INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ethylene oxide
- Ethylene oxide is a flammable colourless gas with a sweet odour.
- Ethylene oxide is used as a pesticide and a sterilizing agent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Ethylene oxide:
At room temperature, ethylene oxide is a flammable colourless gas with a sweet odour. It is used primarily to produce other chemicals, including antifreeze.
In smaller amounts, ethylene oxide is used as a pesticide and a sterilizing agent. The ability of ethylene oxide to damage DNA makes it an effective sterilizing agent but also accounts for its cancer-causing activity.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Ethylene oxide:
At room temperature, ethylene oxide is a flammable colourless gas with a sweet odour. It is used primarily to produce other chemicals, including antifreeze.
In smaller amounts, ethylene oxide is used as a pesticide and a sterilizing agent. The ability of ethylene oxide to damage DNA makes it an effective sterilizing agent but also accounts for its cancer-causing activity.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Artificial Intelligence
- It refers to computer programs that can learn from and make decisions based on data.
- It can analyse patient data and predict the likelihood of certain outcomes, such as hospital readmissions or disease progression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What is Artificial Intelligence?
Artificial intelligence (AI) refers to computer programs that can learn from and make decisions based on data. These programs are designed to perform tasks that typically require human intelligence, such as recognizing patterns, analysing images, and making predictions.
How can AI be used in Medicine?
Use Case Example Diagnostics Using machine learning algorithms to analyse medical images and predict the likelihood of certain conditions, such as cancer or heart disease Drug Discovery Using natural language processing algorithms to analyse scientific papers and identify potential drug targets e.g., a vaccine against COVID-19 Clinical Decision Support To analyse patient data and recommend the most effective treatments based on the patient’s medical history Telemedicine Using chatbots or virtual assistants to provide patients with personalized medical advice and support Predictive Analytics To analyse patient data and predict the likelihood of certain outcomes, such as hospital readmissions or disease progression Robotic Surgery To control robotic surgical instruments and improve surgical precision Personalised Medicine E.g., Israeli health-tech firm Genetika+ is using stem cell technology and artificial intelligence (AI) software to match antidepressants to patients and minimise side effects. Traditional Medicine E.g., The Ayush Grid aims to transform the Ayush sector using AI to provide efficient, holistic, affordable, and quality services to all through a secure and interoperable digital ecosystem Incorrect
Solution: C
What is Artificial Intelligence?
Artificial intelligence (AI) refers to computer programs that can learn from and make decisions based on data. These programs are designed to perform tasks that typically require human intelligence, such as recognizing patterns, analysing images, and making predictions.
How can AI be used in Medicine?
Use Case Example Diagnostics Using machine learning algorithms to analyse medical images and predict the likelihood of certain conditions, such as cancer or heart disease Drug Discovery Using natural language processing algorithms to analyse scientific papers and identify potential drug targets e.g., a vaccine against COVID-19 Clinical Decision Support To analyse patient data and recommend the most effective treatments based on the patient’s medical history Telemedicine Using chatbots or virtual assistants to provide patients with personalized medical advice and support Predictive Analytics To analyse patient data and predict the likelihood of certain outcomes, such as hospital readmissions or disease progression Robotic Surgery To control robotic surgical instruments and improve surgical precision Personalised Medicine E.g., Israeli health-tech firm Genetika+ is using stem cell technology and artificial intelligence (AI) software to match antidepressants to patients and minimise side effects. Traditional Medicine E.g., The Ayush Grid aims to transform the Ayush sector using AI to provide efficient, holistic, affordable, and quality services to all through a secure and interoperable digital ecosystem -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sangathan se Samriddhi
- It is a national campaign under Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav Samaveshi Vikaas.
- It aims to mobilize 10 crore women from vulnerable and marginalized rural households under the Self-Help Group (SHG) fold.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Sangathan se Samriddhi
About the Campaign:
- It is a national campaign under Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav Samaveshi Vikaas
- Aim: To mobilize 10 crore women from vulnerable and marginalized rural households under the Self-Help Group (SHG) fold.
- Currently, 9 crore women already part of the SHG movement
- Benefits: sharing by SHG champions, mobilizing eligible women, training new SHG members, reviving defunct SHGs, and opening SHG bank accounts
What are SHGs?
They are small informal groups of 10-20 individuals, mostly women from similar social and economic backgrounds, who come together to form a group for mutual support and help.
- SHGs encourage members to save regularly, and these savings are then pooled to provide loans to members for various purposes such as starting a small business, paying for their children’s education or medical expenses, etc.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Sangathan se Samriddhi
About the Campaign:
- It is a national campaign under Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav Samaveshi Vikaas
- Aim: To mobilize 10 crore women from vulnerable and marginalized rural households under the Self-Help Group (SHG) fold.
- Currently, 9 crore women already part of the SHG movement
- Benefits: sharing by SHG champions, mobilizing eligible women, training new SHG members, reviving defunct SHGs, and opening SHG bank accounts
What are SHGs?
They are small informal groups of 10-20 individuals, mostly women from similar social and economic backgrounds, who come together to form a group for mutual support and help.
- SHGs encourage members to save regularly, and these savings are then pooled to provide loans to members for various purposes such as starting a small business, paying for their children’s education or medical expenses, etc.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Multi Party Interim Appeal Arbitration Arrangement (MPIA)
- It was formed in 2020
- It is an alternative system for International Court of Justice.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Odisha is a mineral-rich state with over 96% of India’s chrome ore.
- Manganese is commonly used in the production of steel and other alloys due to its ability to improve the strength, toughness, and workability of these materials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Indian Bureau of Mines (IBM) has informed the Ministry of Steel and Mines that mining lease holders in Odisha are illegally transporting low-grade manganese ore from their mines.
Topic Information Previous reports Steel Ministry had alerted the Odisha Government (November 2022) about the under-reporting of grades of chromite and manganese ores. Also, the M. B. Shah Commission report on Illegal Mining had probed into the issue of irregularities in the mineral sector in the past, which put the extent of loss at ₹59,000 crores. Mines and Minerals Regulation and Development Act 1957 Empowers state government to make rules for preventing illegal mining, transportation, and storage of minerals. It is the responsibility of State Governments to establish the correct grade of mineral being dispatched. Mining resources in Odisha Odisha is a mineral-rich state with over 96% of India’s chrome ore, over 51% of bauxite reserve, over 33% of hematite iron ore, and over 43% of manganese. About Manganese Manganese is a silvery-Gray metal that is found in abundance in the Earth’s crust. It is commonly used in the production of steel and other alloys due to its ability to improve the strength, toughness, and workability of these materials. About IBM Indian Bureau of Mines (est. 1948; HQ: Nagpur) promotes the systematic and scientific development of mineral resources of the country both onshore and offshore. It collects a database of information on mines and minerals in the country to create a National Mineral Information Repository. Incorrect
Solution: C
The Indian Bureau of Mines (IBM) has informed the Ministry of Steel and Mines that mining lease holders in Odisha are illegally transporting low-grade manganese ore from their mines.
Topic Information Previous reports Steel Ministry had alerted the Odisha Government (November 2022) about the under-reporting of grades of chromite and manganese ores. Also, the M. B. Shah Commission report on Illegal Mining had probed into the issue of irregularities in the mineral sector in the past, which put the extent of loss at ₹59,000 crores. Mines and Minerals Regulation and Development Act 1957 Empowers state government to make rules for preventing illegal mining, transportation, and storage of minerals. It is the responsibility of State Governments to establish the correct grade of mineral being dispatched. Mining resources in Odisha Odisha is a mineral-rich state with over 96% of India’s chrome ore, over 51% of bauxite reserve, over 33% of hematite iron ore, and over 43% of manganese. About Manganese Manganese is a silvery-Gray metal that is found in abundance in the Earth’s crust. It is commonly used in the production of steel and other alloys due to its ability to improve the strength, toughness, and workability of these materials. About IBM Indian Bureau of Mines (est. 1948; HQ: Nagpur) promotes the systematic and scientific development of mineral resources of the country both onshore and offshore. It collects a database of information on mines and minerals in the country to create a National Mineral Information Repository. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsToque Macaque, sometime seen in the news, is endemic to
Correct
Solution: A
About Toque Macaques
The toque macaque is endemic to Sri Lanka and classified as Endangered (IUCN). It is reddish-brown-coloured. The most characteristic feature is the toque-like swirl of hair on its head top.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Dhara Mustard Hybrid (DMH-11)
- It was developed in Delhi University.
- It was created through transgenic technology, primarily involving the Bar, Barnase and Barstar gene systems.
- DMH-11 is claimed to have shown an average 28% yield increase over Varuna in contained field trials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Dhara Mustard Hybrid (DMH-11):
Dhara Mustard Hybrid- 11( DMH- 11), was developed by Deepak Pental of Delhi University, through transgenic technology, in 2002. DMH – 11 was created through transgenic technology, primarily involving the Bar, Barnase and Barstar gene systems.
- DMH-11 by crossing a popular Indian mustard variety ‘Varuna’ (the barnase line) with an East European ‘Early Heera-2’ mutant (barstar).
DMH-11 is claimed to have shown an average 28% yield increase over Varuna in contained field trials carried out by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
Incorrect
Solution: D
Dhara Mustard Hybrid (DMH-11):
Dhara Mustard Hybrid- 11( DMH- 11), was developed by Deepak Pental of Delhi University, through transgenic technology, in 2002. DMH – 11 was created through transgenic technology, primarily involving the Bar, Barnase and Barstar gene systems.
- DMH-11 by crossing a popular Indian mustard variety ‘Varuna’ (the barnase line) with an East European ‘Early Heera-2’ mutant (barstar).
DMH-11 is claimed to have shown an average 28% yield increase over Varuna in contained field trials carried out by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Securities and Exchange Board of India
- It was established on April 12, 2002.
- Its basic function is to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote and regulate the securities market.
- Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) constituted to protect the interest of entities that feel aggrieved by SEBI’s decision.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Securities and Exchange Board of India:
- It was established on April 12, 1992, in accordance with the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
- Its basic function is to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote and regulate the securities market.
- Structure: consists of a Chairman and several other whole time and part-time members.
- There exists Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) constituted to protect the interest of entities that feel aggrieved by SEBI’s decision.
- It has the same powers as vested in a civil court.
- Further, if any person feels aggrieved by SAT’s decision or order can appeal to the Supreme Court.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Securities and Exchange Board of India:
- It was established on April 12, 1992, in accordance with the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
- Its basic function is to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote and regulate the securities market.
- Structure: consists of a Chairman and several other whole time and part-time members.
- There exists Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) constituted to protect the interest of entities that feel aggrieved by SEBI’s decision.
- It has the same powers as vested in a civil court.
- Further, if any person feels aggrieved by SAT’s decision or order can appeal to the Supreme Court.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following states have achieved 100% tap water connections in rural areas?
- Haryana
- Goa
- Telangana
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Gujarat government has achieved 100% tap water connections in rural areas under the Jal Jeevan Mission, the state water resources and water supply minister said.
Other States/UTs which have achieved 100 per cent:
- Haryana
- Goa
- Telangana
- Dadra and Nagar Haveli
- Daman and Diu
- Puducherry
- Andaman, and Nicobar Island
Jal Jeevan Mission:
- Launched in 2019
- Supply 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.
- Implementation: It comes under Jal Shakti Ministry.
- Aims: It ensures functionality of existing water supply systems and water connections, water quality monitoring and testing as well as sustainable agriculture.
Salient features:
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Gujarat government has achieved 100% tap water connections in rural areas under the Jal Jeevan Mission, the state water resources and water supply minister said.
Other States/UTs which have achieved 100 per cent:
- Haryana
- Goa
- Telangana
- Dadra and Nagar Haveli
- Daman and Diu
- Puducherry
- Andaman, and Nicobar Island
Jal Jeevan Mission:
- Launched in 2019
- Supply 55 litres of water per person per day to every rural household through Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) by 2024.
- Implementation: It comes under Jal Shakti Ministry.
- Aims: It ensures functionality of existing water supply systems and water connections, water quality monitoring and testing as well as sustainable agriculture.
Salient features:
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Sandalwood spike diseases is caused by phytoplasma.
- Indian Sandalwood is a dry deciduous forest species native to China, India, Indonesia, Australia, and the Philippines
- It is listed as critically endangered species in IUCN Red List
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Sandalwood spike diseases:
- Cause: The disease is caused by phytoplasma — bacterial parasites of plant tissues — which are transmitted by insect vectors.
- Origin: the disease was first reported in Kodagu in 1899.
- Symptoms: The sandalwood trees dry up once affected by SSD. Leaves turn thin and yellow and no new leaves will sprout. Within four years, the tree dies.
- Treatment: As of now, no cure exists for the disease. Hence, the infected tree has to be cut to reduce the spread of the disease.
- Concerns: Every year about 1% to 5% of sandalwood trees are lost due to the disease.
- It could potentially wipe out the entire natural Sandalwood population if measures are not taken to prevent its spread.
- Measures needed: A study conducted by the Institute of Wood Science and Technology(IWST), Bangalore and Pune-based National Centre for Cell Sciences has recommended
- accreditation of commercial production of sandalwood seedlings through testing to ensure that the plants are free from SSD.
- It has also called for a paradigm shift in policies handling sandalwood seedlings.
About Sandalwood:
Indian Sandalwood is a dry deciduous forest species native to China, India, Indonesia, Australia, and the Philippines. Because it is strong and durable, S. album is mostly harvested for its timber. On IUCN Red List Status, it is Vulnerable. In India, it is also called “Chandan” and “Srigandha”. Sandalwood has a special place in Indian tradition where it is used from cradle to cremation.
In India, it is mostly grown in Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Bihar, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Sandalwood spike diseases:
- Cause: The disease is caused by phytoplasma — bacterial parasites of plant tissues — which are transmitted by insect vectors.
- Origin: the disease was first reported in Kodagu in 1899.
- Symptoms: The sandalwood trees dry up once affected by SSD. Leaves turn thin and yellow and no new leaves will sprout. Within four years, the tree dies.
- Treatment: As of now, no cure exists for the disease. Hence, the infected tree has to be cut to reduce the spread of the disease.
- Concerns: Every year about 1% to 5% of sandalwood trees are lost due to the disease.
- It could potentially wipe out the entire natural Sandalwood population if measures are not taken to prevent its spread.
- Measures needed: A study conducted by the Institute of Wood Science and Technology(IWST), Bangalore and Pune-based National Centre for Cell Sciences has recommended
- accreditation of commercial production of sandalwood seedlings through testing to ensure that the plants are free from SSD.
- It has also called for a paradigm shift in policies handling sandalwood seedlings.
About Sandalwood:
Indian Sandalwood is a dry deciduous forest species native to China, India, Indonesia, Australia, and the Philippines. Because it is strong and durable, S. album is mostly harvested for its timber. On IUCN Red List Status, it is Vulnerable. In India, it is also called “Chandan” and “Srigandha”. Sandalwood has a special place in Indian tradition where it is used from cradle to cremation.
In India, it is mostly grown in Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Bihar, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsHumpback Highway, sometime seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: A
Humpback Highway
Each year, an estimated 40,000 humpback whales leave the freezing waters of Antarctica on the world’s longest mammal migration.
They make their way up Australia’s east and west coasts to the tropics before returning, calves in tow, a couple of months later. However, they get caught up in the fishing gear nets and get injured or die.
Humpback whales (currently least concern at IUCN) were hunted to near extinction last century. Since bans on whaling, however, the local population has bounced back into the tens of thousands, experts say.
Named after the distinctive hump in front of their small dorsal fin, humpback whales often feed in large groups and are famous for their singing ability.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Humpback Highway
Each year, an estimated 40,000 humpback whales leave the freezing waters of Antarctica on the world’s longest mammal migration.
They make their way up Australia’s east and west coasts to the tropics before returning, calves in tow, a couple of months later. However, they get caught up in the fishing gear nets and get injured or die.
Humpback whales (currently least concern at IUCN) were hunted to near extinction last century. Since bans on whaling, however, the local population has bounced back into the tens of thousands, experts say.
Named after the distinctive hump in front of their small dorsal fin, humpback whales often feed in large groups and are famous for their singing ability.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Satellite Phone
- Satellite phones are directly connected to satellites around the world and do not depend on terrestrial mobile networks.
- Satellite phones usually cover most of the planet with fairly robust connectivity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What is a satellite phone?
A satellite phone is a telephone that can connect to orbiting satellites.
- Similar to terrestrial mobile phones, they can connect to voice and short messaging services as well as low bandwidth Internet access.
- Satellite phones can connect from anywhere as they are directly connected to satellites around the world and do not depend on terrestrial mobile networks.
- Satellite phones usually cover most of the planet with fairly robust connectivity.
Incorrect
Solution: C
What is a satellite phone?
A satellite phone is a telephone that can connect to orbiting satellites.
- Similar to terrestrial mobile phones, they can connect to voice and short messaging services as well as low bandwidth Internet access.
- Satellite phones can connect from anywhere as they are directly connected to satellites around the world and do not depend on terrestrial mobile networks.
- Satellite phones usually cover most of the planet with fairly robust connectivity.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation)
- The first of these satellites (IRNSS-1A) was launched in 2013 and the latest in 2018.
- It has global coverage.
- Satellites are placed in Geostationary or Geo-synchronous orbits
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
What is NavIC?
NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), or the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), is a constellation of seven satellites that can be used to track location.
It is akin to the American GPS, the European Galileo and the Russian GLONASS Navigation systems.
- The first of these satellites (IRNSS-1A) was launched in 2013 and the latest in 2018.
- Though available for use in mainland India as well as a range of 1,500 km around it, it isn’t in wide regular use in India primarily because mobile phones haven’t been made compatible to process its signals.
- The Indian government has been pressing manufacturers to add compatibility and has set a deadline of January 2023 but media reports suggest this is unlikely before 2025.
- Currently, NavIC satellites orbit the earth in a geostationary or geosynchronous (GEO) orbit or about 36,000 km from earth..
Incorrect
Solution: A
What is NavIC?
NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), or the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), is a constellation of seven satellites that can be used to track location.
It is akin to the American GPS, the European Galileo and the Russian GLONASS Navigation systems.
- The first of these satellites (IRNSS-1A) was launched in 2013 and the latest in 2018.
- Though available for use in mainland India as well as a range of 1,500 km around it, it isn’t in wide regular use in India primarily because mobile phones haven’t been made compatible to process its signals.
- The Indian government has been pressing manufacturers to add compatibility and has set a deadline of January 2023 but media reports suggest this is unlikely before 2025.
- Currently, NavIC satellites orbit the earth in a geostationary or geosynchronous (GEO) orbit or about 36,000 km from earth..
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding “office of profit”
- If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed an “office of profit”.
- It is defined in Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
What is an ‘office of profit’?
- If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed an “office of profit”.
- Disqualification: A person will be disqualified if he holds an office of profit under the central or state government, other than an office declared not to disqualify its holder by a law passed by Parliament or state legislature.
Incorrect
Solution: A
What is an ‘office of profit’?
- If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed an “office of profit”.
- Disqualification: A person will be disqualified if he holds an office of profit under the central or state government, other than an office declared not to disqualify its holder by a law passed by Parliament or state legislature.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Investigation Agency (NIA)
- It works under Prime Minister Office.
- It is an executive office.
- It can act against atomic and nuclear threats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Government of India Act, 1919
- It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country.
- It provided for the establishment of a public service commission.
- It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Government of India Act of 1919
On August 20, 1917, the British Government declared, for the first time, that its objective was the gradual introduction of responsible government in India.
The Government of India Act of 1919 was thus enacted, which came into force in 1921. This Act is also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India).
It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly).
It provided for the establishment of a public service commission. Hence, a Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 for recruiting civil servants.
It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorised the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Government of India Act of 1919
On August 20, 1917, the British Government declared, for the first time, that its objective was the gradual introduction of responsible government in India.
The Government of India Act of 1919 was thus enacted, which came into force in 1921. This Act is also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India).
It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly).
It provided for the establishment of a public service commission. Hence, a Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 for recruiting civil servants.
It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorised the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following features reveal the secular character of the Indian State
- The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion
- Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religiousaffairs
- All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of theirchoice
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
(a) The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
(b) The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
(c) The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws
(Article 14).
(d) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
(e) Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
(f) All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).
(g) Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs (Article 26).
(h) No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion (Article 27).
(i) No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State (Article 28).
(j) Any section of the citizens shall have the right to conserve its distinct language, script or culture (Article 29).
(k) All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice (Article 30).
(l) The State shall endeavor to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44).
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
(a) The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
(b) The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
(c) The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws
(Article 14).
(d) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
(e) Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
(f) All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).
(g) Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs (Article 26).
(h) No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion (Article 27).
(i) No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State (Article 28).
(j) Any section of the citizens shall have the right to conserve its distinct language, script or culture (Article 29).
(k) All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice (Article 30).
(l) The State shall endeavor to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44).
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognised byinternational law.
- Constitution authorizes the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas,boundaries or names of the existing states without state’s consent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognised by international law, i.e., cession (following treaty, purchase, gift, lease or plebiscite), occupation (hitherto unoccupied by a recognised ruler), conquest or subjugation.
Constitution authorises the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries or names of the existing states without state’s consent.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements are correct.
Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories according to the modes recognised by international law, i.e., cession (following treaty, purchase, gift, lease or plebiscite), occupation (hitherto unoccupied by a recognised ruler), conquest or subjugation.
Constitution authorises the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries or names of the existing states without state’s consent.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Constitution contains neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions regarding citizenship.
- If any foreign territory becomes a part of India, all persons of the territory shall become the citizens of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. However, it contains neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in this regard. It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950). It does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement.
It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.
If any foreign territory becomes a part of India, the Government of
India specifies the persons who among the people of the territory shall be the citizens of India. Such persons become the citizens of India from the notified date. For example, when Pondicherry became a part of India, the Government of India issued the Citizenship (Pondicherry) Order, 1962, under the Citizenship Act, 1955.Incorrect
Solution: A
The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. However, it contains neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in this regard. It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950). It does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement.
It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.
If any foreign territory becomes a part of India, the Government of
India specifies the persons who among the people of the territory shall be the citizens of India. Such persons become the citizens of India from the notified date. For example, when Pondicherry became a part of India, the Government of India issued the Citizenship (Pondicherry) Order, 1962, under the Citizenship Act, 1955. -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Article 11 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void.
- The term ‘untouchability’ has been defined in Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955
- Freedom of movement of prostitutes can be restricted on the ground
of public health and in the interest of public morals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void. In other words, it expressively provides for the doctrine of judicial review. This power has been conferred on the Supreme Court (Article 32) and the high courts (Article 226) that can declare a law unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.
The term ‘untouchability’ has not been defined either in the Constitution or in the Act. However, the Mysore High Court held that the subject matter of Article 17 is not untouchability in its literal or grammatical sense but the ‘practice as it had developed historically in the country’.
The Supreme Court held that the freedom of movement of prostitutes can be restricted on the ground of public health and in the interest of public morals. The Bombay High Court validated the restrictions on the movement of persons affected by AIDS.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void. In other words, it expressively provides for the doctrine of judicial review. This power has been conferred on the Supreme Court (Article 32) and the high courts (Article 226) that can declare a law unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.
The term ‘untouchability’ has not been defined either in the Constitution or in the Act. However, the Mysore High Court held that the subject matter of Article 17 is not untouchability in its literal or grammatical sense but the ‘practice as it had developed historically in the country’.
The Supreme Court held that the freedom of movement of prostitutes can be restricted on the ground of public health and in the interest of public morals. The Bombay High Court validated the restrictions on the movement of persons affected by AIDS.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsThis National Park is located in the tri-junction of three states. It is a part of a Biosphere Reserve. It has been declared as a Tiger Reserve. The National Park harbours tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf forests. Which is this National Park?
Correct
Solution: A
Mudumalai National Park is a national park in the Nilgiri Mountains in Tamil Nadu, south India. It covers 321 km2 at an elevation range of 850–1,250 m in the Nilgiri District and shares boundaries with the states of Karnataka and Kerala. A part of this area has been protected since 1940. The national park has been part of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve since 1986 and was declared a tiger reserve together with a buffer zone of 367.59 km2 in 2007. It receives an annual rainfall of about 1,420 mm and harbours tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf forests with 498 plant species, at least 266 bird species, 18 carnivore and 10 herbivore species. It is drained by the Moyar River and several tributaries, which harbour 38 fish species.
Mudumalai Tiger Reserve is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu state at the tri-junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Mudumalai National Park harbours tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf forests. Teak (Tectona grandis) and axlewood (Anogeissus latifolia) are the dominant tree species with a density of more than 105 trees/ha (42 trees/acre).
Incorrect
Solution: A
Mudumalai National Park is a national park in the Nilgiri Mountains in Tamil Nadu, south India. It covers 321 km2 at an elevation range of 850–1,250 m in the Nilgiri District and shares boundaries with the states of Karnataka and Kerala. A part of this area has been protected since 1940. The national park has been part of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve since 1986 and was declared a tiger reserve together with a buffer zone of 367.59 km2 in 2007. It receives an annual rainfall of about 1,420 mm and harbours tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf forests with 498 plant species, at least 266 bird species, 18 carnivore and 10 herbivore species. It is drained by the Moyar River and several tributaries, which harbour 38 fish species.
Mudumalai Tiger Reserve is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu state at the tri-junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Mudumalai National Park harbours tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf forests. Teak (Tectona grandis) and axlewood (Anogeissus latifolia) are the dominant tree species with a density of more than 105 trees/ha (42 trees/acre).
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsTemperature inversion most frequently occurs in:
Correct
Solution: A
The temperature inversion, also called thermal inversion, a reversal of the normal behaviour of temperature in the troposphere (the region of the atmosphere nearest Earth’s surface), in which a layer of cool air at the surface is overlain by a layer of warmer air.
Usually, the air near the surface of the Earth (lower troposphere) is warmer than the air above it, largely because the atmosphere is heated from below as solar radiation warms the Earth’s surface, which in turn then warms the layer of the atmosphere directly above it, e.g., by thermals (convective heat transfer)
Incorrect
Solution: A
The temperature inversion, also called thermal inversion, a reversal of the normal behaviour of temperature in the troposphere (the region of the atmosphere nearest Earth’s surface), in which a layer of cool air at the surface is overlain by a layer of warmer air.
Usually, the air near the surface of the Earth (lower troposphere) is warmer than the air above it, largely because the atmosphere is heated from below as solar radiation warms the Earth’s surface, which in turn then warms the layer of the atmosphere directly above it, e.g., by thermals (convective heat transfer)
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWhich one of the following countries does not has coastlines on Mediterranean Sea?
Correct
Solution: C
The region enclosing the Mediterranean Sea encompasses portions of three continents: Europe and its southern peninsulas to the north, southwestern Asia to the east, and the Maghreb region of northern Africa to the south. Overall, it is a densely populated region with an intricate political history involving many different ethnic groups. This has led to a complex and patchy political map. Today 21 countries, with surface areas from 2 km2 to 2.4 million km2, have coastlines on the Mediterranean Sea.
They are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia, and Turkey.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The region enclosing the Mediterranean Sea encompasses portions of three continents: Europe and its southern peninsulas to the north, southwestern Asia to the east, and the Maghreb region of northern Africa to the south. Overall, it is a densely populated region with an intricate political history involving many different ethnic groups. This has led to a complex and patchy political map. Today 21 countries, with surface areas from 2 km2 to 2.4 million km2, have coastlines on the Mediterranean Sea.
They are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia, and Turkey.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsNord Stream, a system of offshore natural gas pipelines is running under:
Correct
Solution: C
Nord Stream 2 — Nord Stream is a system of offshore natural gas pipelines in Europe, running under the Baltic Sea from Russia to Germany.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Bombogenesis/Bomb Cyclone:
- It is a mid-latitude cyclonethat intensifies rapidly
- Bomb cyclones form during winter
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
Context:
The US East Coast is bracing itself for a “bomb cyclone” (Nor’easter) that is on course to barrel in from the mid-Atlantic.
What is a Bomb Cyclone?
“Bombogenesis is the technical term. ‘Bomb cyclone’ is a shortened version of it, better for social media.”
- It is a mid-latitude cyclone that intensifies rapidly.
- It has low pressure at its center, weather fronts and an array of associated weather, from blizzards to severe thunderstorms to heavy precipitation.
When is it formed? Generally, a bomb cyclone happens when atmospheric pressure in the middle of the storm drops at least 24 millibars over 24 hours, quickly increasing in intensity. The lower the pressure, the stronger the storm.
How is it different from hurricanes?
- It essentially amounts to a rapidly developing storm system, distinct from a tropical hurricane because it occurs over midlatitudes where fronts of warm and cold air meet and collide, rather than relying on the balmy ocean waters of late summer as a catalyst.
- Bomb cyclones have cold air and fronts: Cold air rapidly weakens hurricanes, while it is an essential ingredient for bomb cyclones.
- Bomb cyclones form during winter: Hurricanes form from late spring to early fall, while bomb cyclones form from late fall to early spring.
- Bomb cyclones form at higher latitudes: Hurricanes form in tropical waters, while bomb cyclones form over the northwestern Atlantic, northwestern Pacific and sometimes the Mediterranean Sea.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Both the statements given above are correct.
Context:
The US East Coast is bracing itself for a “bomb cyclone” (Nor’easter) that is on course to barrel in from the mid-Atlantic.
What is a Bomb Cyclone?
“Bombogenesis is the technical term. ‘Bomb cyclone’ is a shortened version of it, better for social media.”
- It is a mid-latitude cyclone that intensifies rapidly.
- It has low pressure at its center, weather fronts and an array of associated weather, from blizzards to severe thunderstorms to heavy precipitation.
When is it formed? Generally, a bomb cyclone happens when atmospheric pressure in the middle of the storm drops at least 24 millibars over 24 hours, quickly increasing in intensity. The lower the pressure, the stronger the storm.
How is it different from hurricanes?
- It essentially amounts to a rapidly developing storm system, distinct from a tropical hurricane because it occurs over midlatitudes where fronts of warm and cold air meet and collide, rather than relying on the balmy ocean waters of late summer as a catalyst.
- Bomb cyclones have cold air and fronts: Cold air rapidly weakens hurricanes, while it is an essential ingredient for bomb cyclones.
- Bomb cyclones form during winter: Hurricanes form from late spring to early fall, while bomb cyclones form from late fall to early spring.
- Bomb cyclones form at higher latitudes: Hurricanes form in tropical waters, while bomb cyclones form over the northwestern Atlantic, northwestern Pacific and sometimes the Mediterranean Sea.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsGlobalization does need a language for global transaction. How do we define global language? Any language can merit the nomenclature of ‘global language’ provided it is used in many countries. Chinese, Hindi or Arabic did not become global languages as they are country or region/religion-specific. Spanish and French could have come close to being global languages, but they were eclipsed by English, thanks to the superior backing of British imperialism and advancing technology it had. English was already the language of administration, judiciary and education in most British colonies, but even so, imperialism by itself would perhaps not have catapulted English into being the language of global transaction but for the rise of the United States as a global power. This posited English as the international language of finance, politics and culture.
Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the above passage?
Correct
Ans. B.
The passage talks about how Globalization is linked to the acceleration of use of English as a global language. B and C are wrong as both B and C contributed to the rise of English as a global language, however it is primarily globalization and use of technology that catapulted English into the status that it enjoys today.
Incorrect
Ans. B.
The passage talks about how Globalization is linked to the acceleration of use of English as a global language. B and C are wrong as both B and C contributed to the rise of English as a global language, however it is primarily globalization and use of technology that catapulted English into the status that it enjoys today.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThere is a need to capture the space created by trade protection measures adopted globally, particularly by the United States and China. We should focus on exporting to the US such products whose imports from China (and other countries) have been recently subjected to higher tariffs. Simultaneously, specific companies should be attracted to make products in India through foreign direct investment, joint ventures, technology transfers and value chains for further export to the US (and other countries) to benefit from a favorable tariff regime.
Which of the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the above passage?
Correct
Ans. C.
The passage highlights the opportunity that presents itself before India as a result of trade war going on between US and China which India can leverage to its own advantage. The passage is not focused on the impact of FDI, nor on the harm that the trade war has caused to the global economy or the two nations involved. Hence C is the most accurate answer.
Incorrect
Ans. C.
The passage highlights the opportunity that presents itself before India as a result of trade war going on between US and China which India can leverage to its own advantage. The passage is not focused on the impact of FDI, nor on the harm that the trade war has caused to the global economy or the two nations involved. Hence C is the most accurate answer.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsHow many times are the hands of a clock at right angle in 12 hours?
Correct
Answer: Option A) 22
Explanation:
In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times.
In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times.
Incorrect
Answer: Option A) 22
Explanation:
In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times.
In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsVeer Das ranks 7th from the top and 28th from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class?
Correct
Correct Option: C
As seen in the figure, Veer Das’s position is 7th from the top and 28th from the bottom.
Therefore, total number of students = 6 + Veer Das + 27 = 34
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsToday is Monday. After 61 days, it will be :
Correct
- D) Saturday
Explanation:
Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days. So, after 63 days, it will be Monday.
After 61 days, it will be Saturday.
Incorrect
- D) Saturday
Explanation:
Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days. So, after 63 days, it will be Monday.
After 61 days, it will be Saturday.
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