INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Market Access Initiative (MAI) Scheme
- Market Access Initiative (MAI) Scheme is an Export Promotion Scheme envisaged to act as a catalyst to promote India’s exports on a sustained basis.
- The scheme is formulated on focus product-focus country approach.
- The Ministry of Commerce provides MAI grant to the overseas buyers to visit and attend Fairs organized by Export Promotion Councils (EPCs) in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Market Access Initiative (MAI) Scheme
Market Access Initiative (MAI) Scheme is an Export Promotion Scheme envisaged to act as a catalyst to promote India’s exports on a sustained basis. The scheme is formulated on focus product-focus country approach to evolve specific market and specific product through market studies/survey. Assistance would be provided to Export Promotion Organizations/Trade Promotion Organizations/National Level Institutions/ Research Institutions/Universities/Laboratories, Exporters etc., for enhancement of exports through accessing new markets or through increasing the share in the existing markets. Under the Scheme the level of assistance for each eligible activities has been fixed.
The following activities will be eligible for financial assistance under the Scheme:
- Marketing Projects Abroad
- Capacity Building
- Support for Statutory Compliances
- Studies
- Project Development
- Developing Foreign Trade Facilitation web Portal
- To support Cottage and handicrafts units
The Ministry of Commerce provides MAI grant to the overseas buyers to visit and attend Fairs organized by Export Promotion Councils (EPCs) in India.
Marketing Access Assistance (MAI) is a government grant/subsidy provided to member exporters for their export promotion activities like participation in EPC led international Trade Fairs/Exhibitions/ Buyer Seller Meets (BSM) abroad to explore new markets for export of their handicrafts or specific product(s) and commodities from India in the initial phase.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Market Access Initiative (MAI) Scheme
Market Access Initiative (MAI) Scheme is an Export Promotion Scheme envisaged to act as a catalyst to promote India’s exports on a sustained basis. The scheme is formulated on focus product-focus country approach to evolve specific market and specific product through market studies/survey. Assistance would be provided to Export Promotion Organizations/Trade Promotion Organizations/National Level Institutions/ Research Institutions/Universities/Laboratories, Exporters etc., for enhancement of exports through accessing new markets or through increasing the share in the existing markets. Under the Scheme the level of assistance for each eligible activities has been fixed.
The following activities will be eligible for financial assistance under the Scheme:
- Marketing Projects Abroad
- Capacity Building
- Support for Statutory Compliances
- Studies
- Project Development
- Developing Foreign Trade Facilitation web Portal
- To support Cottage and handicrafts units
The Ministry of Commerce provides MAI grant to the overseas buyers to visit and attend Fairs organized by Export Promotion Councils (EPCs) in India.
Marketing Access Assistance (MAI) is a government grant/subsidy provided to member exporters for their export promotion activities like participation in EPC led international Trade Fairs/Exhibitions/ Buyer Seller Meets (BSM) abroad to explore new markets for export of their handicrafts or specific product(s) and commodities from India in the initial phase.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsMatch the following geological heritage sites with their region
- Volcanogenic bedded Barytes: Tamil Nadu
- Stromatolite Fossil Park: Rajasthan
- Lonar Lake: Maharashtra
- Columnar Lava at St Mary Island: Andaman and Nicobar Islands
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
State-wise details of the geological heritage sites/ national geological monuments
S. No Geological heritage site / National geological monument ANDHRA PRADESH 1 Volcanogenic bedded Barytes, Mangampeta, Cuddapah Dist. 2 Eparchaean Unconformity, Chittor Dist. 3 Natural Geological Arch, Tirumala Hills, Chittor Dist. 4 Erra Matti Dibbalu- the dissected and stabilized coastal red sediment mounds located between Vishakhapatnam and Bhimunipatnam. KERALA 5 Laterite near Angadipuram PWD rest house premises, Malapuram Dist. 6 Varkala Cliff Section, Thiruvanatapuram Dist. TAMILNADU 7 Fossil wood near Tiruvakkarai, South Arcot Dist. 8 National fossil wood park, Sattanur, Tiruchirapalli Dist. 9 Charnockite, St. Thomas Mount, Madras. 10 Badlands of Karai Formation with Cretaceous fossils along Karai – Kulakkalnattam Section, Perambalur District. GUJARAT 11 Sedimentary Structures – Eddy Markings, Kadan Dam, Panch Mahals Dist. RAJASTHAN 12 Sendra Granite, Pali Dist. 13 Barr Conglomerate, Pali Dist. 14 Stromatolite Fossil Park, Jharmarkotra Rock Phosphate deposit, Udaipur Dist. 15 Gossan in Rajpura-Dariba Mineralised belt, Udaipur Dist. 16 Stromatolite Park near Bhojunda, Chittaurgarh Dist. 17 Akal Fossil Wood Park, Jaisalmer Dist. 18 Kishangarh Nepheline Syenite, Ajmer Dist. 19 Welded Tuff, Jodhpur Dist. 20 Jodhpur Group – Malani Igneous Suite Contact, Jodhpur Dist. 21 Great Boundary Fault at Satur, Bundi Dist. MAHARASHTRA 22 Lonar Lake, Buldana Dist. CHATTISGARH 22 Lower Permian Marine bed at Manendragarh, Surguja Dist. KARNATAKA 24 Columnar Lava, St Mary Island, Udupi Dist. 25 Pillow lavas near Mardihalli, Chitradurga Dist. 26 Peninsular Gneiss, Lalbagh, Banglore 27 Pyroclastics & Pillow lavas, Kolar Gold fields, Kolar Dist. HIMACHAL PRADESH 28 Siwalik Fossil Park, Saketi, Sirmur dt., ODISHA 29 Pillow Lava in lron ore belt at Nomira, Keonjhar dist. JHARKHAND 30 Plant Fossil bearing Inter-trappean beds of Rajmahal Formation, upper Gondwana sequence around Mandro, Sahibganj dist. NAGALAND 31 Nagahill Ophiolite Site near Pungro, SIKKIM 32 Stromatolite bearing Dolomite / Limestone of Buxa Formation at Mamley, near Namchi, South district. Incorrect
Solution: B
State-wise details of the geological heritage sites/ national geological monuments
S. No Geological heritage site / National geological monument ANDHRA PRADESH 1 Volcanogenic bedded Barytes, Mangampeta, Cuddapah Dist. 2 Eparchaean Unconformity, Chittor Dist. 3 Natural Geological Arch, Tirumala Hills, Chittor Dist. 4 Erra Matti Dibbalu- the dissected and stabilized coastal red sediment mounds located between Vishakhapatnam and Bhimunipatnam. KERALA 5 Laterite near Angadipuram PWD rest house premises, Malapuram Dist. 6 Varkala Cliff Section, Thiruvanatapuram Dist. TAMILNADU 7 Fossil wood near Tiruvakkarai, South Arcot Dist. 8 National fossil wood park, Sattanur, Tiruchirapalli Dist. 9 Charnockite, St. Thomas Mount, Madras. 10 Badlands of Karai Formation with Cretaceous fossils along Karai – Kulakkalnattam Section, Perambalur District. GUJARAT 11 Sedimentary Structures – Eddy Markings, Kadan Dam, Panch Mahals Dist. RAJASTHAN 12 Sendra Granite, Pali Dist. 13 Barr Conglomerate, Pali Dist. 14 Stromatolite Fossil Park, Jharmarkotra Rock Phosphate deposit, Udaipur Dist. 15 Gossan in Rajpura-Dariba Mineralised belt, Udaipur Dist. 16 Stromatolite Park near Bhojunda, Chittaurgarh Dist. 17 Akal Fossil Wood Park, Jaisalmer Dist. 18 Kishangarh Nepheline Syenite, Ajmer Dist. 19 Welded Tuff, Jodhpur Dist. 20 Jodhpur Group – Malani Igneous Suite Contact, Jodhpur Dist. 21 Great Boundary Fault at Satur, Bundi Dist. MAHARASHTRA 22 Lonar Lake, Buldana Dist. CHATTISGARH 22 Lower Permian Marine bed at Manendragarh, Surguja Dist. KARNATAKA 24 Columnar Lava, St Mary Island, Udupi Dist. 25 Pillow lavas near Mardihalli, Chitradurga Dist. 26 Peninsular Gneiss, Lalbagh, Banglore 27 Pyroclastics & Pillow lavas, Kolar Gold fields, Kolar Dist. HIMACHAL PRADESH 28 Siwalik Fossil Park, Saketi, Sirmur dt., ODISHA 29 Pillow Lava in lron ore belt at Nomira, Keonjhar dist. JHARKHAND 30 Plant Fossil bearing Inter-trappean beds of Rajmahal Formation, upper Gondwana sequence around Mandro, Sahibganj dist. NAGALAND 31 Nagahill Ophiolite Site near Pungro, SIKKIM 32 Stromatolite bearing Dolomite / Limestone of Buxa Formation at Mamley, near Namchi, South district. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Zealandia
- Zealandia is a long, narrow microcontinent that is mostly submerged in the South Pacific Ocean.
- Zealandia is about half the size of Australia.
- Zealandia is a very tectonically active region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Zealandia is a long, narrow microcontinent that is mostly submerged in the South Pacific Ocean.
A microcontinent is a landmass that has broken off from a main continent. Zealandia broke off from Antarctica about 100 million years ago, and then from Australia about 80 million years ago.Zealandia is about half the size of Australia, but only 7 percent of it is above sea level. Most of that terrestrial land makes up the two large islands of the country of New Zealand, the North Island and the South Island. Stewart Island, just south of the South Island, and many smaller islets are also a part of Zealandia. New Caledonia, a collection of islands governed by France, makes up the northern tip of Zealandia.
Zealandia generally enjoys a mild, temperate climate. Its largest islands have glaciers, the largest being Tasman Glacier on the South Island. Activity from the last glacial period also carved out many fjords and valleys. The tropical climate of New Caledonia, on the other hand, has more in common with Oceania and the South Pacific.
Volcanic Activity
Zealandia is a very tectonically active region. Part of the microcontinent is on the Australian plate, while the other part is on the Pacific plate.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Zealandia is a long, narrow microcontinent that is mostly submerged in the South Pacific Ocean.
A microcontinent is a landmass that has broken off from a main continent. Zealandia broke off from Antarctica about 100 million years ago, and then from Australia about 80 million years ago.Zealandia is about half the size of Australia, but only 7 percent of it is above sea level. Most of that terrestrial land makes up the two large islands of the country of New Zealand, the North Island and the South Island. Stewart Island, just south of the South Island, and many smaller islets are also a part of Zealandia. New Caledonia, a collection of islands governed by France, makes up the northern tip of Zealandia.
Zealandia generally enjoys a mild, temperate climate. Its largest islands have glaciers, the largest being Tasman Glacier on the South Island. Activity from the last glacial period also carved out many fjords and valleys. The tropical climate of New Caledonia, on the other hand, has more in common with Oceania and the South Pacific.
Volcanic Activity
Zealandia is a very tectonically active region. Part of the microcontinent is on the Australian plate, while the other part is on the Pacific plate.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsInternational Liquid Mirror Telescope (ILMT) is located
- It is located in Hanle, Ladakh.
- is the first of its kind to be designed and built for astronomical observations.
- It is the first telescope in India to be equipped with an artificial intelligence system that can classify objects in the sky.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
About the International Liquid Mirror Telescope (ILMT):
It is located at an altitude of 2,450 metres on the Devasthal Observatory campus of the Aryabhata Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) in Nainital district, an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India.
- It is the only liquid-mirror telescope operational anywhere in the world.
- It will also hold the unique tag of being the maiden liquid-telescope globally to be designed exclusively for astronomical purposes.
- This international telescope facility is the result of collaborative work between astronomers from Canada, Belgium and India.
Features of the Telescope:
- Unlike the conventional telescopes that can be steered to track specific stellar source objects, the ILMT will be stationary.
- It will basically carry out observations and imaging at the zenith, that is, of the overhead sky.
- This is a survey telescope having high potential for discovering newer objects.
The liquid mirror telescope, known as the ILMT, is the first of its kind to be designed and built for astronomical observations. It is also the first telescope in India to be equipped with an artificial intelligence system that can classify objects in the sky.
The instrument, which is maintained by the Aryabhata Research Institute of Observational Sciences was developed through a collaboration between various scientific organizations and universities.
Incorrect
Solution: B
About the International Liquid Mirror Telescope (ILMT):
It is located at an altitude of 2,450 metres on the Devasthal Observatory campus of the Aryabhata Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) in Nainital district, an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India.
- It is the only liquid-mirror telescope operational anywhere in the world.
- It will also hold the unique tag of being the maiden liquid-telescope globally to be designed exclusively for astronomical purposes.
- This international telescope facility is the result of collaborative work between astronomers from Canada, Belgium and India.
Features of the Telescope:
- Unlike the conventional telescopes that can be steered to track specific stellar source objects, the ILMT will be stationary.
- It will basically carry out observations and imaging at the zenith, that is, of the overhead sky.
- This is a survey telescope having high potential for discovering newer objects.
The liquid mirror telescope, known as the ILMT, is the first of its kind to be designed and built for astronomical observations. It is also the first telescope in India to be equipped with an artificial intelligence system that can classify objects in the sky.
The instrument, which is maintained by the Aryabhata Research Institute of Observational Sciences was developed through a collaboration between various scientific organizations and universities.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Pralay Missiles
- It is India’s first tactical quasi-ballistic missile.
- It has a range of 1500 to 2000KMs.
- It is a Solid-propellant – Surface-to-Surface missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
About Pralay Missiles:
Feature Description Missile Type Quasi-ballistic Surface-to-Surface missile Range 150-500 km Propulsion Solid-propellant rocket motor Capabilities Ability to change path mid-air, evading interceptor missiles Target Designed to destroy enemy radar, communication centres, airfields, and command centres Developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) Deployment Indian Air Force and Indian Army Significance Pralay will be India’s first tactical quasi-ballistic missile and will give the armed forces the capability to hit enemy positions and key installations in actual battlefield areas. Incorrect
Solution: C
About Pralay Missiles:
Feature Description Missile Type Quasi-ballistic Surface-to-Surface missile Range 150-500 km Propulsion Solid-propellant rocket motor Capabilities Ability to change path mid-air, evading interceptor missiles Target Designed to destroy enemy radar, communication centres, airfields, and command centres Developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) Deployment Indian Air Force and Indian Army Significance Pralay will be India’s first tactical quasi-ballistic missile and will give the armed forces the capability to hit enemy positions and key installations in actual battlefield areas. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Genome India Project
- It was inspired from Human Genome Project.
- The project was led by Council of Scientific & Industrial Research.
- The GIP aims to collect 10,000 genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Taking inspiration from the Human Genome Project, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) initiated the ambitious “Genome India Project” (GIP) on 3rd January 2020. The GIP aims to collect 10,000 genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome. This is no mean feat, given that the genome contains all the genetic matter in an organism, i.e., the complete set of DNAs.
This project is led by the Centre for Brain Research at Bengaluru-based Indian Institute of Science, which acts as the central coordinator between a collaboration of 20 leading institutions, each collecting samples and conducting its own research.
Whole-genome sequencing and subsequent data analysis of the genetic data of these 10,000 individuals would be carried out. This would aid our understanding of the nature of diseases affecting the Indian population, and then ultimately support the development of predictive diagnostic markers. This is a landmark initiative, particularly because it would bring valuable addition to existing genome research, which has so far been limited to the Western context. It allows India to draw upon its tremendous genetic diversity, given the series of large migrations historically, and thus, add greatly to the current information about the human species.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Taking inspiration from the Human Genome Project, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) initiated the ambitious “Genome India Project” (GIP) on 3rd January 2020. The GIP aims to collect 10,000 genetic samples from citizens across India, to build a reference genome. This is no mean feat, given that the genome contains all the genetic matter in an organism, i.e., the complete set of DNAs.
This project is led by the Centre for Brain Research at Bengaluru-based Indian Institute of Science, which acts as the central coordinator between a collaboration of 20 leading institutions, each collecting samples and conducting its own research.
Whole-genome sequencing and subsequent data analysis of the genetic data of these 10,000 individuals would be carried out. This would aid our understanding of the nature of diseases affecting the Indian population, and then ultimately support the development of predictive diagnostic markers. This is a landmark initiative, particularly because it would bring valuable addition to existing genome research, which has so far been limited to the Western context. It allows India to draw upon its tremendous genetic diversity, given the series of large migrations historically, and thus, add greatly to the current information about the human species.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Animal Welfare Board of India
- It was established under Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Shrimati Rukmini Devi Arundale pioneered the setting up of the Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Animal Welfare Board of India
The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. Established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (No. 59 of 1960), the Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian. From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 50 years.
The Board consists of 28 Members. The term of office of Members is for a period of 3 years.Constitution of Animal Welfare Board of India
The Animal Welfare Board of India, the first of its kind to be established by any Government in the world, was set up in 1962, in accordance with Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Acts 1960 (No.59 of 1960).
Shrimati Rukmini Devi Arundale pioneered the setting up of the Board, with its Headquaters at Chennai. She guided the activities of the Board for nearly twenty years till her demise in 1986.Incorrect
Solution: B
Animal Welfare Board of India
The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. Established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (No. 59 of 1960), the Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian. From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 50 years.
The Board consists of 28 Members. The term of office of Members is for a period of 3 years.Constitution of Animal Welfare Board of India
The Animal Welfare Board of India, the first of its kind to be established by any Government in the world, was set up in 1962, in accordance with Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Acts 1960 (No.59 of 1960).
Shrimati Rukmini Devi Arundale pioneered the setting up of the Board, with its Headquaters at Chennai. She guided the activities of the Board for nearly twenty years till her demise in 1986. -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Coalition for Nature Coalition for Nature
- It is an initiative of India under its G20 Presidency.
- The goal of the coalition is to advocate for agreed common Small Island Developing States (SIDS) priorities and needs such as greater means of implementing biodiversity objectives in these places by putting up a unified front.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
A number of Small Island Developing States (SIDS) have agreed to form a ‘Coalition for Nature’ for the implementation and adoption of the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) at the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
The coalition is being led by Cabo Verde, Samoa and Seychelles. The organisers of the event made a call to action for “enhancing means of implementing ambitious objectives for nature in SIDS under the Post-2020 Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF).”
The goal of the coalition is to advocate for agreed common SIDS priorities and needs such as greater means of implementing biodiversity objectives in these places by putting up a unified front.
SIDS host 19 per cent of the world’s coral reefs and their geographic isolation safeguards an array of endemic plants and animals found nowhere else on earth.
Belize, Cabo Verde, Comoros, Dominican Republic, Guinea Bissau, Kiribati, Samoa, Saint Lucia, Sao Tome and Principe, Seychelles, Solomon Islands, Tuvalu and Vanuatu are the current members of the coalition with Germany, France, Italy, Luxembourg, Monaco, Netherlands, Portugal, Spain and United Kingdom as Friends of the SIDS Coalition.
Incorrect
Solution: B
A number of Small Island Developing States (SIDS) have agreed to form a ‘Coalition for Nature’ for the implementation and adoption of the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) at the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
The coalition is being led by Cabo Verde, Samoa and Seychelles. The organisers of the event made a call to action for “enhancing means of implementing ambitious objectives for nature in SIDS under the Post-2020 Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF).”
The goal of the coalition is to advocate for agreed common SIDS priorities and needs such as greater means of implementing biodiversity objectives in these places by putting up a unified front.
SIDS host 19 per cent of the world’s coral reefs and their geographic isolation safeguards an array of endemic plants and animals found nowhere else on earth.
Belize, Cabo Verde, Comoros, Dominican Republic, Guinea Bissau, Kiribati, Samoa, Saint Lucia, Sao Tome and Principe, Seychelles, Solomon Islands, Tuvalu and Vanuatu are the current members of the coalition with Germany, France, Italy, Luxembourg, Monaco, Netherlands, Portugal, Spain and United Kingdom as Friends of the SIDS Coalition.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the objectives of PARIVESH portal?
- To enhance efficiency, transparency and accountability in the Forest, Environment and Wildlife Clearance Process.
- To reduce turnaround time for activity.
- To enhance responsiveness through workflows automation and availability of real time information.
- To enhance ease and convenience of citizens and businesses in accessing information and services.
- To achieve standardization in processes across regional and state level.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Pro-Active and Responsive facilitation by Interactive Virtuous & Environmental Single-window Hub.
In order to bring more transparency and accountability in the forests, environment and wildlife clearance process, Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate change, Government of India has rolled out a portal named as Pro-Active Responsive facilitation by Interactive and Virtuous Environmental Single Window Hub (PARIVESH).
PARIVESH is a web based, role based, G2C and G2G workflow application that are developed for online submission and monitoring of the proposals submitted by the user agencies for seeking forests, environment and wildlife clearances. It automates the entire tracking of proposals which includes online submissions of a new proposal, editing/updating the details of proposals and displays status of the proposals at each stage of the workflow. The system is based on the Web Architecture. It uses IIS as an Application Server, .Net as a framework and SQL Server as a database server.
The Main Objectives are:
- To enhance efficiency, transparency and accountability in the Forest, Environment and Wildlife Clearance Process.
- To reduce turnaround time for activity.
- To enhance responsiveness through workflows automation and availability of real time information.
- To enhance ease and convenience of citizens and businesses in accessing information and services.
- To achieve standardization in processes across regional and state level.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Pro-Active and Responsive facilitation by Interactive Virtuous & Environmental Single-window Hub.
In order to bring more transparency and accountability in the forests, environment and wildlife clearance process, Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate change, Government of India has rolled out a portal named as Pro-Active Responsive facilitation by Interactive and Virtuous Environmental Single Window Hub (PARIVESH).
PARIVESH is a web based, role based, G2C and G2G workflow application that are developed for online submission and monitoring of the proposals submitted by the user agencies for seeking forests, environment and wildlife clearances. It automates the entire tracking of proposals which includes online submissions of a new proposal, editing/updating the details of proposals and displays status of the proposals at each stage of the workflow. The system is based on the Web Architecture. It uses IIS as an Application Server, .Net as a framework and SQL Server as a database server.
The Main Objectives are:
- To enhance efficiency, transparency and accountability in the Forest, Environment and Wildlife Clearance Process.
- To reduce turnaround time for activity.
- To enhance responsiveness through workflows automation and availability of real time information.
- To enhance ease and convenience of citizens and businesses in accessing information and services.
- To achieve standardization in processes across regional and state level.
Kuril Islands:
Japan’s Diplomatic Bluebook for 2022 has described the Kuril Islands (which Japan calls the Northern Territories and Russia as the South Kurils) as being under Russia’s “illegal occupation”.
- This is the first time in about two decades that Japan has used this phrase to describe the dispute over the Kuril Islands.
Kuril Islands/ Northern Territories:
- These are a set of four islands situated between the Sea of Okhotsk and the Pacific Ocean near the north of Japan’s northernmost prefecture, Hokkaido.
- Both Moscow and Tokyo claim sovereignty over them though the islands have been under Russian control since the end of World War II.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Vibrant Villages Programme
- The programme’s targets are to provide comprehensive development of villages on the border with China.
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
- It will be based on “Hub and Spoke Model” of development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
What is the ‘Vibrant Villages Programme’?
This village development scheme was first announced in the 2022 Budget. The programme’s targets are to provide comprehensive development of villages on the border with China and improvement in the quality of life of people living in identified border villages. The development in these villages will help prevent migration, and thus also boost security.
Which states come under VVP?
Under this centrally sponsored scheme, 2,967 villages in 46 blocks of 19 districts have been identified for comprehensive development. These villages abut the border in the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh and the Union Territory of Ladakh. In the first phase, around 662 villages have been identified for priority coverage.
What are the objectives of the scheme?
The aims of the scheme are to identify and develop the economic drivers based on local, natural, human and other resources of the border villages, as per a press release by the Ministry of Home Affairs on February 15, 2023. Development of growth centres on the “Hub and Spoke Model” through promotion of social entrepreneurship, empowerment of youth and women through skill development is also one of the objectives of VVP.
Incorrect
Solution: D
What is the ‘Vibrant Villages Programme’?
This village development scheme was first announced in the 2022 Budget. The programme’s targets are to provide comprehensive development of villages on the border with China and improvement in the quality of life of people living in identified border villages. The development in these villages will help prevent migration, and thus also boost security.
Which states come under VVP?
Under this centrally sponsored scheme, 2,967 villages in 46 blocks of 19 districts have been identified for comprehensive development. These villages abut the border in the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh and the Union Territory of Ladakh. In the first phase, around 662 villages have been identified for priority coverage.
What are the objectives of the scheme?
The aims of the scheme are to identify and develop the economic drivers based on local, natural, human and other resources of the border villages, as per a press release by the Ministry of Home Affairs on February 15, 2023. Development of growth centres on the “Hub and Spoke Model” through promotion of social entrepreneurship, empowerment of youth and women through skill development is also one of the objectives of VVP.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 points“Group of Friends”, often seen in news, is an organization for
Correct
Solution: A
In order to promote accountability for crimes against peacekeepers, India, which is currently holding the UN Security Council (UNSC) presidency, established a “Group of Friends” on Thursday.
The co-chairs of the “Group of Friends to Promote Accountability for Crimes Against Peacekeepers” are India, Bangladesh, Egypt, France, Morocco, and Nepal.
The concept behind the initiative
According to a concept note on the Group of Friends, it will work to promote accountability for all acts of violence against UN peacekeepers and to facilitate capacity building and technical support for the host state’s authorities.
It will serve as an informal forum at the UN to exchange information, share best practices, and mobilise resources aimed at facilitating accountability for crimes committed against peacekeepers. It will also monitor progress in bringing accountability for crimes against peacekeepers. It will actively engage and share information with the Secretary-General and help the member states hosting or having hosted peacekeeping operations, and assist them in bringing the perpetrators of such acts to justice.
The Group of Friends will organise and hold additional meetings, briefings, and events as necessary, based on the annual work plan and developments relevant to the safety and security of peacekeepers. The Group of Friends will convene two meetings of its members per year, organise and host one event per year involving Permanent Missions and other stakeholders, and hold two meetings of its members per year.
Incorrect
Solution: A
In order to promote accountability for crimes against peacekeepers, India, which is currently holding the UN Security Council (UNSC) presidency, established a “Group of Friends” on Thursday.
The co-chairs of the “Group of Friends to Promote Accountability for Crimes Against Peacekeepers” are India, Bangladesh, Egypt, France, Morocco, and Nepal.
The concept behind the initiative
According to a concept note on the Group of Friends, it will work to promote accountability for all acts of violence against UN peacekeepers and to facilitate capacity building and technical support for the host state’s authorities.
It will serve as an informal forum at the UN to exchange information, share best practices, and mobilise resources aimed at facilitating accountability for crimes committed against peacekeepers. It will also monitor progress in bringing accountability for crimes against peacekeepers. It will actively engage and share information with the Secretary-General and help the member states hosting or having hosted peacekeeping operations, and assist them in bringing the perpetrators of such acts to justice.
The Group of Friends will organise and hold additional meetings, briefings, and events as necessary, based on the annual work plan and developments relevant to the safety and security of peacekeepers. The Group of Friends will convene two meetings of its members per year, organise and host one event per year involving Permanent Missions and other stakeholders, and hold two meetings of its members per year.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following indicators are used under Social Progress Index (SPI)?
- Performance of states and districts in terms of Nutrition and Basic Medical Care
- Access to Basic Knowledge
- Environmental Quality
- Personal Freedom and Choice
- Inclusiveness
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Economic Advisory Council to Prime Minister (EAC-PM) will release the Social Progress Index (SPI) for states and districts of India on December 20, 2022. The report has been prepared by Institute for Competitiveness, headed by Dr Amit Kapoor and the Social Progress Imperative, headed by Michael Green and was mandated by Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister of India.
SPI is a comprehensive tool intended to be a holistic measure of the Social Progress made by the country at the national and sub-national levels. Understanding that the social progress of citizens is key to sustaining economic growth in the long run, the index complements the conventional measures of economic growth and development. Keeping in mind the pressing need for a measurement model that can better understand the needs of society, while also equipping decision-makers with the necessary knowledge and tools, the team embarked on an extensive research phase to identify appropriate indicators and measures of social progress for the report.
SPI assesses the performance of states and districts on three dimensions of social progress: Basic Human Needs, Foundations of Wellbeing, and Opportunity. Within each dimension, there are four components.
- The dimension of Basic Human Needs assesses the performance of states and districts in terms of Nutrition and Basic Medical Care, Water and Sanitation, Personal Safety and Shelter.
- The dimension of Foundations of Wellbeing evaluates the progress made by the country across the components of Access to Basic Knowledge, Access to Information and Communication, Health and Wellness, and Environmental Quality.
- The dimension of Opportunity focuses on aspects of Personal Rights, Personal Freedom and Choice, Inclusiveness, and Access to Advanced Education.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Economic Advisory Council to Prime Minister (EAC-PM) will release the Social Progress Index (SPI) for states and districts of India on December 20, 2022. The report has been prepared by Institute for Competitiveness, headed by Dr Amit Kapoor and the Social Progress Imperative, headed by Michael Green and was mandated by Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister of India.
SPI is a comprehensive tool intended to be a holistic measure of the Social Progress made by the country at the national and sub-national levels. Understanding that the social progress of citizens is key to sustaining economic growth in the long run, the index complements the conventional measures of economic growth and development. Keeping in mind the pressing need for a measurement model that can better understand the needs of society, while also equipping decision-makers with the necessary knowledge and tools, the team embarked on an extensive research phase to identify appropriate indicators and measures of social progress for the report.
SPI assesses the performance of states and districts on three dimensions of social progress: Basic Human Needs, Foundations of Wellbeing, and Opportunity. Within each dimension, there are four components.
- The dimension of Basic Human Needs assesses the performance of states and districts in terms of Nutrition and Basic Medical Care, Water and Sanitation, Personal Safety and Shelter.
- The dimension of Foundations of Wellbeing evaluates the progress made by the country across the components of Access to Basic Knowledge, Access to Information and Communication, Health and Wellness, and Environmental Quality.
- The dimension of Opportunity focuses on aspects of Personal Rights, Personal Freedom and Choice, Inclusiveness, and Access to Advanced Education.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsBasmati Rice is grown in which of the following regions?
- Jammu and Kashmir
- Himachal Pradesh
- Punjab
- Western Uttar Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
“Basmati” is long grain aromatic rice grown for many centuries in a specific geographical area, in the Himalayan foothills of the Indian sub-continent, blessed with characteristics of extra-long slender grains that elongate at least twice their original size with a characteristics soft and fluffy texture upon cooking, delicious taste, superior aroma and distinct flavor, Basmati rice is unique among other aromatic long-grain rice varieties.
Agro-climatic conditions of the specific geographical area, as well as the method of harvesting, processing and aging, attribute these characteristic features to Basmati rice. Owing to its unique characteristics the “scented Pearl” lends a touch of class that can transform even the most ordinary meal into a gourmet’s delight.
Areas of Cultivation:
The areas of Basmati Rice production in India are the states of J & K, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Uttarakhand and western Uttar Pradesh.
Facts and Figure:
India is the leading exporter of Basmati Rice to the global market. The country has exported 3,948,161.03 MT of Basmati Rice to the world for the worth of Rs. 26,416.49 Crores/ 3,540.40 US$ Mill.) during the year 2021-22.
Incorrect
Solution: D
“Basmati” is long grain aromatic rice grown for many centuries in a specific geographical area, in the Himalayan foothills of the Indian sub-continent, blessed with characteristics of extra-long slender grains that elongate at least twice their original size with a characteristics soft and fluffy texture upon cooking, delicious taste, superior aroma and distinct flavor, Basmati rice is unique among other aromatic long-grain rice varieties.
Agro-climatic conditions of the specific geographical area, as well as the method of harvesting, processing and aging, attribute these characteristic features to Basmati rice. Owing to its unique characteristics the “scented Pearl” lends a touch of class that can transform even the most ordinary meal into a gourmet’s delight.
Areas of Cultivation:
The areas of Basmati Rice production in India are the states of J & K, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Uttarakhand and western Uttar Pradesh.
Facts and Figure:
India is the leading exporter of Basmati Rice to the global market. The country has exported 3,948,161.03 MT of Basmati Rice to the world for the worth of Rs. 26,416.49 Crores/ 3,540.40 US$ Mill.) during the year 2021-22.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Border Security Force (BSF)
- It is one of the seven Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) of India that is responsible for guarding the country’s land borders during peacetime and preventing trans-border crimes.
- It was established in 1962, following the Indo-China War of 1962.
- It is under the control of the Ministry of Defense.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Border Security Force (BSF) is India’s border guarding organization at its borders with Pakistan and Bangladesh. It is one of the seven Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) of India that is responsible for guarding the country’s land borders during peacetime and preventing trans-border crimes.
It was established on December 1, 1965, following the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965, with the goal of providing security to the border areas of India and for related matters”.
The Border Security Force (BSF) is a paramilitary force in India that is responsible for guarding the country’s land borders during peacetime and preventing trans-border crimes. It was established on December 1, 1965, following the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965, with the goal of providing security to the border areas of India.
It has various active roles during an outbreak of war. It is the only CAPF to have a navy, air wing and an artillery regiment. It is under the control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. The BSF has its own small force of officers or “Cadre”.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Border Security Force (BSF) is India’s border guarding organization at its borders with Pakistan and Bangladesh. It is one of the seven Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) of India that is responsible for guarding the country’s land borders during peacetime and preventing trans-border crimes.
It was established on December 1, 1965, following the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965, with the goal of providing security to the border areas of India and for related matters”.
The Border Security Force (BSF) is a paramilitary force in India that is responsible for guarding the country’s land borders during peacetime and preventing trans-border crimes. It was established on December 1, 1965, following the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965, with the goal of providing security to the border areas of India.
It has various active roles during an outbreak of war. It is the only CAPF to have a navy, air wing and an artillery regiment. It is under the control of the Ministry of Home Affairs. The BSF has its own small force of officers or “Cadre”.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Report on Trends and Progress of Banking in India
- “Report on Trends and Progress of Banking in India 2021-22” was released as a statutory compliance in accordance with the RBI Act 1934.
- According to report, Gross non-performing assets (GNPA) for scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) have increased to 9% (march 2022), because of COVID-19 Pandemic.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Report on Trends and Progress of Banking in India 2021-22
- This report is statutory compliance in accordance with the Banking Regulation Act 1949, and presents the performance of banking sectors ( including cooperative banks and NBFCs)
Key findings of the report:
- Double-digit growth in the balance sheet of scheduled commercial banks (SCBs)
- Impact: This is good news for the banking sector in India.
- Definition: SCBs are those banks which are included in the second schedule of the RBI Act 1934 and which carry out the normal business of banking such as accepting deposits, giving out loans and other banking services.
- Gross non-performing assets (GNPA) for SCBs have declined (from 9% (2017-18) to 5.8% (march 2022))
- Reasons for decline in GNPAs: Banks have given write-offs or upgradation; greater scrutiny and monitoring of loans; greater recovery of loans after the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Act 2016
- The financial performance of Urban cooperative banks showed improvement
- Non-banking financial company (NBFC) sector improved in 2021-22. With strong capital buffers, adequate provisions, and sufficient liquidity, NBFCs are poised for expansion.
- Definition: NBFC or Non-Banking Financial Institutions are the institutions that have been registered under the Companies Act, 1956. NBFCs offer bank-related services without having banking licenses. Even though NBFCs provide financial services, they differ from banks in many ways.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Report on Trends and Progress of Banking in India 2021-22
- This report is statutory compliance in accordance with the Banking Regulation Act 1949, and presents the performance of banking sectors ( including cooperative banks and NBFCs)
Key findings of the report:
- Double-digit growth in the balance sheet of scheduled commercial banks (SCBs)
- Impact: This is good news for the banking sector in India.
- Definition: SCBs are those banks which are included in the second schedule of the RBI Act 1934 and which carry out the normal business of banking such as accepting deposits, giving out loans and other banking services.
- Gross non-performing assets (GNPA) for SCBs have declined (from 9% (2017-18) to 5.8% (march 2022))
- Reasons for decline in GNPAs: Banks have given write-offs or upgradation; greater scrutiny and monitoring of loans; greater recovery of loans after the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Act 2016
- The financial performance of Urban cooperative banks showed improvement
- Non-banking financial company (NBFC) sector improved in 2021-22. With strong capital buffers, adequate provisions, and sufficient liquidity, NBFCs are poised for expansion.
- Definition: NBFC or Non-Banking Financial Institutions are the institutions that have been registered under the Companies Act, 1956. NBFCs offer bank-related services without having banking licenses. Even though NBFCs provide financial services, they differ from banks in many ways.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsIn which one of the following is Malta located?
Correct
Solution: B
Malta is an archipelago in the central Mediterranean between Sicily and the North African coast. It’s a nation known for historic sites related to a succession of rulers including the Romans, Moors, Knights of Saint John, French and British. It has numerous fortresses, megalithic temples and the Ħal Saflieni Hypogeum, a subterranean complex of halls and burial chambers dating to circa 4000 B.C.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Malta is an archipelago in the central Mediterranean between Sicily and the North African coast. It’s a nation known for historic sites related to a succession of rulers including the Romans, Moors, Knights of Saint John, French and British. It has numerous fortresses, megalithic temples and the Ħal Saflieni Hypogeum, a subterranean complex of halls and burial chambers dating to circa 4000 B.C.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsAmong the following, which one lays eggs and does not produce young ones directly?
Correct
Solution: A
The echidna has spines like a porcupine, a beak like a bird, a pouch like a kangaroo and lays eggs like a reptile.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The echidna has spines like a porcupine, a beak like a bird, a pouch like a kangaroo and lays eggs like a reptile.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (board) List-II(headquarters)
A. Coffee Board 1. Bangalore
B. Rubber Broad 2. Guntur
C. Tea Board 3. Kotayam
D. Tobacco Board 4. KolkataA B C D
Correct
Solution: B
Coffee Board
The Board has a Market Intelligence Unit functioning from its head office at Bangalore.
Rubber Board
The Rubber Board is a statutory body constituted by the Government of India, under the Rubber Act 1947, for the overall development of the rubber industry in the country. Head Office is in Kottayam, Kerala.
Tea Board
The Board’s Head Office is situated in Kolkata and there are two Zonal offices-one each in North Eastern Region at Jorhat in Assam and in Southern Region at Coonoor in Tamil Nadu.
The Tobacco Board was constituted as a statutory body on 1st January, 1976 under Section (4) of the Tobacco Board Act, 1975.
Tobacco Board
The Board is headed by a chairman with its headquarters at Guntur, Andhra Pradesh and is responsible for the development of the tobacco industry.
While the primary function of the Board is export promotion of all varieties of tobacco and its allied products, its functions extend to production, distribution (for domestic consumption and exports) and regulation of Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Coffee Board
The Board has a Market Intelligence Unit functioning from its head office at Bangalore.
Rubber Board
The Rubber Board is a statutory body constituted by the Government of India, under the Rubber Act 1947, for the overall development of the rubber industry in the country. Head Office is in Kottayam, Kerala.
Tea Board
The Board’s Head Office is situated in Kolkata and there are two Zonal offices-one each in North Eastern Region at Jorhat in Assam and in Southern Region at Coonoor in Tamil Nadu.
The Tobacco Board was constituted as a statutory body on 1st January, 1976 under Section (4) of the Tobacco Board Act, 1975.
Tobacco Board
The Board is headed by a chairman with its headquarters at Guntur, Andhra Pradesh and is responsible for the development of the tobacco industry.
While the primary function of the Board is export promotion of all varieties of tobacco and its allied products, its functions extend to production, distribution (for domestic consumption and exports) and regulation of Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsMixture of which one of the following pairs of gases is the cause of occurrence of most of the explosions in mines?
Correct
Solution: C
The explosion in mines is initiated when the fine particles of coal dust come into contact with a source of heat.
The explosion is easier to happen after coming in contact of methane gas. The explosion pressure and heat value of methane is not as high as coal dust.
Sometimes, the dust explosion is followed by the methane gas explosion. Therefore, the methane and air are the gases supporting the mines explosion.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The explosion in mines is initiated when the fine particles of coal dust come into contact with a source of heat.
The explosion is easier to happen after coming in contact of methane gas. The explosion pressure and heat value of methane is not as high as coal dust.
Sometimes, the dust explosion is followed by the methane gas explosion. Therefore, the methane and air are the gases supporting the mines explosion.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWhat does Baudhayan theorem (Baudhayan Sulva Sautra) related to?
Correct
Solution: B
The Baudhayanasūtras are a group of Vedic Sanskrit texts which cover dharma, daily ritual, mathematics, etc. They belong to the Taittiriya branch of the Krishna Yajurveda School and are among the earliest texts of the sutra genre, perhaps compiled in the 8th to 7th centuries BCE.
The Baudhāyana Śulbasûtra is noted for containing several early mathematical results, including an approximation of the square root of 2 and the statement of a version of the Pythagorean Theorem.
Social Life during Gupta period
The pre-Gupta period in India witnessed a series of foreign invasions. Indian society had given way to those foreigners who had become permanent residents here. But during the Gupta period, the caste system became rigid. The Brahmins occupied the top ladder of the society. They were given enormous gifts by the rulers as well as other wealthy people. The practice of untouchability had slowly begun during this period. Fahien mentions that Chandalas were segregated from the society. Their miserable condition was elaborated by the Chinese traveler.
The position of women had also become miserable during the Gupta period. They were prohibited from studying the religious texts like the Puranas. The subjection of women to men was thoroughly regularized. But it was insisted that they should be protected and generously treated by men. The practice of Swyamvara was given up and the Manusmriti suggested the early marriage for girls.
The great Jain Council was held at Valabhi during this period and the Jain Canon of the Swetambras was written.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Baudhayanasūtras are a group of Vedic Sanskrit texts which cover dharma, daily ritual, mathematics, etc. They belong to the Taittiriya branch of the Krishna Yajurveda School and are among the earliest texts of the sutra genre, perhaps compiled in the 8th to 7th centuries BCE.
The Baudhāyana Śulbasûtra is noted for containing several early mathematical results, including an approximation of the square root of 2 and the statement of a version of the Pythagorean Theorem.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the unorthodox teachers of ancient times
- Purana Kassapa was an ‘Antinomian’.
- Makhali Gosala was the leader of the sect of Ajivikas.
- Pakudha Kathyayana was an atomist.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
In many passages of the Buddhist scriptures, we read of six unorthodox teachers, each of whom was the leader of an important body of ascetics and lay followers. In one passage of the Digha Nikaya short paragraphs are quoted that purport to give the basic tenets of their systems. A glance at these will give some impression of the diversity of the doctrines that were propagated by the ascetic groups of the time.
- The first of the teachers mentioned, Purana Kassapa, was an ‘antinomian’ who believed that virtuous conduct had no effect on a man’s karma.
- The second heretic, Makhali Gosala (Gosala Maskariputra), was the leader of the sect of Ajivikas, which survived for some two thousand years after the death of its founder.
- The third heterodox teacher, Ajita Kesakambalin, was a materialist. The passage in which his views are given is one of the earliest expressions of complete unbelief in immaterial categories in the history of world thought.
- Pakudha Kathyayana, the fourth of the six, was an atomist, a predecessor of the Hindu Vaisesika school, putting forward his theories probably a century or more before Democritus in Greece developed a similar doctrine of eternal atoms.
- The fifth teacher, Nigantha Nataputta (Nirgrantha Jnataputra). was none other than Vardhamana Mahavira, the leader of the sect of Jainas.
- The sixth and last, Sanjaya Balatthipura, was a sceptic, who denied the possibility of certain knowledge altogether.
Incorrect
Solution: D
In many passages of the Buddhist scriptures, we read of six unorthodox teachers, each of whom was the leader of an important body of ascetics and lay followers. In one passage of the Digha Nikaya short paragraphs are quoted that purport to give the basic tenets of their systems. A glance at these will give some impression of the diversity of the doctrines that were propagated by the ascetic groups of the time.
- The first of the teachers mentioned, Purana Kassapa, was an ‘antinomian’ who believed that virtuous conduct had no effect on a man’s karma.
- The second heretic, Makhali Gosala (Gosala Maskariputra), was the leader of the sect of Ajivikas, which survived for some two thousand years after the death of its founder.
- The third heterodox teacher, Ajita Kesakambalin, was a materialist. The passage in which his views are given is one of the earliest expressions of complete unbelief in immaterial categories in the history of world thought.
- Pakudha Kathyayana, the fourth of the six, was an atomist, a predecessor of the Hindu Vaisesika school, putting forward his theories probably a century or more before Democritus in Greece developed a similar doctrine of eternal atoms.
- The fifth teacher, Nigantha Nataputta (Nirgrantha Jnataputra). was none other than Vardhamana Mahavira, the leader of the sect of Jainas.
- The sixth and last, Sanjaya Balatthipura, was a sceptic, who denied the possibility of certain knowledge altogether.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Odissi Dance
- The style of Odissi is very similar to that of Bharatanatyam in its use of the basic movements of the head, hands and body.
- Odissi presents a dominance of Lasya and absence of Tandava forms.
- Temple dancers, known as Maharis, used to perform this traditional dance in the temples of Orissa.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Archaeological evidences suggest that Odissi is one of the oldest surviving dance forms.
- Temple dancers, known as Maharis, used to perform this traditional dance in the temples of Orissa as a religious rite and while offering to the deity.
- The style of Odissi is very similar to that of Bharatanatyam in its use of the basic movements of the head, hands and body.
- Odissi is a soft, lyrical classical dance which depicts the ambience of Orissa and the philosophy of its most popular deity, Lord Jagannath.
- It is built up on the popular devotion to Lord Krishna and uses the verses of the Sanskrit play Geet Govinda to depict the love and devotion to God.
- A typical performance includes the Mangalacharan (elaborate prayer routine) and ends with Moksha, or the surrender of the dancer to the divine.
- Odissi presents a fine fusion of Lasya (femininity) and Tandava (masculinity) forms of the Indian Classical Dance
- The dance numbers are either in Sanskrit or Oriya and the music is a combination of Hindustani and Carnatic classical styles.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Archaeological evidences suggest that Odissi is one of the oldest surviving dance forms.
- Temple dancers, known as Maharis, used to perform this traditional dance in the temples of Orissa as a religious rite and while offering to the deity.
- The style of Odissi is very similar to that of Bharatanatyam in its use of the basic movements of the head, hands and body.
- Odissi is a soft, lyrical classical dance which depicts the ambience of Orissa and the philosophy of its most popular deity, Lord Jagannath.
- It is built up on the popular devotion to Lord Krishna and uses the verses of the Sanskrit play Geet Govinda to depict the love and devotion to God.
- A typical performance includes the Mangalacharan (elaborate prayer routine) and ends with Moksha, or the surrender of the dancer to the divine.
- Odissi presents a fine fusion of Lasya (femininity) and Tandava (masculinity) forms of the Indian Classical Dance
- The dance numbers are either in Sanskrit or Oriya and the music is a combination of Hindustani and Carnatic classical styles.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsArrange the following chronologically from the earliest to latest.
- Dharmapala founded the Vikramasila University.
- Construction of the famous Brihadeesvara temple at Tanjore.
- Marco Polo visited India.
- First battle of Tarain
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
- 770- 810: Dharmapala, the greatest Pala, and founder of the Vikramasila University
- 985-1014: Reign of Rajaraja chola; construction of the famous Silva or Brihadeesvara temple at Tanjore
- 1191: First battle of Tarain and Prithviran’s victory over Muhammad
- 1288- 1293: Marco Polo (the Venetian traveller) in India
Incorrect
Solution: A
- 770- 810: Dharmapala, the greatest Pala, and founder of the Vikramasila University
- 985-1014: Reign of Rajaraja chola; construction of the famous Silva or Brihadeesvara temple at Tanjore
- 1191: First battle of Tarain and Prithviran’s victory over Muhammad
- 1288- 1293: Marco Polo (the Venetian traveller) in India
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding ‘Hindustani’ and ‘Carnatic’ music
- Both the styles are monophonic, follow a melodic line and employ a drone (tanpura).
- Unlike Hindustani music, Carnatic music does not adhere to time or samay concepts.
- Instead of thaats, Hindustani music follows the Melakarta concept.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Similarities and Differences between ‘Hindustani’ and ‘Carnatic’ music
- Although there are many similarities between the Hindustani and Carnatic music, there are a few differentiating features also.
- Both the styles are monophonic, follow a melodic line and employ a drone (tanpura) with the help of one or two notes against the melody.
- Definite scales are adopted by both the styles to define a raga but the Carnatic style employs srutis or semitones to create a raga and thus have many more ragas than the Hindustani style.
- Carnatic ragas more or less differ from Hindustani ragas, with their names also different in Hindustani and Carnatic music.
- Unlike Hindustani music, Carnatic music does not adhere to time or samay concepts.
Furthermore, instead of thaats, Carnatic music follows the Melakarta concept.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Similarities and Differences between ‘Hindustani’ and ‘Carnatic’ music
- Although there are many similarities between the Hindustani and Carnatic music, there are a few differentiating features also.
- Both the styles are monophonic, follow a melodic line and employ a drone (tanpura) with the help of one or two notes against the melody.
- Definite scales are adopted by both the styles to define a raga but the Carnatic style employs srutis or semitones to create a raga and thus have many more ragas than the Hindustani style.
- Carnatic ragas more or less differ from Hindustani ragas, with their names also different in Hindustani and Carnatic music.
- Unlike Hindustani music, Carnatic music does not adhere to time or samay concepts.
Furthermore, instead of thaats, Carnatic music follows the Melakarta concept.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Kitab-ul-Hind
- Ibn Batutta wrote this monumental work in order to acquaint his Ghaznavid ruler with Hinduism.
- It has quotes from Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra, the Bhagavad Gita and the Samkhya Karika to substantiate the assertions made in this work.
- Foreigners were regarded as mlechchhas.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Al-Birunì’s Kitab-ul-Hind
- He wrote his monumental Kitab fi tahqiq ma lil-Hind in order to acquaint his Ghaznavid ruler with Hinduism.
- Though he stayed in Ghazni and never visited centres of Brahmanic scholarship like Kanauj, Varanasi and Kashmir, he had infonnants in the form of a few Sanskrit scholars and educated merchants.
- He also quotes from Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra, the Bhagavad Gita and the Samkhya Karika to substantiate his assertions.
- Apart from providing a penetrating study of human relationships and cultural complexities in various faiths, he defines the Hindu colour divisions as tabaqat (classes) and the castes (jati) as birth divisions (nasab).
- According to him, below the Sudras were the antyaja or casteless, who were divided into eight guilds: fullers, shoe- makers, jugglers, basket and shield makers, sailors, fishermen, hunters and weavers. The Hadi, Doma and Chandala, who did the cleaning and scavenging were outcastes.
- Finally, foreigners were regarded as mlechchhas or unclean.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Al-Birunì’s Kitab-ul-Hind
- He wrote his monumental Kitab fi tahqiq ma lil-Hind in order to acquaint his Ghaznavid ruler with Hinduism.
- Though he stayed in Ghazni and never visited centres of Brahmanic scholarship like Kanauj, Varanasi and Kashmir, he had infonnants in the form of a few Sanskrit scholars and educated merchants.
- He also quotes from Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra, the Bhagavad Gita and the Samkhya Karika to substantiate his assertions.
- Apart from providing a penetrating study of human relationships and cultural complexities in various faiths, he defines the Hindu colour divisions as tabaqat (classes) and the castes (jati) as birth divisions (nasab).
- According to him, below the Sudras were the antyaja or casteless, who were divided into eight guilds: fullers, shoe- makers, jugglers, basket and shield makers, sailors, fishermen, hunters and weavers. The Hadi, Doma and Chandala, who did the cleaning and scavenging were outcastes.
- Finally, foreigners were regarded as mlechchhas or unclean.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsDirections for questions 26 and 27:
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre.D is fourth to the right of H and second to the left of B.
F is fourth to the right of B.
C is fourth to the right of E, who is not an immediate neighbour of B or D.
A is not an immediate neighbour of D.
In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons?
Correct
Solution: b
Justification:
Inference from statement 1: Clockwise: H _ B _ D
Inference from statement 2: Clockwise: F _ H _ B _ D
Inference from statement 3: Clockwise: F E H _ B C D _
Inference from statement 3: Clockwise: F E H A B C D G
Final arrangement:
Among the given options, D is sitting between G and C.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: b
Justification:
Inference from statement 1: Clockwise: H _ B _ D
Inference from statement 2: Clockwise: F _ H _ B _ D
Inference from statement 3: Clockwise: F E H _ B C D _
Inference from statement 3: Clockwise: F E H A B C D G
Final arrangement:
Among the given options, D is sitting between G and C.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsWhat is B’s position with respect to G?
Correct
Solution: a
Justification:
Refer the explanation for the previous question.
B sits third to the right of G or fifth to the left of G.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: a
Justification:
Refer the explanation for the previous question.
B sits third to the right of G or fifth to the left of G.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsP is the brother of Q and R. S is R’s mother. T is P’s father. Which of the following statements cannot be definitely true?
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsTraditional economic thinking has been centred on the pioneering work of Simon Kuznets who analysed income tax data of the US economy to study the relationship between growth and inequality. He observed an inverted-U shaped pattern: as an economy embarks on a high growth phase, inequality initially increases, reaches a peak and then starts declining. Based on this analysis, a society might have to bear some amount of inequality initially as it sets out on a high growth path. However, this thinking took a beating in the 1980s and 1990s, when the East Asian Tigers (Korea, Taiwan, Hong Kong and Singapore) achieved simultaneously high growth rates and falling inequality. From the late 1990s, even China was able to lower inequality while its growth rate surpassed all other countries. Recent literature in economics has tried to explain the East Asian experience using the intergenerational effects of human capital formation.
Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference from the above passage?
Correct
Ans. B.
A is wrong as it is the experience of Asian tigers. China another example of a country which has achieved growth with reduction in inequality might have followed a different growth trajectory. Hence B is correct as the experience of countries like China etc has belied our traditional economic theoris.
Incorrect
Ans. B.
A is wrong as it is the experience of Asian tigers. China another example of a country which has achieved growth with reduction in inequality might have followed a different growth trajectory. Hence B is correct as the experience of countries like China etc has belied our traditional economic theoris.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsAnthropologist Ruth Benedict popularised the distinction between a guilt-based culture and a shame-based culture. In a guilt culture, a person knows his behaviour is good or bad by what his conscience feels. People refrain from doing wrong things because they inherently recognise it to be wrong. The US, and much of Europe, would be examples of societies that have traditionally had a guilt-based culture.
In a shame-based culture, a person’s behaviour is often based not on moral perceptions of right and wrong, but on the risk of being caught doing wrong. Personal honour, and how others in the community, perceive an act is more important than individual values of right and wrong. ‘A thief is the one who gets caught,’ as the saying goes.
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- The passage seems to suggest that
Correct
Ans. D.
The passage is not suggesting any of it. The passage is simply explaining the distinction between shame based and guilt based culture without making any moral connotations.
Incorrect
Ans. D.
The passage is not suggesting any of it. The passage is simply explaining the distinction between shame based and guilt based culture without making any moral connotations.
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