INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
Click Here to Download the Insta Test PDF
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the proposed Indian Nutrition Rating (INR) rating
- The rules requires packaged food to display the prescribed format of INR by assigning a rating from 1/2 star (least healthy) to five stars (healthiest).
- The INR is to be calculated on the basis of contribution of energy, saturated fat, total sugar, sodium and the positive nutrients per 100 gm of solid food or 100 ml of liquid food.
- It will be mandatory in nature after it is notified.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The FSSAI has issued a draft notification on front-of-package labelling, which proposes “Indian Nutrition Rating” (INR) modelled on the health star-rating system.
The draft of the amended Food Safety and Standards (Labelling & Display) Regulations, 2020 requires packaged food to display the prescribed format of INR by assigning a rating from 1/2 star (least healthy) to five stars (healthiest).
The Indian Nutrition Rating or INR is to be calculated on the basis of contribution of energy, saturated fat, total sugar, sodium and the positive nutrients per 100 gm of solid food or 100 ml of liquid food.
The star assigned to a product “shall be displayed close in proximity to the name or brand name of the product on front of pack,” the draft notification mentioned.
Certain food products such as milk and milk-based products, egg-based desserts, infant formula, salads and sandwich spreads and alcoholic beverages have been exempted.
Highlights of the Indian Nutrition Rating Draft:
- Five-star ratings to give consumers more information about the nutritional profile of the packaged food products and make better choices.
- Ratings to be displayed on the front labels of the packed food products in close proximity to the brand names.
- Front of pack nutritional labelling has been introduced in various countries where obesity and other lifestyle diseases pose a significant health risk.
- Higher number of stars to indicate that the food products are better positioned to provide for the daily nutrient needs of consumers.
- It will be voluntary in nature for four years after it is notified.
- Defines products that will be considered High Fat Sugar and Salt (HFSS) food products in the country.
- HFSS food means a processed food product which has high levels of saturated fat or total sugar or sodium.
- Proposes mathematical formula on which star ratings will be calculated and also in the manner in which they will need to be displayed on the front labels of the products.
- It has set baseline reference values for energy, total sugars, saturated fats and sodium per 100 grams and 100 ml that can contribute to health risks.
- It has prescribed the minimum percentage of positive nutrients such as fruit and vegetables, nuts, legumes, fibres and protein.
- Food products will obtain Indian Nutrition Rating (INR) scores which will determine the number of stars a product food will be able to display.
- A specified list of products has been provided that will remain out of the ambit of the labelling regulations.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The FSSAI has issued a draft notification on front-of-package labelling, which proposes “Indian Nutrition Rating” (INR) modelled on the health star-rating system.
The draft of the amended Food Safety and Standards (Labelling & Display) Regulations, 2020 requires packaged food to display the prescribed format of INR by assigning a rating from 1/2 star (least healthy) to five stars (healthiest).
The Indian Nutrition Rating or INR is to be calculated on the basis of contribution of energy, saturated fat, total sugar, sodium and the positive nutrients per 100 gm of solid food or 100 ml of liquid food.
The star assigned to a product “shall be displayed close in proximity to the name or brand name of the product on front of pack,” the draft notification mentioned.
Certain food products such as milk and milk-based products, egg-based desserts, infant formula, salads and sandwich spreads and alcoholic beverages have been exempted.
Highlights of the Indian Nutrition Rating Draft:
- Five-star ratings to give consumers more information about the nutritional profile of the packaged food products and make better choices.
- Ratings to be displayed on the front labels of the packed food products in close proximity to the brand names.
- Front of pack nutritional labelling has been introduced in various countries where obesity and other lifestyle diseases pose a significant health risk.
- Higher number of stars to indicate that the food products are better positioned to provide for the daily nutrient needs of consumers.
- It will be voluntary in nature for four years after it is notified.
- Defines products that will be considered High Fat Sugar and Salt (HFSS) food products in the country.
- HFSS food means a processed food product which has high levels of saturated fat or total sugar or sodium.
- Proposes mathematical formula on which star ratings will be calculated and also in the manner in which they will need to be displayed on the front labels of the products.
- It has set baseline reference values for energy, total sugars, saturated fats and sodium per 100 grams and 100 ml that can contribute to health risks.
- It has prescribed the minimum percentage of positive nutrients such as fruit and vegetables, nuts, legumes, fibres and protein.
- Food products will obtain Indian Nutrition Rating (INR) scores which will determine the number of stars a product food will be able to display.
- A specified list of products has been provided that will remain out of the ambit of the labelling regulations.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following rights are provided under Mental Healthcare Act, 2017?
- Right to access mental health care
- Right to community living.
- Right to information.
- Right to legal aid.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 is an Act to provide for mental healthcare and services for persons with mental illness and to protect, promote and fulfil the rights of such persons during delivery of mental healthcare and services and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The Act repeals the Mental Health Act, 1987. The Mental Healthcare Act came into operation on 7 April, 2017.
Definition of Mental illness
The term Mental Illness in MHA 2017 is given an elaborate definition which was lacked by the previous act of 1987 in which mental illness was defined as any mental disorder and seldom as mental retardation, it is now defined in section 2 under the act according to which mental illness indicates a substantial disorder of thinking, mood, perception, orientation or thought that seriously impairs behaviour, capacity to recognise reality, or ability to meet daily needs; mental conditions linked to the degradation of alcohol and drugs; but does not constitute a mental barrier, which is a state of a person’s mind that has not developed normally or at all, often characterised by knowledge that is below average.
Key provisions of the Act
- Rights of persons with mental illness: Every person shall have the right to access mental health care and treatment from services run or funded by the government. The right to access mental health care includes affordable, good quality of and easy access to services. Persons with mental illness also have the right to equality of treatment, protection from inhuman and degrading treatment, free legal services, access to their medical records, and complain regarding deficiencies in provision of mental health care. The provisions include the following.
- Section 18. Right to access mental healthcare.
- Section 19. Right to community living.
- Section 20. Right to protection from cruel, inhuman and degrading treatment.
- Section 21. Right to equality and non-discrimination.
- Section 22. Right to information.
- Section 23. Right to confidentiality.
- Section 24. Restriction on release of information in respect of mental illness.
- Section 25. Right to access medical records.
- Section 26. Right to personal contacts and communication.
- Section 27. Right to legal aid.
- Section 28. Right to make complaints about deficiencies in provision of services.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Mental Healthcare Act, 2017 is an Act to provide for mental healthcare and services for persons with mental illness and to protect, promote and fulfil the rights of such persons during delivery of mental healthcare and services and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. The Act repeals the Mental Health Act, 1987. The Mental Healthcare Act came into operation on 7 April, 2017.
Definition of Mental illness
The term Mental Illness in MHA 2017 is given an elaborate definition which was lacked by the previous act of 1987 in which mental illness was defined as any mental disorder and seldom as mental retardation, it is now defined in section 2 under the act according to which mental illness indicates a substantial disorder of thinking, mood, perception, orientation or thought that seriously impairs behaviour, capacity to recognise reality, or ability to meet daily needs; mental conditions linked to the degradation of alcohol and drugs; but does not constitute a mental barrier, which is a state of a person’s mind that has not developed normally or at all, often characterised by knowledge that is below average.
Key provisions of the Act
- Rights of persons with mental illness: Every person shall have the right to access mental health care and treatment from services run or funded by the government. The right to access mental health care includes affordable, good quality of and easy access to services. Persons with mental illness also have the right to equality of treatment, protection from inhuman and degrading treatment, free legal services, access to their medical records, and complain regarding deficiencies in provision of mental health care. The provisions include the following.
- Section 18. Right to access mental healthcare.
- Section 19. Right to community living.
- Section 20. Right to protection from cruel, inhuman and degrading treatment.
- Section 21. Right to equality and non-discrimination.
- Section 22. Right to information.
- Section 23. Right to confidentiality.
- Section 24. Restriction on release of information in respect of mental illness.
- Section 25. Right to access medical records.
- Section 26. Right to personal contacts and communication.
- Section 27. Right to legal aid.
- Section 28. Right to make complaints about deficiencies in provision of services.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Marburg virus disease (MVD)
- Marburg virus disease (MVD) is a rare but severe hemorrhagic fever that affects people and non-human primates.
- Marburg virus was first recognized in Uganda.
- Marburg viruses are zoonotic DNA viruses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Marburg virus disease (MVD) is a rare but severe hemorrhagic fever that affects people and non-human primates. It is caused by an infection with Marburg virus or Ravn virus, both within genus Marburgvirus. Marburgviruses are zoonotic (or, animal-borne) RNA viruses within the virus family Filoviridae. Ebolaviruses, also filoviruses, are genetically distinct, but closely related to marburgviruses.
Marburg virus was first recognized in 1967, when simultaneous outbreaks of hemorrhagic fever occurred in laboratories in Marburg and Frankfurt, Germany and in Belgrade, Yugoslavia (now Serbia).
Incorrect
Solution: A
Marburg virus disease (MVD) is a rare but severe hemorrhagic fever that affects people and non-human primates. It is caused by an infection with Marburg virus or Ravn virus, both within genus Marburgvirus. Marburgviruses are zoonotic (or, animal-borne) RNA viruses within the virus family Filoviridae. Ebolaviruses, also filoviruses, are genetically distinct, but closely related to marburgviruses.
Marburg virus was first recognized in 1967, when simultaneous outbreaks of hemorrhagic fever occurred in laboratories in Marburg and Frankfurt, Germany and in Belgrade, Yugoslavia (now Serbia).
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Grameen Udyami Project
- It is a one-of-a-kind multiskilling program funded by NSDC that intends to train tribal youth across India.
- The Grameen Udyami Yojana is implemented under the Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana.
- It provides them with a steady source of income without requiring them to migrate to urban areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What is Grameen Udyami Project
- It is a one-of-a-kind multiskilling program funded by NSDC that intends to train tribal youth across India. It provides them with a steady source of income without requiring them to migrate to urban areas.
- The central government has given a budget of Rs. 85,000 crores for this project in the tribal areas.
- The Grameen Udyami Yojana is implemented under the Sansadiya Parisankul Yojana.
- In phase 2, 450 tribal students in Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand would receive training through this project.
- Currently, six states, including Gujarat, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Rajasthan, are actively engaging in the project.
Objectives of the Project
- Enhance employment opportunities for tribal youth
- Increase the rural/local economy
- Minimize forced migration due to a lack of local job opportunities
- Conserve natural resources
Incorrect
Solution: C
What is Grameen Udyami Project
- It is a one-of-a-kind multiskilling program funded by NSDC that intends to train tribal youth across India. It provides them with a steady source of income without requiring them to migrate to urban areas.
- The central government has given a budget of Rs. 85,000 crores for this project in the tribal areas.
- The Grameen Udyami Yojana is implemented under the Sansadiya Parisankul Yojana.
- In phase 2, 450 tribal students in Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand would receive training through this project.
- Currently, six states, including Gujarat, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Rajasthan, are actively engaging in the project.
Objectives of the Project
- Enhance employment opportunities for tribal youth
- Increase the rural/local economy
- Minimize forced migration due to a lack of local job opportunities
- Conserve natural resources
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWangala, often called the festival of “The Hundred Drums”, is celebrated by
Correct
Solution: B
Wangala is also called the festival of “The Hundred Drums”, a harvest festival celebrated by the Garo tribe, who live in Meghalaya, Nagaland and Assam in India and Greater Mymensingh in Bangladesh. In this post harvest festival, they give thanks to Misi Saljong the sun god, for blessing the people with a rich harvest. Wangala is celebrated in the months from September to December, with different villages setting different dates for the occasion.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Wangala is also called the festival of “The Hundred Drums”, a harvest festival celebrated by the Garo tribe, who live in Meghalaya, Nagaland and Assam in India and Greater Mymensingh in Bangladesh. In this post harvest festival, they give thanks to Misi Saljong the sun god, for blessing the people with a rich harvest. Wangala is celebrated in the months from September to December, with different villages setting different dates for the occasion.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding steel sector in India
- India is the world’s 2nd largest consumer of finished steel.
- India is currently the world’s largest producer of crude steel.
- Per capita finished steel consumption in India was higher than the global average.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
India is currently the world’s 2nd largest producer of crude steel in January – December 2021, producing 118.20 Million tonnes (MT) crude steel with growth rate 17.9% over the corresponding period last year (CPLY).
India is the largest producer of Direct Reduced Iron (DRI) or Sponge Iron in the world in January – December 2021, producing 39.04 MT Sponge Iron with growth rate 16.2% over the corresponding period last year (CPLY).
India is the 2nd largest consumer of finished steel in 2021 (106.23 MT), preceded by China as the largest steel consumer as per World Steel Association.
Capacity for domestic crude steel expanded from 137.97 MT in 2017-18 to 154.06 MT in 2021-22, Compounded Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of 3.7% during this five-year period.
Crude steel production grew at 4.2% annually (CAGR) from 103.13 MT in 2017-18 to 120.29 MT in 2021-22.
In the past 10–12 years, India’s steel sector has expanded significantly. Production has increased by 75% since 2008, while domestic steel demand has increased by almost 80%. The capacity for producing steel has grown concurrently, and the rise has been largely organic.
Per capita finished steel consumption in 2020 was 228 kg for world and 691 kg for China. The same for India was 70 kg (Source: JPC) in 2020-21.
Incorrect
Solution: A
India is currently the world’s 2nd largest producer of crude steel in January – December 2021, producing 118.20 Million tonnes (MT) crude steel with growth rate 17.9% over the corresponding period last year (CPLY).
India is the largest producer of Direct Reduced Iron (DRI) or Sponge Iron in the world in January – December 2021, producing 39.04 MT Sponge Iron with growth rate 16.2% over the corresponding period last year (CPLY).
India is the 2nd largest consumer of finished steel in 2021 (106.23 MT), preceded by China as the largest steel consumer as per World Steel Association.
Capacity for domestic crude steel expanded from 137.97 MT in 2017-18 to 154.06 MT in 2021-22, Compounded Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) of 3.7% during this five-year period.
Crude steel production grew at 4.2% annually (CAGR) from 103.13 MT in 2017-18 to 120.29 MT in 2021-22.
In the past 10–12 years, India’s steel sector has expanded significantly. Production has increased by 75% since 2008, while domestic steel demand has increased by almost 80%. The capacity for producing steel has grown concurrently, and the rise has been largely organic.
Per capita finished steel consumption in 2020 was 228 kg for world and 691 kg for China. The same for India was 70 kg (Source: JPC) in 2020-21.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding
- Polar easterlies are dry, cold prevailing winds that blow from the east.
- Trade winds are the powerful prevailing winds that blow from the west across the tropics.
- The horse latitudes are a narrow zone of warm, dry climates between westerlies and the trade winds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Polar Easterlies
Polar easterlies are dry, cold prevailing winds that blow from the east. They emanate from the polar highs, areas of high pressure around the North and South Poles. Polar easterlies flow to low-pressure areas in sub-polar regions.Westerlies
Westerlies are prevailing winds that blow from the west at midlatitudes. They are fed by polar easterlies and winds from the high-pressure horse latitudes, which sandwich them on either side. Westerlies are strongest in the winter, when pressure over the pole is low, and weakest in summer, when the polar high creates stronger polar easterlies.Horse Latitudes
The horse latitudes are a narrow zone of warm, dry climates between westerlies and the trade winds. Horse latitudes are about 30 and 35 degrees north and south. Many deserts, from the rainless Atacama of South America to the arid Kalahari of Africa, are part of the horse latitudes.The prevailing winds at the horse latitudes vary, but are usually light. Even strong winds are often short in duration.
Trade Winds
Trade winds are the powerful prevailing winds that blow from the east across the tropics. Trade winds are generally very predictable. They have been instrumental in the history of exploration, communication, and trade. Ships relied on trade winds to establish quick, reliable routes across the vast Atlantic and, later, Pacific Oceans. Even today, shipping depends on trade winds and the ocean currents they drive.Doldrums
The place where trade winds of the two hemispheres meet is called the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ). The area around the ITCZ is called the doldrums. Prevailing winds in the doldrums are very weak, and the weather is unusually calm.Incorrect
Solution: C
Polar Easterlies
Polar easterlies are dry, cold prevailing winds that blow from the east. They emanate from the polar highs, areas of high pressure around the North and South Poles. Polar easterlies flow to low-pressure areas in sub-polar regions.Westerlies
Westerlies are prevailing winds that blow from the west at midlatitudes. They are fed by polar easterlies and winds from the high-pressure horse latitudes, which sandwich them on either side. Westerlies are strongest in the winter, when pressure over the pole is low, and weakest in summer, when the polar high creates stronger polar easterlies.Horse Latitudes
The horse latitudes are a narrow zone of warm, dry climates between westerlies and the trade winds. Horse latitudes are about 30 and 35 degrees north and south. Many deserts, from the rainless Atacama of South America to the arid Kalahari of Africa, are part of the horse latitudes.The prevailing winds at the horse latitudes vary, but are usually light. Even strong winds are often short in duration.
Trade Winds
Trade winds are the powerful prevailing winds that blow from the east across the tropics. Trade winds are generally very predictable. They have been instrumental in the history of exploration, communication, and trade. Ships relied on trade winds to establish quick, reliable routes across the vast Atlantic and, later, Pacific Oceans. Even today, shipping depends on trade winds and the ocean currents they drive.Doldrums
The place where trade winds of the two hemispheres meet is called the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ). The area around the ITCZ is called the doldrums. Prevailing winds in the doldrums are very weak, and the weather is unusually calm. -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsHasdeo forest is located in the state
Correct
Solution: A
Hasdeo forest: Home to Lemru Elephant Reserve
Context: Tribal villagers near Hasdeo forest in the state of Chhattisgarh, India, have been protesting against the proposed opening of a new coal mine by the Adani Group.
About Hasdeo forest:
The Hasdeo forest (spanning over 170 sq km) and is often called the “lungs of Chhattisgarh“, is said to be the largest contiguous stretch of dense forestland in central India.
Known as the “lungs of Chhattisgarh”, Hasdeo Arand is one of central India’s largest contiguous tracts of forest, with rich biodiversity, an elephant habitat, the catchment area of the Hasdeo Bango dam.
About Lemru Elephant Reserve:
- Location: Korba district of Chhattisgarh.
- The state government notified the reserve (Conservation Reserve) in October 2020 under Section 36A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972(WLPA).
In India, elephant reserves and corridors have no legal sanctity under any law, including the Wildlife Protection Act (WLPA), 1972. The act mentions only national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, conservation and community reserves (collectively called Protected Areas).
Incorrect
Solution: A
Hasdeo forest: Home to Lemru Elephant Reserve
Context: Tribal villagers near Hasdeo forest in the state of Chhattisgarh, India, have been protesting against the proposed opening of a new coal mine by the Adani Group.
About Hasdeo forest:
The Hasdeo forest (spanning over 170 sq km) and is often called the “lungs of Chhattisgarh“, is said to be the largest contiguous stretch of dense forestland in central India.
Known as the “lungs of Chhattisgarh”, Hasdeo Arand is one of central India’s largest contiguous tracts of forest, with rich biodiversity, an elephant habitat, the catchment area of the Hasdeo Bango dam.
About Lemru Elephant Reserve:
- Location: Korba district of Chhattisgarh.
- The state government notified the reserve (Conservation Reserve) in October 2020 under Section 36A of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972(WLPA).
In India, elephant reserves and corridors have no legal sanctity under any law, including the Wildlife Protection Act (WLPA), 1972. The act mentions only national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, conservation and community reserves (collectively called Protected Areas).
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding World Sustainable Development Summit 2022
- It was organized by Sustainable Development Solutions Network.
- The theme for 2022 summit is “Towards a Resilient Planet: Ensuring a Sustainable and Equitable Future”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
World Sustainable Development Summit: 2022
21st edition of the event was inaugurated recently. It is being held in virtual format.
Theme: Towards a Resilient Planet: Ensuring a Sustainable and Equitable Future.
About the World Sustainable Development Summit:
- It is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).
- It is the sole Summit on global issues taking place in the developing world.
- It provides a platform for global leaders and practitioners to discuss and deliberate over climatic issues of universal importance.
- It strives to provide long-term solutions for the benefit of the global community by assembling the world’s most enlightened leaders and thinkers on a single platform.
It is continuing the legacy of Delhi Sustainable Development Summit (DSDS) which was initiated in 2001 with the aim of making ‘sustainable development’ a globally shared goal.
Incorrect
Solution: B
World Sustainable Development Summit: 2022
21st edition of the event was inaugurated recently. It is being held in virtual format.
Theme: Towards a Resilient Planet: Ensuring a Sustainable and Equitable Future.
About the World Sustainable Development Summit:
- It is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).
- It is the sole Summit on global issues taking place in the developing world.
- It provides a platform for global leaders and practitioners to discuss and deliberate over climatic issues of universal importance.
- It strives to provide long-term solutions for the benefit of the global community by assembling the world’s most enlightened leaders and thinkers on a single platform.
It is continuing the legacy of Delhi Sustainable Development Summit (DSDS) which was initiated in 2001 with the aim of making ‘sustainable development’ a globally shared goal.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Tiger Census 2022
- Tiger occupancy in the Western Ghats increased, with significant increase observed in the Wayanad landscape and in the Biligiriranga Hills.
- Jim Corbett National Park is the best-maintained of all Tiger Reserves.
- The Nilgiri cluster (Nagarahole to Biligiriranga Hills) has the largest tiger population in the world.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Tiger Census 2022
Context: The fifth cycle of the All-India Tiger Estimation (2022) was released to mark 50 years of Project Tiger
Major highlights of the Report:
Highlights of Details Tiger population in India 3,167 in 2022, up from 2,967 in 2018 (growth by 200) Growth rate About 6.7% (from 2018 to 2022)— significantly slower than the 33% growth rate during 2014-2018. Significant increase Shivalik Hills and Gangetic Plains saw a significant increase in the tiger population New areas Uttar Pradesh’s Suhelwa Wildlife Sanctuary and northwest of Yamuna in Himachal Pradesh. Decline in occupancy Tiger occupancy in the Western Ghats declined, with significant declines observed in the Wayanad landscape and in the Biligiriranga Hills Tiger occupancy in Northeast Hills, Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Telangana showed a decline.
High conservation priority The genetically unique and small population of tigers in Simlipal is of high conservation priority. Best maintained TR Periyar Tiger Reserve (TR), Kerala is the best-maintained of all TRs followed by Satpura TR (Madhya Pradesh), Bandipur and Nagarhole (Karnataka) Largest tiger population The Nilgiri cluster (Nagarahole to Biligiriranga Hills) is the largest tiger population in the world. About Tiger Census 2022
- Period: Once every four years (2006, 2010, 2014, 2018)
- Conducted by: The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) conducts tiger censuses in partnership with state forest departments, conservation NGOs, and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII).
Incorrect
Solution: C
Tiger Census 2022
Context: The fifth cycle of the All-India Tiger Estimation (2022) was released to mark 50 years of Project Tiger
Major highlights of the Report:
Highlights of Details Tiger population in India 3,167 in 2022, up from 2,967 in 2018 (growth by 200) Growth rate About 6.7% (from 2018 to 2022)— significantly slower than the 33% growth rate during 2014-2018. Significant increase Shivalik Hills and Gangetic Plains saw a significant increase in the tiger population New areas Uttar Pradesh’s Suhelwa Wildlife Sanctuary and northwest of Yamuna in Himachal Pradesh. Decline in occupancy Tiger occupancy in the Western Ghats declined, with significant declines observed in the Wayanad landscape and in the Biligiriranga Hills Tiger occupancy in Northeast Hills, Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Telangana showed a decline.
High conservation priority The genetically unique and small population of tigers in Simlipal is of high conservation priority. Best maintained TR Periyar Tiger Reserve (TR), Kerala is the best-maintained of all TRs followed by Satpura TR (Madhya Pradesh), Bandipur and Nagarhole (Karnataka) Largest tiger population The Nilgiri cluster (Nagarahole to Biligiriranga Hills) is the largest tiger population in the world. About Tiger Census 2022
- Period: Once every four years (2006, 2010, 2014, 2018)
- Conducted by: The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) conducts tiger censuses in partnership with state forest departments, conservation NGOs, and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII).
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsSamarth is a demand driven and placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme for which of the following sector?
Correct
Solution: C
Samarth is a demand driven and placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme of Ministry of Textiles. The implementation period of the scheme is up to March 2024. The scheme was formulated under the broad skilling policy framework adopted by M/o Skill Development & Entrepreneurship.
Samarth aims to incentivize and supplement the efforts of the industry in creating jobs in the organized textile and related sectors, covering the entire value chain of textiles, excluding Spinning and Weaving. The training programme and course curriculum have been rationalized keeping in view the technological and market demand of the domestic and international economies. In addition to the entry level skilling, a special provision for upskilling/ re-skilling programme has also been operationalized under the scheme towards improving the productivity of the existing workers in Apparel & Garmenting segments. Samarth also caters to the upskilling/ re-skilling requirement of traditional textile sector such as handloom, handicraft, silk and jute.
The scheme is implemented through Implementing Partners (IPs) comprising of Textile Industry/ Industry Associations, State government agencies and Sectoral Organizations of Ministry of Textiles like DC/ Handloom, DC/Handicrafts and Central Silk Board.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Samarth is a demand driven and placement-oriented umbrella skilling programme of Ministry of Textiles. The implementation period of the scheme is up to March 2024. The scheme was formulated under the broad skilling policy framework adopted by M/o Skill Development & Entrepreneurship.
Samarth aims to incentivize and supplement the efforts of the industry in creating jobs in the organized textile and related sectors, covering the entire value chain of textiles, excluding Spinning and Weaving. The training programme and course curriculum have been rationalized keeping in view the technological and market demand of the domestic and international economies. In addition to the entry level skilling, a special provision for upskilling/ re-skilling programme has also been operationalized under the scheme towards improving the productivity of the existing workers in Apparel & Garmenting segments. Samarth also caters to the upskilling/ re-skilling requirement of traditional textile sector such as handloom, handicraft, silk and jute.
The scheme is implemented through Implementing Partners (IPs) comprising of Textile Industry/ Industry Associations, State government agencies and Sectoral Organizations of Ministry of Textiles like DC/ Handloom, DC/Handicrafts and Central Silk Board.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Alluri Sitarama Raju
- Sitarama Raju was the influenced by Gandhi’s Non-cooperation movement.
- He led the Rampa Rebellion, a tribal uprising.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Alluri Sitarama Raju (1897 – 1924) was an Indian revolutionary who waged an armed campaign against British colonial rule in India. He was nicknamed “Manyam Veerudu” (Hero of the Jungle) by local villagers for his heroic exploits.
Activities:
- Born in present-day Andhra Pradesh, he became involved in anti-British activities in response to the 1882 Madras Forest Act
- The act restricted the free movement of Adivasis (tribal communities) in their forest habitats and prevented them from practising a traditional form of agriculture known as podu (shifting cultivation).
- Initially, Sitarama Raju, under the influence of Gandhi’s Non-cooperation movement, inspired the tribals to seek justice in the local panchayat courts and boycott the colonial courts.
- Led the Rampa Rebellion/Manyam Rebellion of 1922.
- Death: In 1924, Raju was taken into police custody, tied to a tree, and shot by public execution, effectively ending the armed rebellion.
The Rampa Rebellion of 1922 was a tribal uprising, led by Alluri Sitarama Raju in Godavari Agency of Madras Presidency, British India. The Rampa administrative area was home to about 28,000 tribes. To get the forests cleared, ‘The Madras Forest Act, 1882’ was passed, thereby restricting the free movement of the tribal communities and prohibiting them from engaging in their traditional Podu agricultural system.
Legacy
- He has left behind an inspiring legacy of anti-imperialist rebellion.
- Every year, the Government of Andhra Pradesh commemorates his birth date, the 4th of July, as a state festival.
- Values:
- Patriotism: the patriotic spark that he and several other heroes across the nation reinforced continues to thrive within all of us
- Sacrifice: After sending chills down the spine of the British, the fierce revolutionary laid down his life for the freedom of the motherland in 1924, at the young age of 27 years.
- Commitment to freedom: Just like Alluri Sitarama Raju and other freedom fighters, the youth in the country must learn the spirit of sacrifice and unwavering commitment to freedom.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Alluri Sitarama Raju (1897 – 1924) was an Indian revolutionary who waged an armed campaign against British colonial rule in India. He was nicknamed “Manyam Veerudu” (Hero of the Jungle) by local villagers for his heroic exploits.
Activities:
- Born in present-day Andhra Pradesh, he became involved in anti-British activities in response to the 1882 Madras Forest Act
- The act restricted the free movement of Adivasis (tribal communities) in their forest habitats and prevented them from practising a traditional form of agriculture known as podu (shifting cultivation).
- Initially, Sitarama Raju, under the influence of Gandhi’s Non-cooperation movement, inspired the tribals to seek justice in the local panchayat courts and boycott the colonial courts.
- Led the Rampa Rebellion/Manyam Rebellion of 1922.
- Death: In 1924, Raju was taken into police custody, tied to a tree, and shot by public execution, effectively ending the armed rebellion.
The Rampa Rebellion of 1922 was a tribal uprising, led by Alluri Sitarama Raju in Godavari Agency of Madras Presidency, British India. The Rampa administrative area was home to about 28,000 tribes. To get the forests cleared, ‘The Madras Forest Act, 1882’ was passed, thereby restricting the free movement of the tribal communities and prohibiting them from engaging in their traditional Podu agricultural system.
Legacy
- He has left behind an inspiring legacy of anti-imperialist rebellion.
- Every year, the Government of Andhra Pradesh commemorates his birth date, the 4th of July, as a state festival.
- Values:
- Patriotism: the patriotic spark that he and several other heroes across the nation reinforced continues to thrive within all of us
- Sacrifice: After sending chills down the spine of the British, the fierce revolutionary laid down his life for the freedom of the motherland in 1924, at the young age of 27 years.
- Commitment to freedom: Just like Alluri Sitarama Raju and other freedom fighters, the youth in the country must learn the spirit of sacrifice and unwavering commitment to freedom.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsDeepor Beel was formed from which of the following river?
Correct
Solution: A
The Deepor Beel Wildlife Sanctuary, in the Kamrup district of the lower Brahmaputra valley, is a perennial freshwater lake just outside Guwahati, Assam. It is the state’s only Ramsar site.
A permanent freshwater lake in a former channel of the Brahmaputra river, of great biological importance and also essential as the only major storm water storage basin for the city of Guwahati. The beel is a staging site on migratory flyways and some of the largest concentrations of aquatic birds in Assam can be seen, especially in winter. Some globally threatened birds are supported, including Spotbilled Pelican (Pelicanus philippensis), Lesser and Greater Adjutant Stork (Leptoptilos javanicus and dubius), and Baer’s Pochard (Aythya baeri).
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Deepor Beel Wildlife Sanctuary, in the Kamrup district of the lower Brahmaputra valley, is a perennial freshwater lake just outside Guwahati, Assam. It is the state’s only Ramsar site.
A permanent freshwater lake in a former channel of the Brahmaputra river, of great biological importance and also essential as the only major storm water storage basin for the city of Guwahati. The beel is a staging site on migratory flyways and some of the largest concentrations of aquatic birds in Assam can be seen, especially in winter. Some globally threatened birds are supported, including Spotbilled Pelican (Pelicanus philippensis), Lesser and Greater Adjutant Stork (Leptoptilos javanicus and dubius), and Baer’s Pochard (Aythya baeri).
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding project Niramay
- National Health Mission, Assam in collaboration with NITI Aayog launched project Niramay.
- It was launched to demonstrate the integration of digital health technology to strengthen the public health care delivery in the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
National Health Mission, Assam in collaboration with Piramal Swasthya and Cisco launched project “Niramay” to demonstrate the integration of digital health technology to strengthen the public health care delivery in the state.
This initiative, aims to leverage the learnings of the pilot to facilitate Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission roll out in the state in-line with envisaged national guidelines to develop digital backbone on transforming healthcare delivery in the state and nation.
Incorrect
Solution: B
National Health Mission, Assam in collaboration with Piramal Swasthya and Cisco launched project “Niramay” to demonstrate the integration of digital health technology to strengthen the public health care delivery in the state.
This initiative, aims to leverage the learnings of the pilot to facilitate Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission roll out in the state in-line with envisaged national guidelines to develop digital backbone on transforming healthcare delivery in the state and nation.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK)
- At present, the Commission is acting as a Statutory body of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- One of its mandates is to recommend Central Government, specific programmes of action towards Safai Karamcharis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) was constituted on 12th August, 1994 as a statutory body by an Act of Parliament viz. ‘National Commission for Safai Karamcharis Act, 1993’, for a period of three years i.e. up to 31st March, 1997.
With the lapsing of the “The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis Act, 1993” w.e.f. 29.2.2004, the Commission is acting as a Non-Statutory body of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. The Commission’s tenure is extended from time to time through Government Resolutions.
The mandate of the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis as laid down in the resolution dated 06.03.2013 read with resolution dated 02.03.2009, is as follows:
- Recommend to the Central Government specific programmes of action towards elimination of inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities for Safai Karamcharis.
- Study and evaluate the implementation of the programmes and schemes relating to the social and economic rehabilitation of Safai Karamcharis; and scavengers, in particular.
- Investigate specific grievances and take suo-motu notice of matters relating to non-implementation of: –
- programmes or schemes in respect of any group of Safai Karamcharis
- decisions, guidelines or instructions, aimed at mitigating the hardships of Safai Karamcharis
- measures for the social and economic upliftment of Safai Karamcharis
- the provisions of any law in its application to Safai Karamcharis; and take up such matters with the concerned authorities or with the Central or State Governments
- To study and monitor the working conditions, including those relating to health, safety and wages of Safai Karamcharis working under various kinds of employers including Government, Municipalities and Panchayats, and to make recommendations in this regard.
- Make reports to the Central or State Governments on any matter concerning Safai Karamcharis, taking into account any difficulties or disabilities being encountered by Safai Karamcharis
- Any other matter which may be referred to it by the Central Government.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) was constituted on 12th August, 1994 as a statutory body by an Act of Parliament viz. ‘National Commission for Safai Karamcharis Act, 1993’, for a period of three years i.e. up to 31st March, 1997.
With the lapsing of the “The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis Act, 1993” w.e.f. 29.2.2004, the Commission is acting as a Non-Statutory body of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. The Commission’s tenure is extended from time to time through Government Resolutions.
The mandate of the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis as laid down in the resolution dated 06.03.2013 read with resolution dated 02.03.2009, is as follows:
- Recommend to the Central Government specific programmes of action towards elimination of inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities for Safai Karamcharis.
- Study and evaluate the implementation of the programmes and schemes relating to the social and economic rehabilitation of Safai Karamcharis; and scavengers, in particular.
- Investigate specific grievances and take suo-motu notice of matters relating to non-implementation of: –
- programmes or schemes in respect of any group of Safai Karamcharis
- decisions, guidelines or instructions, aimed at mitigating the hardships of Safai Karamcharis
- measures for the social and economic upliftment of Safai Karamcharis
- the provisions of any law in its application to Safai Karamcharis; and take up such matters with the concerned authorities or with the Central or State Governments
- To study and monitor the working conditions, including those relating to health, safety and wages of Safai Karamcharis working under various kinds of employers including Government, Municipalities and Panchayats, and to make recommendations in this regard.
- Make reports to the Central or State Governments on any matter concerning Safai Karamcharis, taking into account any difficulties or disabilities being encountered by Safai Karamcharis
- Any other matter which may be referred to it by the Central Government.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?
1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianismSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: A
Global Warming, fragmentation of habitat and invasion of alien species can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Global Warming, fragmentation of habitat and invasion of alien species can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following regions of India have been designated as biodiversity hotspots? Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Eastern Himalaya
2. Eastern Ghat
3. Western Ghat
4. Western HimalayaSelect the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: A
A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat from humans. Around the world, as many as 25 areas qualify to be the hotspots. Out of which India has 2 hotspots: Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghats.
Incorrect
Solution: A
A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is under threat from humans. Around the world, as many as 25 areas qualify to be the hotspots. Out of which India has 2 hotspots: Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghats.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsThe basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that
Correct
Solution: C
The Lead Bank Scheme is a scheme which aims at providing adequate banking and credit in rural areas through an ‘service area approach’, with one bank assigned for one area. It was introduced in 1969.
On the recommendation of the Gadgil Study Group and Banker’s Committee, the Scheme was introduced by RBI. The committees found that the rural areas were not able to enjoy the benefits of banking. Also, that the commercial banks did not have adequate presence in rural areas and also lacked the required rural orientation which was hindering the growth of rural areas.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Lead Bank Scheme is a scheme which aims at providing adequate banking and credit in rural areas through an ‘service area approach’, with one bank assigned for one area. It was introduced in 1969.
On the recommendation of the Gadgil Study Group and Banker’s Committee, the Scheme was introduced by RBI. The committees found that the rural areas were not able to enjoy the benefits of banking. Also, that the commercial banks did not have adequate presence in rural areas and also lacked the required rural orientation which was hindering the growth of rural areas.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Dhrupad
- It is a form of devotional music that traces its origin to the ancient text of Samveda.
- In medieval India, Dhrupad had mainly thrived under the patronage of Mughal and Rajput kings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Dhrupad:
- The word Dhrupad is derived from Dhruva, the steadfast evening star that moves through the galaxy, and Pada meaning poetry.
- Traditionally, the dhrupad style of singing was performed with a tanpura and pakhawaj.
- The lyrics sung in Dhrupad are in a medieval form of Hindi and typically heroic in theme, or praise of a particular deity.
- It is a form of devotional music that traces its origin to the ancient text of Samveda.
- One significant characteristic of Dhrupad is the emphasis on maintaining the purity of the Raga.
- Hindustani classical music is primarily vocal-centric. The primary vocal forms associated with Hindustani music are the Khayal, Ghazal, Dhrupad, Dhammar, Tarana and Thumri.
- In medieval India, Dhrupad had mainly thrived under the patronage of Mughal and Rajput kings. Later it declined with the shift of interest in Khayal.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Dhrupad:
- The word Dhrupad is derived from Dhruva, the steadfast evening star that moves through the galaxy, and Pada meaning poetry.
- Traditionally, the dhrupad style of singing was performed with a tanpura and pakhawaj.
- The lyrics sung in Dhrupad are in a medieval form of Hindi and typically heroic in theme, or praise of a particular deity.
- It is a form of devotional music that traces its origin to the ancient text of Samveda.
- One significant characteristic of Dhrupad is the emphasis on maintaining the purity of the Raga.
- Hindustani classical music is primarily vocal-centric. The primary vocal forms associated with Hindustani music are the Khayal, Ghazal, Dhrupad, Dhammar, Tarana and Thumri.
- In medieval India, Dhrupad had mainly thrived under the patronage of Mughal and Rajput kings. Later it declined with the shift of interest in Khayal.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWith reference to United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), consider the following statements
- It is the only international convention which stipulates a framework for state jurisdiction in maritime spaces
- The United Nations has direct operational role in the implementation of the Convention
- India ratified the UNCLOS
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS):
- United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) 1982, also known as Law of the Sea divides marine areas into five main zones namely- Internal Waters, Territorial Sea, Contiguous Zone, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and the High Seas.
- UNCLOS is the only international convention which stipulates a framework for state jurisdiction in maritime spaces. It provides a different legal status to different maritime zones.
- It provides the backbone for offshore governance by coastal states and those navigating the oceans. It not only zones coastal states’ offshore areas but also provides specific guidance for states’ rights and responsibilities in the five concentric zones.
- India ratified the UNCLOS in 1995
The United Nations has no direct operational role in the implementation of the Convention. While the Secretary-General of the United Nations receives instruments of ratification and accession and the UN provides support for meetings of states party to the Convention, the United Nations Secretariat has no direct operational role in the implementation of the Convention.
Incorrect
Solution: C
United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS):
- United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) 1982, also known as Law of the Sea divides marine areas into five main zones namely- Internal Waters, Territorial Sea, Contiguous Zone, Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) and the High Seas.
- UNCLOS is the only international convention which stipulates a framework for state jurisdiction in maritime spaces. It provides a different legal status to different maritime zones.
- It provides the backbone for offshore governance by coastal states and those navigating the oceans. It not only zones coastal states’ offshore areas but also provides specific guidance for states’ rights and responsibilities in the five concentric zones.
- India ratified the UNCLOS in 1995
The United Nations has no direct operational role in the implementation of the Convention. While the Secretary-General of the United Nations receives instruments of ratification and accession and the UN provides support for meetings of states party to the Convention, the United Nations Secretariat has no direct operational role in the implementation of the Convention.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following events took place under Lord Dalhousie?
- White Mutiny’ by the European troops
- Wood’s Education Despatch
- Introduction of the Railways
- Prohibition of female infanticide
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
Lord Dalhousie (1848–56)
- Second Sikh war (1848–49) and annexation of the Punjab.
- Second Burmese war (1852) and annexation of Lower Burma.
- Charter Act of 1853.
- Application of the Doctrine of Lapse and annexation of Satara (1848), Sambalpur (1849), Jhansi (1853), Nagpur (1854), etc.
- Annexation of Oudh (1856).
- Wood’s (President of the Board of Control) Education Despatch of 1854 and British assumption of the responsibility of educating the masses.
- Introduction of the Railways (First train—Bombay to Thana), Telegraph (First line—Calcutta to Agra) and the Postal System in 1853.
- Widow Remarriage Act (1856).
- Establishment of a separate Public Works Department in every province.
- Santhal uprising (1855-56).
Lord Hardinge I (1844–48)
- First Sikh war (1845–46) and treaty of Lahore (1846).
- Prohibition of female infanticide and suppression of the practice of human sacrifice among the Gonds of central India.
Lord Canning (1858-62)
- Queen Victoria’s Proclamation and the India Act of 1858.
- ‘White Mutiny’ by the European troops of the EICO in 1859.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Lord Dalhousie (1848–56)
- Second Sikh war (1848–49) and annexation of the Punjab.
- Second Burmese war (1852) and annexation of Lower Burma.
- Charter Act of 1853.
- Application of the Doctrine of Lapse and annexation of Satara (1848), Sambalpur (1849), Jhansi (1853), Nagpur (1854), etc.
- Annexation of Oudh (1856).
- Wood’s (President of the Board of Control) Education Despatch of 1854 and British assumption of the responsibility of educating the masses.
- Introduction of the Railways (First train—Bombay to Thana), Telegraph (First line—Calcutta to Agra) and the Postal System in 1853.
- Widow Remarriage Act (1856).
- Establishment of a separate Public Works Department in every province.
- Santhal uprising (1855-56).
Lord Hardinge I (1844–48)
- First Sikh war (1845–46) and treaty of Lahore (1846).
- Prohibition of female infanticide and suppression of the practice of human sacrifice among the Gonds of central India.
Lord Canning (1858-62)
- Queen Victoria’s Proclamation and the India Act of 1858.
- ‘White Mutiny’ by the European troops of the EICO in 1859.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the provisions of Charter Act of 1833?
- Completion of the introduction of free trade in India by abolishing the company’s monopoly of trade in tea and trade with China.
- It required the company’s servants to undergo some training in England before entering service.
- Inclusion of a Law Member in the Council of the Governor General.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Charter Act of 1813
- Throwing open the Indian trade to all British subjects, though the company’s monopoly of trade in tea and trade with China was not disturbed. Providing an annual sum of Rs. 1,00,000 for the spread of education.
- It required the company’s servants to undergo some training in England before entering service.
Charter Act of 1833
- Completion of the introduction of free trade in India by abolishing the company’s monopoly of trade in tea and trade with China.
- Renaming the Governor General of Fort William as the Governor General of India (William Bentinck was the first Governor General of India as well as the Governor of Bengal Presidency).
- Inclusion of a Law Member in the Council of the Governor General (Macaulay—the first Law Member).
- Abolition of the legislative decentralisation (i.e. the power of different Presidencies to make law for themselves) and giving the governor general in council the power to make laws for all British India.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Charter Act of 1813
- Throwing open the Indian trade to all British subjects, though the company’s monopoly of trade in tea and trade with China was not disturbed. Providing an annual sum of Rs. 1,00,000 for the spread of education.
- It required the company’s servants to undergo some training in England before entering service.
Charter Act of 1833
- Completion of the introduction of free trade in India by abolishing the company’s monopoly of trade in tea and trade with China.
- Renaming the Governor General of Fort William as the Governor General of India (William Bentinck was the first Governor General of India as well as the Governor of Bengal Presidency).
- Inclusion of a Law Member in the Council of the Governor General (Macaulay—the first Law Member).
- Abolition of the legislative decentralisation (i.e. the power of different Presidencies to make law for themselves) and giving the governor general in council the power to make laws for all British India.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Dalhousie’s Policy of Annexation
- Under Doctrine of Lapse, the Company named itself heir to all rulers who lacked a male heir whom it recognized.
- Satara (1848), Nagpur (1853) and Jhansi (1854) were annexed under Doctrine of Lapse.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Dalhousie’s Policy of Annexation
- The Governor-General credited with the maximum number of annexations was, Lord Dalhousie (1848-56).
- Dalhousie used a variety of justifications for annexation, including his judgment that a late ruler had lacked a legitimate heir, that a ruler was misgoverning, or simply that the Company had a need for a particular territory.
- Using the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ (i.e., the Company named itself heir to all rulers who lacked a male heir whom it recognised), he annexed Satara (1848), Nagpur (1853) and Jhansi (1854), as well as eight other smaller states.
- Although the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ did not originate with Dalhousie, he exercised it more frequently and extensively than any other Governor General.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Dalhousie’s Policy of Annexation
- The Governor-General credited with the maximum number of annexations was, Lord Dalhousie (1848-56).
- Dalhousie used a variety of justifications for annexation, including his judgment that a late ruler had lacked a legitimate heir, that a ruler was misgoverning, or simply that the Company had a need for a particular territory.
- Using the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ (i.e., the Company named itself heir to all rulers who lacked a male heir whom it recognised), he annexed Satara (1848), Nagpur (1853) and Jhansi (1854), as well as eight other smaller states.
- Although the ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ did not originate with Dalhousie, he exercised it more frequently and extensively than any other Governor General.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsBahmani kingdom was founded by
Correct
Solution: D
Bahmani Kingdom
- Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah (1347–58), also known as Hasan Gangu and whose original name was Ismail Mukh, founded the Bahmani kingdom with Gulbarga as its capital.
- There were a total of fourteen Bahmani Sultans, important among them being: Alauddin Hasan (the founder); Muhammed Shah I (1358–77) who was the immediate successor of Hasan; Taj-ud-din Firoz Shah (1398–1422) considered greatest among them all;
- Ahmad Shah Wali (1422–35) who transferred the capital from Gulbarga to Bidar and whose reign marked the end of the ‘Gulbarga Phase’ of Bahmani kingdom and the beginning of the second phase, called the ‘Bidar Phase’.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Bahmani Kingdom
- Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah (1347–58), also known as Hasan Gangu and whose original name was Ismail Mukh, founded the Bahmani kingdom with Gulbarga as its capital.
- There were a total of fourteen Bahmani Sultans, important among them being: Alauddin Hasan (the founder); Muhammed Shah I (1358–77) who was the immediate successor of Hasan; Taj-ud-din Firoz Shah (1398–1422) considered greatest among them all;
- Ahmad Shah Wali (1422–35) who transferred the capital from Gulbarga to Bidar and whose reign marked the end of the ‘Gulbarga Phase’ of Bahmani kingdom and the beginning of the second phase, called the ‘Bidar Phase’.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following formed the part of Home Charges
- Interest on public debt raised in England
- Annuities on account of railway and irrigation works
- Payments in connection with civil departments where Englishmen were employed.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
DRAIN OF WEALTH
The person to draw pointed attention to this drain of resources from India to England was Dadabhai Naoroji in his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India (1871).
The government of India had to make huge payments to people in England on account of political, administrative and commercial connections
established between India and England. These commitments were called ‘Home Charges’. They included:
- Interest on public debt raised in England at comparatively higher rates;
- Annuities on account of railway and irrigation works;
- Payments in connection with civil departments where Englishmen were employed;
- India Office expenses including pensions to retired officials who had worked in India or who had worked for India in England and retired there, pensions to army and naval personnel, and their furlough allowances.
Incorrect
Solution: D
DRAIN OF WEALTH
The person to draw pointed attention to this drain of resources from India to England was Dadabhai Naoroji in his book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India (1871).
The government of India had to make huge payments to people in England on account of political, administrative and commercial connections
established between India and England. These commitments were called ‘Home Charges’. They included:
- Interest on public debt raised in England at comparatively higher rates;
- Annuities on account of railway and irrigation works;
- Payments in connection with civil departments where Englishmen were employed;
- India Office expenses including pensions to retired officials who had worked in India or who had worked for India in England and retired there, pensions to army and naval personnel, and their furlough allowances.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsIn India, since 2015-16, at least 50 colleges have closed each year and this year, AICTE approved the closure of 63 institutes. However, 54 new colleges were approved for the academic year, 2021-22 in backward districts. Did anyone also study the available employment opportunities in those districts before approving them? Not a single industry body, be it CII or FICCI has managed to inform the education planners on the growth in different employment sectors. Yesterday, it was IT and its applications that propelled a growth in IT and Computer Science courses. Today, it is automation. What happens when these areas get saturated? Lack of adequate number of teachers, inability of the management to make adequate investments in a dynamic environment, lack of employment opportunities, shelf life of skills coming down with every technology-related intervention and a constant experimentation with curriculum have all been the bane of quality in technical education. The ultimate measure of performance is embedded in quality assurance. Various rating and ranking agencies insist that program and course outcomes are paramount for quality. The larger question, however, is if these can be measured in the spirit in which they are written?
1) What if the guaranteed outcomes are not realized? Can the stakeholders sue the administrators on reneging on promises?
The central theme of the passage is,
Correct
Answer: A
The passage has following claims and observations:
- Technical education in India do not know what the industry needs
- There are myriad quality issues like teachers, infrastructure etc,
- There is no accountability in the system right now
- Nature of skill sets needed will change and never remain constant
Thus, industry instruction linkage missing is main crux of the passage.
Incorrect
Answer: A
The passage has following claims and observations:
- Technical education in India do not know what the industry needs
- There are myriad quality issues like teachers, infrastructure etc,
- There is no accountability in the system right now
- Nature of skill sets needed will change and never remain constant
Thus, industry instruction linkage missing is main crux of the passage.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA farmer has 132 metres of barbed wire. He wants to put it as a fence for a part of his farm. What is the maximum area that he can fence?
Correct
Solution: B
Explanation:
For a given length of any perimeter, a circle of circumference of that length can cover maximum area compared to any plain figure.
So, Circumference of a circle = 2πr = 132 m.
r = 132/2π
r = 21 m.
Area of the circle = πr2 = (22/7)(212) = 1386 m2.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Explanation:
For a given length of any perimeter, a circle of circumference of that length can cover maximum area compared to any plain figure.
So, Circumference of a circle = 2πr = 132 m.
r = 132/2π
r = 21 m.
Area of the circle = πr2 = (22/7)(212) = 1386 m2.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsDirections : (28-30)
What is the difference between Minimum value of mobiles – Sold in Online and the Minimum value of mobiles – Sold in Retail?
Correct
Correct Ans: b) 87,111
Explanation:
Minimum value of mobiles – Sold in Online is = 224000
Minimum value of mobiles – Sold in Retail is = 311111
Hence Difference is => 224000 – 311111
= -87,111
Incorrect
Correct Ans: b) 87,111
Explanation:
Minimum value of mobiles – Sold in Online is = 224000
Minimum value of mobiles – Sold in Retail is = 311111
Hence Difference is => 224000 – 311111
= -87,111
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsWhat is the difference between Maximum value of mobiles – Sold in Retail and the Maximum value of mobiles – Sold in Online ?
Correct
Correct Ans: c) 32,000
Explanation:
Maximum value of mobiles – Sold in Retail is = 672000
Maximum value of mobiles – Sold in Online is = 640000
Hence Difference is => 672000 – 640000
= 32,000
Incorrect
Correct Ans: c) 32,000
Explanation:
Maximum value of mobiles – Sold in Retail is = 672000
Maximum value of mobiles – Sold in Online is = 640000
Hence Difference is => 672000 – 640000
= 32,000
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsWhat is the difference between Maximum value of Imported Mobiles and the Minimum value of Imported Mobiles ?
Correct
Correct Ans: b) 3,20,846
Explanation:
Maximum value of Imported Mobiles is = 567000
Minimum value of Imported Mobiles is = 246154
Hence Difference is => 567000 – 246154
= 3,20,846
Incorrect
Correct Ans: b) 3,20,846
Explanation:
Maximum value of Imported Mobiles is = 567000
Minimum value of Imported Mobiles is = 246154
Hence Difference is => 567000 – 246154
= 3,20,846
Join our Official Telegram Channel HERE
Please subscribe to Our podcast channel HERE
Subscribe to our YouTube ChannelHERE
Follow our Twitter Account HERE
Follow our Instagram ID HERE
Follow us on LinkedIn : HERE