INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the acting judge of High Court, consider the following statements:
- Chief Justice of India (CJI) can appoint a duly qualified person as an acting judge of a high court.
- An acting judge holds office until the permanent judge resumes his office
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The President can appoint duly qualified persons as additional judges of a high court for a temporary period not exceeding two years when: there is a temporary increase in the business of the high court; or there are arrears of work in the high court.
The President can also appoint a duly qualified person as an acting judge of a high court when a judge of that high court (other than the chief justice) is: unable to perform the duties of his office due to absence or any other reason; or appointed to act temporarily as chief justice of that high court.
An acting judge holds office until the permanent judge resumes his office. However, both the additional or acting judge cannot hold office after attaining the age of 62 years.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The President can appoint duly qualified persons as additional judges of a high court for a temporary period not exceeding two years when: there is a temporary increase in the business of the high court; or there are arrears of work in the high court.
The President can also appoint a duly qualified person as an acting judge of a high court when a judge of that high court (other than the chief justice) is: unable to perform the duties of his office due to absence or any other reason; or appointed to act temporarily as chief justice of that high court.
An acting judge holds office until the permanent judge resumes his office. However, both the additional or acting judge cannot hold office after attaining the age of 62 years.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Writ Jurisdictions, consider the following statements
- The writ jurisdiction of the high court is exclusive in the state.
- The writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Constitution has constituted the Supreme Court as the guarantor and defender of the fundamental rights of the citizens. The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo-warrento for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of the citizens and for any other purpose. The phrase ‘for any other purpose’ refers to the enforcement of an ordinary legal right
The writ jurisdiction of the high court (under Article 226) is not exclusive but concurrent with the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (under Article 32). It means, when the fundamental rights of a citizen are violated, the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the high court or the Supreme Court directly.
The writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. This is because, the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for any other purpose, and that is, it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Constitution has constituted the Supreme Court as the guarantor and defender of the fundamental rights of the citizens. The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo-warrento for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of the citizens and for any other purpose. The phrase ‘for any other purpose’ refers to the enforcement of an ordinary legal right
The writ jurisdiction of the high court (under Article 226) is not exclusive but concurrent with the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (under Article 32). It means, when the fundamental rights of a citizen are violated, the aggrieved party has the option of moving either the high court or the Supreme Court directly.
The writ jurisdiction of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme Court. This is because, the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights and not for any other purpose, and that is, it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWith reference to Representation of Peoples Act 1951, consider the following statements
- All the seats in the House of the People allotted to the States shall be filled by the persons chosen by direct election from parliamentary constituencies in the States.
- Every State to which only one seat is allotted shall form one parliamentary constituency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Representation of Peoples Act 1951:
- The Representation of People Act, 1951 is an act of Parliament of India to provide for the conduct of elections of the Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature of each State, the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of those Houses, the corrupt practices and other offences at or in connection with such elections and the decision of doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with such elections.
- The Act was enacted by the provisional parliament under Article 327 of Indian Constitution, before the first general election.
- All the seats in the House of the People allotted to the States shall be seats to be filled by persons chosen by direct election from parliamentary constituencies in the States.
- Every parliamentary constituency shall be a single member constituency.
Every State to which only one seat is allotted shall form one parliamentary constituency.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Representation of Peoples Act 1951:
- The Representation of People Act, 1951 is an act of Parliament of India to provide for the conduct of elections of the Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature of each State, the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of those Houses, the corrupt practices and other offences at or in connection with such elections and the decision of doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with such elections.
- The Act was enacted by the provisional parliament under Article 327 of Indian Constitution, before the first general election.
- All the seats in the House of the People allotted to the States shall be seats to be filled by persons chosen by direct election from parliamentary constituencies in the States.
- Every parliamentary constituency shall be a single member constituency.
Every State to which only one seat is allotted shall form one parliamentary constituency.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- African Union is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
- Asia continent has most number of countries than any other continent.
- Tropic of cancer passes Algeria, Niger and Libya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The African Union (AU) is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent. It was officially launched in 2002 as a successor to the Organisation of African Unity (OAU, 1963-1999).
Africa has more countries than any other continent. The continent of Africa consists of 54 sovereign states as well as three dependencies.
Tropic of Cancer Passes through:
- Algeria
- Niger
- Libya
- Egypt
- Saudi Arabia
- UAE (Abu Dhabi)
- Oman
- India
- Bangladesh
- Myanmar
- China
- Taiwan
- Mexico
- Bahamas
- Western Sahara (area claimed by Morocco; Sahrawi Arab Democratic Republic)
- Mauritania
- Mali
Incorrect
Solution: C
The African Union (AU) is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent. It was officially launched in 2002 as a successor to the Organisation of African Unity (OAU, 1963-1999).
Africa has more countries than any other continent. The continent of Africa consists of 54 sovereign states as well as three dependencies.
Tropic of Cancer Passes through:
- Algeria
- Niger
- Libya
- Egypt
- Saudi Arabia
- UAE (Abu Dhabi)
- Oman
- India
- Bangladesh
- Myanmar
- China
- Taiwan
- Mexico
- Bahamas
- Western Sahara (area claimed by Morocco; Sahrawi Arab Democratic Republic)
- Mauritania
- Mali
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following rivers flow in rift valley?
- Luni
- Damodar
- Tapi
- Betwa
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: C
Damodar River, Tapti and Naramada are major rivers that flow in the rift valley.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Damodar River, Tapti and Naramada are major rivers that flow in the rift valley.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding scheduled areas
- The Governor is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area.
- The executive power of the Centre extends to giving directions to the states regarding the administration of such areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The scheduled areas are treated differently from the other areas in the country because they are inhabited by ‘aboriginals’ who are socially and economically rather backward, and special efforts need to be made to improve their condition. Therefore, the whole of the normal administrative machinery operating in a state is not extended to the scheduled areas and the Central government has somewhat greater responsibility for these areas’. The various features of administration contained in the Fifth Schedule are as follows:
- Declaration of Scheduled Areas: The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
- Executive Power of State and Centre: The executive power of a state extends to the scheduled areas therein. But the governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas. He has to submit a report to the president regarding the administration of such areas, annually or whenever so required by the president. The executive power of the Centre extends to giving directions to the states regarding the administration of such areas.
3. Tribes Advisory Council: Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribes advisory council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes. It is to consist of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are to be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly. A similar council can also be established in a state having scheduled tribes but not scheduled areas therein, if the president so directs.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The scheduled areas are treated differently from the other areas in the country because they are inhabited by ‘aboriginals’ who are socially and economically rather backward, and special efforts need to be made to improve their condition. Therefore, the whole of the normal administrative machinery operating in a state is not extended to the scheduled areas and the Central government has somewhat greater responsibility for these areas’. The various features of administration contained in the Fifth Schedule are as follows:
- Declaration of Scheduled Areas: The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.
- Executive Power of State and Centre: The executive power of a state extends to the scheduled areas therein. But the governor has a special responsibility regarding such areas. He has to submit a report to the president regarding the administration of such areas, annually or whenever so required by the president. The executive power of the Centre extends to giving directions to the states regarding the administration of such areas.
3. Tribes Advisory Council: Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribes advisory council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes. It is to consist of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are to be the representatives of the scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly. A similar council can also be established in a state having scheduled tribes but not scheduled areas therein, if the president so directs.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Finance Commission
- The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are binding in nature.
- The Constitution of India envisages the Finance commission as the balancing wheel of fiscal federalism in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Finance Commission is required to make recommendations to the president of India on the following matters:
- The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds.
- The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the consolidated fund of India).
- The measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the state finance commission.
- Any other matter referred to it by the president in the interests of sound finance.
It must be clarified here that the recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Constitution of India envisages the Finance commission as the balancing wheel of fiscal federalism in India.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Finance Commission is required to make recommendations to the president of India on the following matters:
- The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds.
- The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the consolidated fund of India).
- The measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the state finance commission.
- Any other matter referred to it by the president in the interests of sound finance.
It must be clarified here that the recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only of advisory nature and hence, not binding on the government. It is up to the Union government to implement its recommendations on granting money to the states. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Constitution of India envisages the Finance commission as the balancing wheel of fiscal federalism in India.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding independence of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
- He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state.
- His salary is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court.
- He does not hold his office till the pleasure of the president.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independence of CAG:
- He is provided with the security of tenure. He can be removed by the president only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him.
- He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office.
- His salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament. His salary is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court.
- Neither his salary nor his rights in respect of leave of absence, pension or age of retirement can be altered to his disadvantage after his appointment.
- The conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and the administrative powers of the CAG are prescribed by the president after consultation with the CAG.
- The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances and pensions of persons serving in that office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to the vote of Parliament.
Further, no minister can represent the CAG in Parliament (both Houses) and no minister can be called upon to take any responsibility for any actions done by him.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independence of CAG:
- He is provided with the security of tenure. He can be removed by the president only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him.
- He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office.
- His salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament. His salary is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court.
- Neither his salary nor his rights in respect of leave of absence, pension or age of retirement can be altered to his disadvantage after his appointment.
- The conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and the administrative powers of the CAG are prescribed by the president after consultation with the CAG.
- The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances and pensions of persons serving in that office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are not subject to the vote of Parliament.
Further, no minister can represent the CAG in Parliament (both Houses) and no minister can be called upon to take any responsibility for any actions done by him.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWith reference to administrative reforms commissions, consider the following statements:
1. The recommendations given by ARC are binding on the government.
2. The first Administrative Reforms Commission was initially chaired by Shri Morarji R Desai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Solution: B
The First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) as a Commission of Inquiry was set up in January,1966, to examine the public administration of the country and make recommendation for reform and reorganisation when necessary, involving the following aspects:
- The machinery of the Government of India and its procedures or work
- The machinery for planning at all levels
- Centre- State relationships
- Financial administration
- Personnel administration
- Economic administration
- Administration at the State level
- District administration
- Agricultural administration and
- Problems of redress of citizens grievances.
The Administrative Reforms Commission was initially Chaired by Shri Morarji R Desai, MP, and later on Shri K.Hunmanthaiya, M.P became its chairman when Shri Morarji R Desai, MP, became the Deputy Prime Minister of India.
The recommendations given by ARC are advisory in nature. Government can either accept or reject the recommendations as they are non-binding.
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was constituted on 31.08,2005, as a Commission of Inquiry, under the Chairmanship of Shri Veerappa Moily for preparing a detailed blueprint for revamping the public administrative system.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) as a Commission of Inquiry was set up in January,1966, to examine the public administration of the country and make recommendation for reform and reorganisation when necessary, involving the following aspects:
- The machinery of the Government of India and its procedures or work
- The machinery for planning at all levels
- Centre- State relationships
- Financial administration
- Personnel administration
- Economic administration
- Administration at the State level
- District administration
- Agricultural administration and
- Problems of redress of citizens grievances.
The Administrative Reforms Commission was initially Chaired by Shri Morarji R Desai, MP, and later on Shri K.Hunmanthaiya, M.P became its chairman when Shri Morarji R Desai, MP, became the Deputy Prime Minister of India.
The recommendations given by ARC are advisory in nature. Government can either accept or reject the recommendations as they are non-binding.
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was constituted on 31.08,2005, as a Commission of Inquiry, under the Chairmanship of Shri Veerappa Moily for preparing a detailed blueprint for revamping the public administrative system.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Disaster Management Authority
- The NDMA consists of a chairperson and other members, not exceeding nine.
- It works under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the NDMA.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
National Disaster Management Authority
The Government of India, recognising the importance of disaster management as a national priority, had set up a High-Powered Committee in 1999 and a National Committee in 2001 after the Gujarat earthquake, to make recommendations on the preparation of disaster management plans and suggest effective mitigation mechanisms. However, after the Indian Ocean tsunami of 2004, the Government of India took a defining step in the legislative history of the country by enacting the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
The NDMA consists of a chairperson and other members, not exceeding nine. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the NDMA.
The other members are nominated by the chairperson of the NDMA. The chairperson of the NDMA designates one of the members as the vice-chairperson of the NDMA. The vice chairperson has the status of a Cabinet Minister while the other members have the status of a Minister of State.
The NDMA is the apex body for disaster management in the country. It works under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
Incorrect
Solution: D
National Disaster Management Authority
The Government of India, recognising the importance of disaster management as a national priority, had set up a High-Powered Committee in 1999 and a National Committee in 2001 after the Gujarat earthquake, to make recommendations on the preparation of disaster management plans and suggest effective mitigation mechanisms. However, after the Indian Ocean tsunami of 2004, the Government of India took a defining step in the legislative history of the country by enacting the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
The NDMA consists of a chairperson and other members, not exceeding nine. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the NDMA.
The other members are nominated by the chairperson of the NDMA. The chairperson of the NDMA designates one of the members as the vice-chairperson of the NDMA. The vice chairperson has the status of a Cabinet Minister while the other members have the status of a Minister of State.
The NDMA is the apex body for disaster management in the country. It works under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding All-India Services
- Any disciplinary action (imposition of penalties) against these officers can be taken by both the Central and state governments.
- Their salaries and pensions are met by the Central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The All-India Services Act of 1951 authorized the Central government to make rules in consultation with the state governments for the regulation of recruitment and service conditions of the members of all-India services. The members of these services are recruited and trained by the Central government but are assigned to different states for work. They belong to different state cadres; the Centre having no cadre of its own in this regard. They serve the Central government on deputation and after completing their fixed tenure they go back to their respective states. The Central government obtains the services of these officers on deputation under the well-known tenure system. It must be noted here that irrespective of their division among different states, each of these all-India services form a single service with common rights and status and uniform scales of pay throughout the country.
Their salaries and pensions are met by the states.
The all-India services are controlled jointly by the Central and state governments. The ultimate control lies with the Central government while the immediate control is vested in the state governments.
Any disciplinary action (imposition of penalties) against these officers can only be taken by the Central government.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The All-India Services Act of 1951 authorized the Central government to make rules in consultation with the state governments for the regulation of recruitment and service conditions of the members of all-India services. The members of these services are recruited and trained by the Central government but are assigned to different states for work. They belong to different state cadres; the Centre having no cadre of its own in this regard. They serve the Central government on deputation and after completing their fixed tenure they go back to their respective states. The Central government obtains the services of these officers on deputation under the well-known tenure system. It must be noted here that irrespective of their division among different states, each of these all-India services form a single service with common rights and status and uniform scales of pay throughout the country.
Their salaries and pensions are met by the states.
The all-India services are controlled jointly by the Central and state governments. The ultimate control lies with the Central government while the immediate control is vested in the state governments.
Any disciplinary action (imposition of penalties) against these officers can only be taken by the Central government.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsAnti-defection law is not invoked when
Correct
Solution: D
Disqualification
Members of Political Parties: A member of a House belonging to any political party becomes disqualified for being a member of the House, (a) if he voluntarily gives up his membership of such political party; or (b) if he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party without obtaining prior permission of such party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days. From the above provision it is clear that a member elected on a party ticket should continue in the party and obey the party directions.
Independent Members: An independent member of a House (elected without being set up as a candidate by any political party) becomes disqualified to remain a member of the House if he joins any political party after such election.
Nominated Members: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this disqualification.
Exceptions
The above disqualification on the ground of defection does not apply in the following two cases:
(a) If a member goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party. A merger takes place when two thirds of the members of the party have agreed to such merger.
(b) If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the House, voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or rejoins it after he ceases to hold that office. This exemption has been provided in view of the dignity and impartiality of this office. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Disqualification
Members of Political Parties: A member of a House belonging to any political party becomes disqualified for being a member of the House, (a) if he voluntarily gives up his membership of such political party; or (b) if he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party without obtaining prior permission of such party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days. From the above provision it is clear that a member elected on a party ticket should continue in the party and obey the party directions.
Independent Members: An independent member of a House (elected without being set up as a candidate by any political party) becomes disqualified to remain a member of the House if he joins any political party after such election.
Nominated Members: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this disqualification.
Exceptions
The above disqualification on the ground of defection does not apply in the following two cases:
(a) If a member goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party. A merger takes place when two thirds of the members of the party have agreed to such merger.
(b) If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the House, voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or rejoins it after he ceases to hold that office. This exemption has been provided in view of the dignity and impartiality of this office. Hence, option (d) is correct.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH)
- It is an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- It promotes communal harmony, fraternity and national integration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) was set up in 1992. It is an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Union Home Ministry. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It promotes communal harmony, fraternity and national integration.
The vision and mission of the NFCH are as follows:
Vision: India free from communal and all other forms of violence where all citizens especially children and youth live together in peace and harmony.
Mission: Promoting communal harmony, strengthening national integration and fostering unity in diversity through collaborative social action, awareness programs, reaching out to the victims of violence especially children, encouraging interfaith dialogue for India’s shared security, peace and prosperity.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The National Foundation for Communal Harmony (NFCH) was set up in 1992. It is an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Union Home Ministry. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It promotes communal harmony, fraternity and national integration.
The vision and mission of the NFCH are as follows:
Vision: India free from communal and all other forms of violence where all citizens especially children and youth live together in peace and harmony.
Mission: Promoting communal harmony, strengthening national integration and fostering unity in diversity through collaborative social action, awareness programs, reaching out to the victims of violence especially children, encouraging interfaith dialogue for India’s shared security, peace and prosperity.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- The governor is indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college same like president.
- The office of governor of a state is considered as an employment under the Central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The governor is neither directly elected by the people nor indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college as is the case with the president. He is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal.
As held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The governor is neither directly elected by the people nor indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college as is the case with the president. He is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal.
As held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsWith reference to State Council of Ministers, consider the following statements
- The salaries and allowances of ministers shall be determined by Governor.
- The advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall be inquired only by Supreme Court of India.
- The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the state Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The council of ministers in the states is constituted and function in the same way as the council of ministers at the Centre. The salaries and allowances of ministers shall be determined by the state legislature.
The advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any court.
The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the state Legislative Assembly.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The council of ministers in the states is constituted and function in the same way as the council of ministers at the Centre. The salaries and allowances of ministers shall be determined by the state legislature.
The advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any court.
The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the state Legislative Assembly.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs
List I List II
- National Aquatic Animal Dugong
- National Heritage Animal Cow
- National Tree Peepal tree
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
River Dolphin is the National Aquatic Animal of India. This mammal is also said to represent the purity of the holy Ganga as it can only survive in pure and fresh water. Platanista gangetica has a long pointed snout and also have visible teeth in both the upper and lower jaws.
India’s Environment Ministry has declared the elephant a National Heritage Animal in order to increase protective measures for the country’s nearly 29,000 elephants. “Declaring it the National Heritage Animal will give it due place as emblem of ecological sensitivity.
The national tree of India is the Banyan tree, designated formally as Ficus benghalensis.
Incorrect
Solution: D
River Dolphin is the National Aquatic Animal of India. This mammal is also said to represent the purity of the holy Ganga as it can only survive in pure and fresh water. Platanista gangetica has a long pointed snout and also have visible teeth in both the upper and lower jaws.
India’s Environment Ministry has declared the elephant a National Heritage Animal in order to increase protective measures for the country’s nearly 29,000 elephants. “Declaring it the National Heritage Animal will give it due place as emblem of ecological sensitivity.
The national tree of India is the Banyan tree, designated formally as Ficus benghalensis.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsThe salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the
Correct
Solution: B
The Salaries, Pension and Allowances of the Supreme Court Judges are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, whereas the Salaries and Allowances of the High Court Judges are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the States and the Pension is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Salaries, Pension and Allowances of the Supreme Court Judges are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India, whereas the Salaries and Allowances of the High Court Judges are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the States and the Pension is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsThe members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were
Correct
Solution: C
The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was 389 of which 292 were representatives of the provinces, 93 represented the princely states and four were from the chief commissioner provinces of Delhi, Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British Baluchistan.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was 389 of which 292 were representatives of the provinces, 93 represented the princely states and four were from the chief commissioner provinces of Delhi, Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British Baluchistan.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsThe purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish
Correct
Solution: D
The main purpose of the Directive Principle of State Policy listed in Part 4 of the Indian Constitution is to provide economic justice and to avoid the concentration of wealth in the hands of a few people.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The main purpose of the Directive Principle of State Policy listed in Part 4 of the Indian Constitution is to provide economic justice and to avoid the concentration of wealth in the hands of a few people.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsFoot-and-mouth disease in animals, a current epidemic in some parts of the world is caused by
Correct
Solution: D
A common children’s virus causing sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet. The condition is spread by direct contact with saliva or mucus.
Symptoms include fever, sore throat, feeling unwell, irritability and loss of appetite. The virus usually clears up on its own within 10 days. Pain medication may help to relieve symptoms.
Incorrect
Solution: D
A common children’s virus causing sores in the mouth and a rash on the hands and feet. The condition is spread by direct contact with saliva or mucus.
Symptoms include fever, sore throat, feeling unwell, irritability and loss of appetite. The virus usually clears up on its own within 10 days. Pain medication may help to relieve symptoms.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the IMF’s Managing Director:
- He/she is both Chairperson of the Executive Board and Head of IMF staff.
- He or she is appointed by the Executive Board for a renewable term of three years.
- The Executive Board may select a Managing Director by a majority of votes cast.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
According to the IMF’s Articles of Agreement, the Managing Director “shall be chief of the operating staff of the Fund and shall conduct, under the direction of the Executive Board, the ordinary business of the Fund. Subject to the general control of the Executive Board, he shall be responsible for the organization, appointment, and dismissal of the staff of the Fund.
He or she is appointed by the Executive Board for a renewable term of five years.
The Executive Board may select a Managing Director by a majority of votes cast. In the past, the Board has made such appointments by consensus.
Incorrect
Solution: C
According to the IMF’s Articles of Agreement, the Managing Director “shall be chief of the operating staff of the Fund and shall conduct, under the direction of the Executive Board, the ordinary business of the Fund. Subject to the general control of the Executive Board, he shall be responsible for the organization, appointment, and dismissal of the staff of the Fund.
He or she is appointed by the Executive Board for a renewable term of five years.
The Executive Board may select a Managing Director by a majority of votes cast. In the past, the Board has made such appointments by consensus.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following crops/plants is/are source of bio-fuels?
- Rapeseed
- Switchgrass
- Palm kernels
- Mustard
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Biofuel is a fuel that is produced through contemporary processes from biomass, rather than by the very slow geological processes involved in the formation of fossil fuels, such as oil.
In addition to sugarcane, soybean, corn, and wheat, crops such as canola/rapeseed, cotton, palm kernels, and even switchgrass are processed for biofuel generation around the world. Soybean, canola/rapeseed, sunflower, cottonseed, palm seed and palm kernel, corn, and mustard are common biofuel crops in India.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Biofuel is a fuel that is produced through contemporary processes from biomass, rather than by the very slow geological processes involved in the formation of fossil fuels, such as oil.
In addition to sugarcane, soybean, corn, and wheat, crops such as canola/rapeseed, cotton, palm kernels, and even switchgrass are processed for biofuel generation around the world. Soybean, canola/rapeseed, sunflower, cottonseed, palm seed and palm kernel, corn, and mustard are common biofuel crops in India.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The IMF releases Human Capital Index (HCI) as part of the World Economic Outlook (WEO)
- The Global wildlife Program (GWP) is a World-Bank led global partnership that promotes wildlife conservation and sustainable development
- The Urban Climate Change Resilience Trust Fund is administered by World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The World Bank releases Human Capital Index (HCI) as part of the World Development Report.
The Global wildlife Program (GWP) is a World-Bank led global partnership that promotes wildlife conservation and sustainable development by combatting illicit trafficking in wildlife.
The Urban Climate Change Resilience Trust Fund is a $150 million multi-donor trust fund (2013-2021) administered by Asian Development Bank (ADB) under the Urban Financing Partnership Facility.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The World Bank releases Human Capital Index (HCI) as part of the World Development Report.
The Global wildlife Program (GWP) is a World-Bank led global partnership that promotes wildlife conservation and sustainable development by combatting illicit trafficking in wildlife.
The Urban Climate Change Resilience Trust Fund is a $150 million multi-donor trust fund (2013-2021) administered by Asian Development Bank (ADB) under the Urban Financing Partnership Facility.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Bolivia and Uruguay are only landlocked countries in South America.
- Brazil shares border with all South American countries except Chile and Ecuador
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Bolivia is a landlocked country bordered by Brazil, Paraguay, Argentina, Chile, and Peru.
Paraguay is the only other landlocked country in South America.
Brazil shares border with all South American countries except Chile and Ecuador.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Lakshmana temple in Sirpur
- The temple stands on a high massive platform accessible by steps in the north and the south.
- The plan of the temple consists of a garbagriha, antarala and a mandapa.
- This temple is the only example of brick temple of ancient India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
SIRPUR TEMPLE
- The archaeological remains in and around Sirpur consist of both Hindu and Buddhist monuments in the form of temples and monasteries.
- Among them, the most well preserved magnificent temple is the east-facing Lakshmana temple built by Vasata, the mother of Mahasivagupta Balarjuna in the 7th century AD.
- The Lakshmana temple is located in the village Sirpur in Mahasmand district of Chhattisgarh at a distance of 90 km from the state capital of Raipur.
- Dedicated to Lord Vishnu, this brick temple stands on a high massive platform accessible by steps in the north and the south.
- The plan of the temple consists of a garbagriha, antarala and a mandapa.
- The mandapa now in ruins, was originally upheld by stone pillars in rows.
- The exquisitely carved doorframe depicts figures of Seshasayi Vishnu along with his other incarnations.
- This temple is one among the best examples of brick temples of ancient India.
Incorrect
Solution: B
SIRPUR TEMPLE
- The archaeological remains in and around Sirpur consist of both Hindu and Buddhist monuments in the form of temples and monasteries.
- Among them, the most well preserved magnificent temple is the east-facing Lakshmana temple built by Vasata, the mother of Mahasivagupta Balarjuna in the 7th century AD.
- The Lakshmana temple is located in the village Sirpur in Mahasmand district of Chhattisgarh at a distance of 90 km from the state capital of Raipur.
- Dedicated to Lord Vishnu, this brick temple stands on a high massive platform accessible by steps in the north and the south.
- The plan of the temple consists of a garbagriha, antarala and a mandapa.
- The mandapa now in ruins, was originally upheld by stone pillars in rows.
- The exquisitely carved doorframe depicts figures of Seshasayi Vishnu along with his other incarnations.
- This temple is one among the best examples of brick temples of ancient India.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsTraditionally Indian Islam has been greatly influenced by Sufi teachings and is, therefore, tolerant and accepting of religious diversity. Visitors to major Sufi shrines, such as those of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti in Ajmer and Nizamuddin Aulia in Delhi, where people of all confessions come to pray and seek blessings, can testify to the syncretic spirit of Indian Islam. Consequently, it harbors natural defenses against extremism in belief and practice. The ideological infiltration of Wahhabism/Salafism has eroded some of these defenses and made a section of Muslims more insular and, therefore, open to extremist ideas.
Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference of the passage?
Correct
Ans. C.
The passage focusses on explaining the impact that the extremist ideology of Wahhabism/Salafism has had on Indian Islam and the threat that it poses. The natural corollary is captured in option C. Option C is more specific as compared to D and hence is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Ans. C.
The passage focusses on explaining the impact that the extremist ideology of Wahhabism/Salafism has had on Indian Islam and the threat that it poses. The natural corollary is captured in option C. Option C is more specific as compared to D and hence is the correct answer.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsIn Plato’s Republic, there is the tale of the ‘Ring of Gyges’. Once you put the ring on, you’re invisible and anonymous. Plato asked whether those who put on the ring will be civil and moral. He did not think so. What are the ramifications of the ring of Gyges we all wear on the internet?
More than one hundred years ago, Gustave Le Bon in his book “The Crowd“—based on his experience with the Paris Commune of 1871 and the later period of social turmoil during the 1890s—expressed his belief that “isolated, the man may be a cultivated individual; in a crowd he is a barbarian”.
Which of the following option most accurately captures the problem being referred to in the passage?
Correct
Ans. C.
Both Gyges ring and the book discusses the perceived perils of anonymity and how it is believed that anonymity leads to human beings exhibiting antisocial behavior. Hence C.
Incorrect
Ans. C.
Both Gyges ring and the book discusses the perceived perils of anonymity and how it is believed that anonymity leads to human beings exhibiting antisocial behavior. Hence C.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsHow many degrees does an hour-hand move in 15 minutes?
Correct
Answer: Option B) 7.5°
Explanation:
In 12 hours the hour-hand moves 360°.
Hence, in 15 minutes it moves
(360/12)∗(15/60)° = 7.5°
Incorrect
Answer: Option B) 7.5°
Explanation:
In 12 hours the hour-hand moves 360°.
Hence, in 15 minutes it moves
(360/12)∗(15/60)° = 7.5°
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThe calendar for the year 1993 will be same for the year
Correct
Answer: A) 1999
Explanation:
NOTE :
Repetition of leap year ===> Add +28 to the Given Year.
Repetition of non leap year
Step 1 : Add +11 to the Given Year. If Result is a leap year, Go to step 2.
Step 2: Add +6 to the Given Year.
Solution :
Given Year is 1993, Which is a non leap year.
Step 1 : Add +11 to the given year (i.e 1993 + 11) = 2004, Which is a leap year.
Step 2 : Add +6 to the given year (i.e 1993 + 6) = 1999
Therefore, The calendar for the year 1993 will be same for the year 1999
Incorrect
Answer: A) 1999
Explanation:
NOTE :
Repetition of leap year ===> Add +28 to the Given Year.
Repetition of non leap year
Step 1 : Add +11 to the Given Year. If Result is a leap year, Go to step 2.
Step 2: Add +6 to the Given Year.
Solution :
Given Year is 1993, Which is a non leap year.
Step 1 : Add +11 to the given year (i.e 1993 + 11) = 2004, Which is a leap year.
Step 2 : Add +6 to the given year (i.e 1993 + 6) = 1999
Therefore, The calendar for the year 1993 will be same for the year 1999
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsPariniti ranked 17th from the top and 28th from the bottom among those who made it to the final round of Miss India Contest. 7 girls did not participate in the competition and 7 failed in the previous round. How many girls enrolled in the contest?
Correct
Correct Option: D
As given in the figure, there are 16 girls above Pariniti and 27 girls below her among the girls who went into the final round.
Total girls who made it to the final = 16 + Pariniti + 27 = 44
Therefore, total girls who enrolled in the contest = 44 + 7 + 7 = 58
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