its primacy of social intent can get registered/listed on the SSE segment.
- Function:
- The SSE will allow social enterprises to raise capital as equity, debt, or as units like a mutual fund.
- The minimum issue size is set at INR 1 crore, and the minimum application size for subscription is INR 2 lakhs for Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) issuance.
What is ZCZP?
These are financial instruments that any non-profit organisation can use to raise funds. The borrowing entity does not have to pay interest—therefore zero coupon—and it does not have to pay the principal (zero principal) either.
BSE had already got approval for the SSE as a separate segment (in 2022)
The idea of SSE was first floated by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in her 2019-20 Budget speech.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsWhat are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?
1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.
3. There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution: B
Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative(SSI)
The Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (SSI) aims at providing practical options to the farmers in improving the productivity of land, water and labour, all at the same time. SSI is also expected to reduce the overall pressure on water resources and contribute to recovery of ecosystems. Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative is an innovative method of sugarcane production using less seeds, less water and optimum utilization of fertilizers and land to achieve more yields.
The major principles that govern SSI
- Raising nursery in portrays using single budded chips
- Transplanting young seedlings (25-35 days old)
- Maintaining wider spacing (5×2 feet) in the main field
- Providing sufficient moisture through efficient water management technologies viz.,drip fertigation (sub or sub surface)
- Encouraging organic method of nutrient and plant protection measures
- Practicing intercropping with effective utilization of land
Overall benefits
- Improved water use efficiency
- Optimum use of fertilizers favour balanced availability of nutrients
- Better aeration and more penetration of sunlight favours higher sugar content
- Reduced cost of cultivation and increased returns through intercropping
Incorrect
Solution: B
Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative(SSI)
The Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (SSI) aims at providing practical options to the farmers in improving the productivity of land, water and labour, all at the same time. SSI is also expected to reduce the overall pressure on water resources and contribute to recovery of ecosystems. Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative is an innovative method of sugarcane production using less seeds, less water and optimum utilization of fertilizers and land to achieve more yields.
The major principles that govern SSI
- Raising nursery in portrays using single budded chips
- Transplanting young seedlings (25-35 days old)
- Maintaining wider spacing (5×2 feet) in the main field
- Providing sufficient moisture through efficient water management technologies viz.,drip fertigation (sub or sub surface)
- Encouraging organic method of nutrient and plant protection measures
- Practicing intercropping with effective utilization of land
Overall benefits
- Improved water use efficiency
- Optimum use of fertilizers favour balanced availability of nutrients
- Better aeration and more penetration of sunlight favours higher sugar content
- Reduced cost of cultivation and increased returns through intercropping
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsIf a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?
Correct
Solution: A
The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Ramsar wetlands of international importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?
Correct
Solution: A
The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal. The two sets of islands together form the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Ten Degree Channel is a channel that separates the Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands from each other in the Bay of Bengal. The two sets of islands together form the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements:
- It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
- It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.
- It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), a pan-India wildlife research organization, has been promoting the cause of nature conservation since 1883.
BNHS Mission: Conservation of nature, primarily biological diversity through action based on research, education and public awareness
BNHS Vision: Premier independent scientific organization with a broad based constituency, excelling in the conservation of threatened species and habitats.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), a pan-India wildlife research organization, has been promoting the cause of nature conservation since 1883.
BNHS Mission: Conservation of nature, primarily biological diversity through action based on research, education and public awareness
BNHS Vision: Premier independent scientific organization with a broad based constituency, excelling in the conservation of threatened species and habitats.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following languages:
- Gujarati
- Kannada
- Telugu
Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language / Languages’ by the Government?
Correct
Solution: C
What is the meaning of classical language?
A classical language is a language with an independent literary tradition and a large and ancient body of written literature. Classical languages are typically dead languages, or show a high degree of diglossia, as the spoken varieties of the language diverge further away from the classical written language over time.
How many classical languages are there in India?
Six languages in India namely Tamil, Telugu, Sanskrit, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given the status of classical language.
Which is the first Indian language to be given a classical language status?
Six languages in India namely Tamil, Telugu, Sanskrit, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given the status of classical language. The first language to be accorded with that status is Tamil. Tamil was declared classical language back in 2004. As per Schedule VIII of the Constitution of India, 22 languages have been recognised as Scheduled languages.
Incorrect
Solution: C
What is the meaning of classical language?
A classical language is a language with an independent literary tradition and a large and ancient body of written literature. Classical languages are typically dead languages, or show a high degree of diglossia, as the spoken varieties of the language diverge further away from the classical written language over time.
How many classical languages are there in India?
Six languages in India namely Tamil, Telugu, Sanskrit, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given the status of classical language.
Which is the first Indian language to be given a classical language status?
Six languages in India namely Tamil, Telugu, Sanskrit, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given the status of classical language. The first language to be accorded with that status is Tamil. Tamil was declared classical language back in 2004. As per Schedule VIII of the Constitution of India, 22 languages have been recognised as Scheduled languages.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Basic or Wardha Scheme of Education (1937)
- The basic premise was that only through this system of education could India build an independent, non-violent society.
- The scheme was first put forward by Mahatma Gandhi in 1937 in a series of articles in his weekly, the Harijan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Basic or Wardha Scheme of Education (1937) Basic education, also called Nai Talim, was not so much a methodology of education as the expression of an idea for a new life and a new society. The basic premise was that only through this system of education could India build an independent, non-violent society. The scheme was first put forward by Mahatma Gandhi in 1937 in a series of articles in his weekly, the Harijan. He emphasised that the concept of free and compulsory primary education on a nationwide scale should centre around some form of manual or productive work. All other aspects to be developed or training imparted should, as far as possible, be integrated with a central handicraft chosen with due regard to the environment of the child.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Basic or Wardha Scheme of Education (1937) Basic education, also called Nai Talim, was not so much a methodology of education as the expression of an idea for a new life and a new society. The basic premise was that only through this system of education could India build an independent, non-violent society. The scheme was first put forward by Mahatma Gandhi in 1937 in a series of articles in his weekly, the Harijan. He emphasised that the concept of free and compulsory primary education on a nationwide scale should centre around some form of manual or productive work. All other aspects to be developed or training imparted should, as far as possible, be integrated with a central handicraft chosen with due regard to the environment of the child.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsNational Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) is chaired by
Correct
Solution: C
National Crisis Management Committee(NCMC):
- For effective implementation of relief measures in the wake of natural calamities, the Government of India has set up a National Crisis Management Committee.
- Cabinet Secretary is it’s Chairman. Hence, option (c) is correct.
- Other members: Secretaries of all the concerned Ministries /Departments as well as organizations are the members of the Committee.
- The NCMC gives direction to the Crisis Management Group as deemed necessary.
Incorrect
Solution: C
National Crisis Management Committee(NCMC):
- For effective implementation of relief measures in the wake of natural calamities, the Government of India has set up a National Crisis Management Committee.
- Cabinet Secretary is it’s Chairman. Hence, option (c) is correct.
- Other members: Secretaries of all the concerned Ministries /Departments as well as organizations are the members of the Committee.
- The NCMC gives direction to the Crisis Management Group as deemed necessary.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsMcMahon line, often seen in news is border line between
Correct
Solution: D
India- China Border:
India and China share a 3,488 km long boundary. Unfortunately, the entire boundary is disputed. The line, which delineates the boundary between the two countries, is popularly called the McMahon line, after its author Sir Henry McMahon.
In 1913, the British-India government had called a tripartite conference, in which the boundary between India and Tibet was formalized after a discussion between the Indian and the Tibetans. A Convention was adopted, which resulted in the delimitation of the Indo-Tibetan boundary. This boundary is, however, disputed by China which terms it as illegal.
In 1957, China occupied Aksai Chin and built a road through it. This episode was followed by intermittent clashes along the border, which finally culminated in the border war of 1962. The boundary, which came into existence after the war, came to be known as Line of Actual Control (LAC). It is a military held line.
Incorrect
Solution: D
India- China Border:
India and China share a 3,488 km long boundary. Unfortunately, the entire boundary is disputed. The line, which delineates the boundary between the two countries, is popularly called the McMahon line, after its author Sir Henry McMahon.
In 1913, the British-India government had called a tripartite conference, in which the boundary between India and Tibet was formalized after a discussion between the Indian and the Tibetans. A Convention was adopted, which resulted in the delimitation of the Indo-Tibetan boundary. This boundary is, however, disputed by China which terms it as illegal.
In 1957, China occupied Aksai Chin and built a road through it. This episode was followed by intermittent clashes along the border, which finally culminated in the border war of 1962. The boundary, which came into existence after the war, came to be known as Line of Actual Control (LAC). It is a military held line.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Sargasso Sea:
- It is a region of the Indian Ocean bounded by four currents forming an ocean gyre.
- It is known for the brown Sargassum seaweed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Sargasso Sea is a region of the Atlantic Ocean bounded by four currents forming an ocean gyre.
Unlike all other regions called seas, it has no land boundaries. It is distinguished from other parts of the Atlantic Ocean by its characteristic brown Sargassum seaweed and often calm blue water.
The Sargasso Sea is a vast patch of ocean named for a genus of free-floating seaweed called Sargassum. While there are many different types of algae found floating in the ocean all around world, the Sargasso Sea is unique in that it harbors species of sargassum that are ‘holopelagi’ – this means that the algae not only freely floats around the ocean, but it reproduces vegetatively on the high seas. Other seaweeds reproduce and begin life on the floor of the ocean.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Sargasso Sea is a region of the Atlantic Ocean bounded by four currents forming an ocean gyre.
Unlike all other regions called seas, it has no land boundaries. It is distinguished from other parts of the Atlantic Ocean by its characteristic brown Sargassum seaweed and often calm blue water.
The Sargasso Sea is a vast patch of ocean named for a genus of free-floating seaweed called Sargassum. While there are many different types of algae found floating in the ocean all around world, the Sargasso Sea is unique in that it harbors species of sargassum that are ‘holopelagi’ – this means that the algae not only freely floats around the ocean, but it reproduces vegetatively on the high seas. Other seaweeds reproduce and begin life on the floor of the ocean.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Office of Profit
- Under Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MP or an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding any office of profit under the Central or State government.
- The expression “office of profit” has not been defined in the Constitution, but has been defined in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution:
Under Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MP or an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding any office of profit under the Central or State government.
Why in News?
- The Joint Parliamentary Committee on Office of Profit is deliberating on whether an MP can continue to teach at a university and if this draws the provisions of “Office of Profit” rules.
What is an ‘office of profit’?
If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed as an “office of profit”.
- A person will be disqualified if he holds an office of profit under the central or state government, other than an office declared not to disqualify its holder by a law passed by Parliament or state legislature.
What is the underlying principle for including ‘office of profit’ as criterion for disqualification?
- Makers of the Constitution wanted that legislators should not feel obligated to the Executive in any way, which could influence them while discharging legislative functions.
- In other words, an MP or MLA should be free to carry out her duties without any kind of governmental pressure. The intent is that there should be no conflict between the duties and interests of an elected member.
- The office of profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution- the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.
Reasons for controversies:
- The expression “office of profit” has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
It is for the courts to explain the significance and meaning of this concept. Over the years, courts have decided this issue in the context of specific factual situations.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution:
Under Article 102 (1) and Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MP or an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding any office of profit under the Central or State government.
Why in News?
- The Joint Parliamentary Committee on Office of Profit is deliberating on whether an MP can continue to teach at a university and if this draws the provisions of “Office of Profit” rules.
What is an ‘office of profit’?
If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed as an “office of profit”.
- A person will be disqualified if he holds an office of profit under the central or state government, other than an office declared not to disqualify its holder by a law passed by Parliament or state legislature.
What is the underlying principle for including ‘office of profit’ as criterion for disqualification?
- Makers of the Constitution wanted that legislators should not feel obligated to the Executive in any way, which could influence them while discharging legislative functions.
- In other words, an MP or MLA should be free to carry out her duties without any kind of governmental pressure. The intent is that there should be no conflict between the duties and interests of an elected member.
- The office of profit law simply seeks to enforce a basic feature of the Constitution- the principle of separation of power between the legislature and the executive.
Reasons for controversies:
- The expression “office of profit” has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
It is for the courts to explain the significance and meaning of this concept. Over the years, courts have decided this issue in the context of specific factual situations.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Debenture is a movable property.
- The debenture holders cannot claim the privilege to vote in any meeting of the company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
A Debenture is basically some of the loan amount the company was interested to raise from the public , that is why it issues debentures. A person who has bought a debenture and holding it is called a debenture holder. A debenture holder is the creditor of the company.
Debenture is a movable property. It is in the form of a certificate of indebtedness of the company and issued by the company itself. It generally creates a charge on the undertaking or undertakings of the company. There is usually a specific date of redemption.
As the debenture holders are not the owner of the company so they are not entitled with the administration and management of the company. The debenture holders cannot claim the privilege to vote in any meeting of the company.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
A Debenture is basically some of the loan amount the company was interested to raise from the public , that is why it issues debentures. A person who has bought a debenture and holding it is called a debenture holder. A debenture holder is the creditor of the company.
Debenture is a movable property. It is in the form of a certificate of indebtedness of the company and issued by the company itself. It generally creates a charge on the undertaking or undertakings of the company. There is usually a specific date of redemption.
As the debenture holders are not the owner of the company so they are not entitled with the administration and management of the company. The debenture holders cannot claim the privilege to vote in any meeting of the company.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Electronic Fund Transfer
- National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is an electronic funds transfer system maintained by the National payments corporation of India
- The setup was established and maintained by Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in November 2005.
- It enables bank customers in India to transfer funds between any two NEFT-enabled bank accounts on a one-to-one basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is an electronic funds transfer system maintained by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
The setup was established and maintained by Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in November 2005.
It enables bank customers in India to transfer funds between any two NEFT-enabled bank accounts on a one-to-one basis.
It is done via electronic messages.
Unlike Real-time gross settlement (RTGS), fund transfers through the NEFT system do not occur in real-time basis.
Incorrect
Solution: C
National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is an electronic funds transfer system maintained by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
The setup was established and maintained by Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in November 2005.
It enables bank customers in India to transfer funds between any two NEFT-enabled bank accounts on a one-to-one basis.
It is done via electronic messages.
Unlike Real-time gross settlement (RTGS), fund transfers through the NEFT system do not occur in real-time basis.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs regarding Age-Sex Pyramid with their characteristics:
- Expanding Populations : triangular shaped pyramid
- Constant Population : bell shaped and tapered towards the top.
- Declining Populations : narrow base and a tapered top
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: C
Age-Sex Pyramid
The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of females and males in different age groups. A population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the population.
The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population. The left side shows the percentage of males while the right side shows the percentage of women in each age group.
Expanding Populations
The age-sex pyramid of Nigeria as you can see is a triangular shaped pyramid with a wide base and is typical of less developed countries.
These have larger populations in lower age groups due to high birth rates. If you construct the pyramids for Bangladesh and Mexico, it would look the same.
Constant Population
Australia’s age-sex pyramid is bell shaped and tapered towards the top. This shows birth and death rates are almost equal leading to a near constant population.
Declining Populations
The Japan pyramid has a narrow base and a tapered top showing low birth and death rates. The population growth in developed countries
is usually zero or negativeIncorrect
Solution: C
Age-Sex Pyramid
The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of females and males in different age groups. A population pyramid is used to show the age-sex structure of the population.
The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population. The left side shows the percentage of males while the right side shows the percentage of women in each age group.
Expanding Populations
The age-sex pyramid of Nigeria as you can see is a triangular shaped pyramid with a wide base and is typical of less developed countries.
These have larger populations in lower age groups due to high birth rates. If you construct the pyramids for Bangladesh and Mexico, it would look the same.
Constant Population
Australia’s age-sex pyramid is bell shaped and tapered towards the top. This shows birth and death rates are almost equal leading to a near constant population.
Declining Populations
The Japan pyramid has a narrow base and a tapered top showing low birth and death rates. The population growth in developed countries
is usually zero or negative -
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following constitute Capital Account?
- External Commercial Borrowings
- Foreign Institutional Investment (FII)
- Loans provided by the World Bank
- Grants by United States of America (USA)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: A
Capital Account records all international transactions of assets.
Current Account is the record of trade in goods and services and transfer payments.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)
- The IFAD is an international financial institution working in the field of poverty eradication in the rural areas of developing countries.
- The organization is an outcome of the World Food Conference of 1974.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)
The IFAD is an international financial institution working in the field of poverty eradication in the rural areas of developing countries. It is a specialized United Nations agency created in 1977 engaged in providing grants and loans with low interest for allied projects.
- The IFAD works with rural people allowing them to enhance their food security, improve nutrition and raise their incomes.
- It also helps people to expand their businesses.
- The organization is an outcome of the World Food Conference of 1974.
- It is headquartered in Rome and headed by a President.
- It has 177 member countries.
- It works with marginalized and vulnerable groups such as farmers with small holdings, foresters, pastoralists, fishermen and small-scale entrepreneurs by giving them disaster preparedness, access to weather information, technology transfer and social learning.
- IFAD brings out the Rural Development Report every year.
Incorrect
Solution: C
International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD)
The IFAD is an international financial institution working in the field of poverty eradication in the rural areas of developing countries. It is a specialized United Nations agency created in 1977 engaged in providing grants and loans with low interest for allied projects.
- The IFAD works with rural people allowing them to enhance their food security, improve nutrition and raise their incomes.
- It also helps people to expand their businesses.
- The organization is an outcome of the World Food Conference of 1974.
- It is headquartered in Rome and headed by a President.
- It has 177 member countries.
- It works with marginalized and vulnerable groups such as farmers with small holdings, foresters, pastoralists, fishermen and small-scale entrepreneurs by giving them disaster preparedness, access to weather information, technology transfer and social learning.
- IFAD brings out the Rural Development Report every year.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsDirections (26-28Q): Study the data given below carefully and answer following questions based on these data.
Given below is the table which shows number of persons who travel by two means i.e. by plane and by train (in thousands) at the occasion of Holi festival from year 2013 to year 2018. There is also a line graph which shows percentage of male travelers in them.Number of male travelers who travel via plane in 2015 is approximately what percent more or less than the female travelers who travel via train in 2014?
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsMaximum growth of males travelling via plane is recorded in which year?
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsRatio between the total females in 2017 travelling by both means and males travelling by plane in 2013 is:
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsDemocracy is inferior to monarchy because democracy fosters destabilizing dissension among subjects. Politicians are apt not to have a sense of responsibility for the quality of legislation because no one makes a significant difference to the outcomes of decision making, since they are tempted to make sectarian and divisive appeals to citizens for maximizing votes.
The crux of the passage is that,
Correct
Answer: C
The passage is obviously against democracy. Since politicians will attend to sectarian interests to maximize their prospects then the guarantee of ensuring common good is low, that leads to a corollary that monarchy which does not want to satisfy one section at cost of other, can be better for common good.
Incorrect
Answer: C
The passage is obviously against democracy. Since politicians will attend to sectarian interests to maximize their prospects then the guarantee of ensuring common good is low, that leads to a corollary that monarchy which does not want to satisfy one section at cost of other, can be better for common good.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsThe volume of a hollow cube is 216×3. What surface area of the largest sphere which be enclosed in it ?
Correct
Correct Option: C
Given that,
Volume of cube = 216x3
⇒ (side)3 = (6x)3
⇒ side = 6x
∴ Diameter of sphere = Side of cube = 6x
and, radius of sphere (r) = 3x
Now, surface area of sphere = 4πr = 4π × (3x)2 = 36πx2
Hence, option C is correct.
Incorrect
Correct Option: C
Given that,
Volume of cube = 216x3
⇒ (side)3 = (6x)3
⇒ side = 6x
∴ Diameter of sphere = Side of cube = 6x
and, radius of sphere (r) = 3x
Now, surface area of sphere = 4πr = 4π × (3x)2 = 36πx2
Hence, option C is correct.
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