INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsNational Security Strategy (NSS), sometime seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: D
The United States has launched its National Security Strategy (NSS).
- All U.S. Presidents are mandated by the Goldwater-Nichols Department of Defense Reorganization Act of 1986 to bring out their NSS and to communicate the executive’s vision of national security to the legislative.
What does NSS reflect?
- National security agenda: How the government of the day views the national security agenda.
- NSS also gives Congress an opportunity to assess the cost that the country will have to bear.
- Also, areas of investment to achieve the nation’s security goals.
- Inform the U.S. Department of Defense’s strategy about the country’s nuclear posture and missile defence.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The United States has launched its National Security Strategy (NSS).
- All U.S. Presidents are mandated by the Goldwater-Nichols Department of Defense Reorganization Act of 1986 to bring out their NSS and to communicate the executive’s vision of national security to the legislative.
What does NSS reflect?
- National security agenda: How the government of the day views the national security agenda.
- NSS also gives Congress an opportunity to assess the cost that the country will have to bear.
- Also, areas of investment to achieve the nation’s security goals.
- Inform the U.S. Department of Defense’s strategy about the country’s nuclear posture and missile defence.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Chhath Puja
- It is dedicated to Surya and Shasthi Devi
- It is primarily observed in Southern States of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Chhath Puja, an ancient Hindu Vedic festival, is dedicated to the solar deity Surya and Shashthi Devi.
- Thanking them for bestowing life on earth, as part of the tradition, women (and some men too) fast for the well-being of their sons and the happiness of their families.
- Chhath Puja is also known as Pratihar, Dala Chhath, Chhathi and Surya Shashthi.
- Primarily observed in the states of Bihar, Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh and even in
- Festival period: worshipping of the Sun God spans four days.
Significance: Interestingly, this four-day festival does not involve idolatry. Devotees believe that the main sources of the sun’s powers are his wives, Usha and Pratyusha.
- Hence, Chhath involves combined worship of both powers along with the Sun.
- The festival finds a mention in both epics, Ramayana and Mahabharata.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Chhath Puja, an ancient Hindu Vedic festival, is dedicated to the solar deity Surya and Shashthi Devi.
- Thanking them for bestowing life on earth, as part of the tradition, women (and some men too) fast for the well-being of their sons and the happiness of their families.
- Chhath Puja is also known as Pratihar, Dala Chhath, Chhathi and Surya Shashthi.
- Primarily observed in the states of Bihar, Jharkhand and Uttar Pradesh and even in
- Festival period: worshipping of the Sun God spans four days.
Significance: Interestingly, this four-day festival does not involve idolatry. Devotees believe that the main sources of the sun’s powers are his wives, Usha and Pratyusha.
- Hence, Chhath involves combined worship of both powers along with the Sun.
- The festival finds a mention in both epics, Ramayana and Mahabharata.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Pasumpon Muthuramalinga Thevar
- He did not accept traditional Hinduism because it supported the ‘Varnashrama’
- Thevar became a full-time member of the Congress party and attended the 1927 Congress session at Madras
- He became a close aide of Mahatma Gandhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Pasumpon Muthuramalinga Thevar
- Born on October 30, 1908, in Pasumpon in the Ramanathapuram district of Tamil Nadu, he was a freedom-fighter cum spiritual leader and was seen as a deity among the Mukulathor community.
- He did not accept traditional Hinduism because it supported the ‘Varnashrama’.
- He regularly fought against the evils of the Hindu religion.
- Membership of congress: Thevar became a full-time member of the Congress party and attended the 1927 Congress session at Madras as a volunteer when he was just 19.
- Aide of Netaji: He became a close aide of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose.
- He was elected three times to the national parliamentary constituency of the All India Forward Bloc.
- He supported the temple entry movement and he helped the activist Vaidyanatha Iyer take Dalits to Meenakshi Temple in Madurai.
- He was instrumental in getting the Criminal Tribes act repealed after continuous efforts in 1946.
- Criminal Tribes Act criminalized entire communities by designating them as habitual criminals.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Pasumpon Muthuramalinga Thevar
- Born on October 30, 1908, in Pasumpon in the Ramanathapuram district of Tamil Nadu, he was a freedom-fighter cum spiritual leader and was seen as a deity among the Mukulathor community.
- He did not accept traditional Hinduism because it supported the ‘Varnashrama’.
- He regularly fought against the evils of the Hindu religion.
- Membership of congress: Thevar became a full-time member of the Congress party and attended the 1927 Congress session at Madras as a volunteer when he was just 19.
- Aide of Netaji: He became a close aide of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose.
- He was elected three times to the national parliamentary constituency of the All India Forward Bloc.
- He supported the temple entry movement and he helped the activist Vaidyanatha Iyer take Dalits to Meenakshi Temple in Madurai.
- He was instrumental in getting the Criminal Tribes act repealed after continuous efforts in 1946.
- Criminal Tribes Act criminalized entire communities by designating them as habitual criminals.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
- He was one of the main leaders of Kheda Satyagraha
- He was appointed as the 49th President of the Indian National Congress
- He was a major driving force behind the liberal industrial policy resolution of 1948
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
- Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel (31 October 1875 – 15 December 1950), popularly known as Sardar Patel, was the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home minister of India.
- He was one of the main leaders of Kheda Satyagraha (1918) and Bardoli Satyagraha (1928).
- The women of Bardoli gave him the title of “Sardar”.
- He was appointed as the 49th President of the Indian National Congress, organising the party for elections in 1934 and 1937 while promoting the Quit India Movement.
- For his commitment to national integration, he is known as the “Iron Man of India”.
- He is also remembered as the “patron saint of India’s civil servants” for having established modern all-India services.
- The Statue of Unity, the world’s tallest statue, was dedicated to him on 31 October 2018 and is approximately 182 metres (597 ft) in height.
- He was a major driving force behind the liberal industrial policy resolution of 1948.
- He headed the following committee of the Constituent Assembly:
- Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights.
- Committee on Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas.
- Provincial Constitution
- In 2014, the Government of India decided to celebrate the birthday of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel as “National Unity Day” to honour Sardar Patel’s contribution to integrated India.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
- Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel (31 October 1875 – 15 December 1950), popularly known as Sardar Patel, was the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home minister of India.
- He was one of the main leaders of Kheda Satyagraha (1918) and Bardoli Satyagraha (1928).
- The women of Bardoli gave him the title of “Sardar”.
- He was appointed as the 49th President of the Indian National Congress, organising the party for elections in 1934 and 1937 while promoting the Quit India Movement.
- For his commitment to national integration, he is known as the “Iron Man of India”.
- He is also remembered as the “patron saint of India’s civil servants” for having established modern all-India services.
- The Statue of Unity, the world’s tallest statue, was dedicated to him on 31 October 2018 and is approximately 182 metres (597 ft) in height.
- He was a major driving force behind the liberal industrial policy resolution of 1948.
- He headed the following committee of the Constituent Assembly:
- Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights.
- Committee on Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas.
- Provincial Constitution
- In 2014, the Government of India decided to celebrate the birthday of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel as “National Unity Day” to honour Sardar Patel’s contribution to integrated India.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding IT Rules, 2021
- The rules have made it explicit for the intermediary to respect the rights accorded to the citizens under Articles 14, 19 and 21.
- Grievance Appellate Committee will be established to allow users to appeal against the inaction or decisions taken by intermediaries on user complaints.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Ministry of Electronics and IT notified amendments to IT Rules, 2021 aimed at protecting the rights of Digital Nagriks (citizens).
- Towards an Open, Safe & Trusted and Accountable Internet
Key Amendments:
- Legal obligation on intermediaries: Take reasonable efforts to prevent users from uploading content that intentionally communicates any misinformation or information that is patently false or untrue.
- 72-hour time frame for content removal instead of 24 hours.
- Regional languages: For effective communication of the rules and regulations of the intermediary, communication should be done in regional Indian languages as well.
- Removing the words ‘defamatory’ and libellous.
- Whether any content is defamatory or libellous will be determined through judicial review.
- To deal particularly with misinformation, and content that could incite violence between different religious/caste groups.
- Respect rights: The rules have made it explicit for the intermediary to respect the rights accorded to the citizens under Articles 14, 19 and 21.
- Grievance Appellate Committee(s):
- It will be established to allow users to appeal against the inaction or decisions taken by intermediaries on user complaints.
- Users have the right to approach courts for any remedy.
- The appellate committee shall consist of:
- A chairperson
- Two whole-time members appointed by the Center
One shall be a member ex-officio and two shall be independent members
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Ministry of Electronics and IT notified amendments to IT Rules, 2021 aimed at protecting the rights of Digital Nagriks (citizens).
- Towards an Open, Safe & Trusted and Accountable Internet
Key Amendments:
- Legal obligation on intermediaries: Take reasonable efforts to prevent users from uploading content that intentionally communicates any misinformation or information that is patently false or untrue.
- 72-hour time frame for content removal instead of 24 hours.
- Regional languages: For effective communication of the rules and regulations of the intermediary, communication should be done in regional Indian languages as well.
- Removing the words ‘defamatory’ and libellous.
- Whether any content is defamatory or libellous will be determined through judicial review.
- To deal particularly with misinformation, and content that could incite violence between different religious/caste groups.
- Respect rights: The rules have made it explicit for the intermediary to respect the rights accorded to the citizens under Articles 14, 19 and 21.
- Grievance Appellate Committee(s):
- It will be established to allow users to appeal against the inaction or decisions taken by intermediaries on user complaints.
- Users have the right to approach courts for any remedy.
- The appellate committee shall consist of:
- A chairperson
- Two whole-time members appointed by the Center
One shall be a member ex-officio and two shall be independent members
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsUniform Civil Code is enshrined in which of the following part of the constitution?
Correct
Solution: D
What is Uniform Civil Code?
UCC is one that would provide for one law for the entire country, applicable to all religious communities in their personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption etc.
Constitutional direction regarding UCC:
Article 44 of the Constitution lays down that the state shall endeavour to secure a UCC for the citizens throughout the territory of India.
The term, ‘Uniform Civil Code’ is explicitly mentioned in Part 4, Article 44 of the Indian Constitution. Article 44 says, “The State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.”
Incorrect
Solution: D
What is Uniform Civil Code?
UCC is one that would provide for one law for the entire country, applicable to all religious communities in their personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption etc.
Constitutional direction regarding UCC:
Article 44 of the Constitution lays down that the state shall endeavour to secure a UCC for the citizens throughout the territory of India.
The term, ‘Uniform Civil Code’ is explicitly mentioned in Part 4, Article 44 of the Indian Constitution. Article 44 says, “The State shall endeavor to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.”
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWorld Energy Outlook 2022, sometime seen in the news, is released by which of the following organisation?
Correct
Solution: D
Key highlights: World Energy Outlook 2022
Russia supplied 40 per cent of Europe’s natural gas, mostly via pipelines.
Due to ongoing geopolitical tensions, Russia’s share of internationally traded natural gas may drop from 30 per cent in 2021 to 15 per cent in 2030
Fall in natural gas demand: Natural gas demand is expected to be 750 billion cubic metres lower than it is today by 2050, driven by a switch from natural gas to renewables.
Reduction in oil demand: Oil currently comprises 80 per cent of the global energy mix, but it may drop to 75 per cent by 2030 and around 60 per cent by 2050
The demand for fossil fuels is expected to decline by 2030.
World Energy Outlook: It is released by the International Energy Agency annually. It presents detailed projections of energy demand, production, trade and investment, fuel by fuel and region by region.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Key highlights: World Energy Outlook 2022
Russia supplied 40 per cent of Europe’s natural gas, mostly via pipelines.
Due to ongoing geopolitical tensions, Russia’s share of internationally traded natural gas may drop from 30 per cent in 2021 to 15 per cent in 2030
Fall in natural gas demand: Natural gas demand is expected to be 750 billion cubic metres lower than it is today by 2050, driven by a switch from natural gas to renewables.
Reduction in oil demand: Oil currently comprises 80 per cent of the global energy mix, but it may drop to 75 per cent by 2030 and around 60 per cent by 2050
The demand for fossil fuels is expected to decline by 2030.
World Energy Outlook: It is released by the International Energy Agency annually. It presents detailed projections of energy demand, production, trade and investment, fuel by fuel and region by region.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding International Energy Agency
- It was established in 1974 as per the framework of World Economic Forum
- It has 30 members at present.
- India is an associate member of it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
International Energy Agency (IEA): Established in 1974 as per the framework of the OECD, IEA is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation, which aims to ensure reliable, affordable and clean energy for its member countries and beyond.
Composition: It has 30 members at present. The IEA family also includes eight association countries (including India). A candidate country must be a member country of the OECD.
Reports:
- Global Energy & CO2 Status Report.
- World Energy Outlook
- World Energy Statistics
- World Energy Balances.
- Energy Technology Perspectives.
Incorrect
Solution: B
International Energy Agency (IEA): Established in 1974 as per the framework of the OECD, IEA is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation, which aims to ensure reliable, affordable and clean energy for its member countries and beyond.
Composition: It has 30 members at present. The IEA family also includes eight association countries (including India). A candidate country must be a member country of the OECD.
Reports:
- Global Energy & CO2 Status Report.
- World Energy Outlook
- World Energy Statistics
- World Energy Balances.
- Energy Technology Perspectives.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Steel Production in India
- India has set a target to double the crude steel production capacity from 154 MT per annum now to 300 MT per annum in the next 9-10 years.
- Contribution of public sector is greater than private sector in the overall contribution for the production of steel.
- Assam is the leading producer of steel in India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Indian Steel Industry Is World’s Second Largest
According to the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT):
- The total steel production capacity of the country at present is 154 million tons (MT).
- India produced 10.14 MT of crude steel in April 2022, making it the second-largest producer in the world.
- India has set a target to double the crude steel production capacity from 154 MT per annum now to 300 MT per annum in the next 9-10 years in an order to boost indigenous capabilities.
Figure: State-wise Steel Production India – 2019
Incorrect
Solution: D
Indian Steel Industry Is World’s Second Largest
According to the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT):
- The total steel production capacity of the country at present is 154 million tons (MT).
- India produced 10.14 MT of crude steel in April 2022, making it the second-largest producer in the world.
- India has set a target to double the crude steel production capacity from 154 MT per annum now to 300 MT per annum in the next 9-10 years in an order to boost indigenous capabilities.
Figure: State-wise Steel Production India – 2019
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsGlobal Climate Observing System (GCOS), sometime seen in the news, is co-sponsored by
- World Meteorological Organization
- International Science Council
- Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of UNESCO
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Global Climate Observing System (GCOS) conference
GCOS conference was hosted by Exploitation of Meteorological Satellites (EUMETSAT). The Global Climate Observing System was established in 1992 as an outcome of the Second World Climate Conference.
- Objectives: To ensure that the observations and information needed to address climate-related issues are obtained and made available to all potential users.
The Global Climate Observing System (GCOS) is a co-sponsored programme which regularly assesses the status of global climate observations and produces guidance for its improvement.
It is co-sponsored by the
- World Meteorological Organization (WMO),
- Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of UNESCO (IOC-UNESCO),
- United Nations Environment Programme (UN Environment), and
- International Science Council (ISC).
GCOS expert panels maintain definitions of Essential Climate Variables (ECVs). They identify gaps by comparing the existing climate observation system with these ECVs. ECVs are the observations required to systematically observe Earth`s changing climate. The expert panels regularly develop plans on how to sustain, coordinate and improve physical, chemical and biological observations.
The observations supported by GCOS contribute to solving challenges in climate research and also underpin climate services and adaptation measures.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Global Climate Observing System (GCOS) conference
GCOS conference was hosted by Exploitation of Meteorological Satellites (EUMETSAT). The Global Climate Observing System was established in 1992 as an outcome of the Second World Climate Conference.
- Objectives: To ensure that the observations and information needed to address climate-related issues are obtained and made available to all potential users.
The Global Climate Observing System (GCOS) is a co-sponsored programme which regularly assesses the status of global climate observations and produces guidance for its improvement.
It is co-sponsored by the
- World Meteorological Organization (WMO),
- Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of UNESCO (IOC-UNESCO),
- United Nations Environment Programme (UN Environment), and
- International Science Council (ISC).
GCOS expert panels maintain definitions of Essential Climate Variables (ECVs). They identify gaps by comparing the existing climate observation system with these ECVs. ECVs are the observations required to systematically observe Earth`s changing climate. The expert panels regularly develop plans on how to sustain, coordinate and improve physical, chemical and biological observations.
The observations supported by GCOS contribute to solving challenges in climate research and also underpin climate services and adaptation measures.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gangetic Dolphins
- It is protected under Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
- It is a reliable indicator of the health of the entire river
- The global population of the Ganges Dolphin is estimated at around 4,000, and nearly 80% are found in the Indian subcontinent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Dolphins have started coming back to the Ganga river with improvement in the quality of its water through the Namami Gange Programme
- At present, the population of dolphins in Ganga in Uttar Pradesh is estimated to be around 600
Gangetic Dolphins
- Protection Status: Dolphins have been included in Schedule I of the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972, in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES), in Appendix II of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS).
- IUCN Status: Endangered
- They are also one among the 22 species identified under the centrally sponsored scheme, “Development of Wildlife Habitat”.
- Characteristic features: The Gangetic river dolphins can only live in freshwater, are blind and catch their prey in a unique manner, using ultrasonic sound waves.
- Distribution: Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.
- Habitat: They live in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh.
- Significance: It is a reliable indicator of the health of the entire river
- The global population of the Ganges Dolphin is estimated at around 4,000, and nearly 80% are found in the Indian subcontinent.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Dolphins have started coming back to the Ganga river with improvement in the quality of its water through the Namami Gange Programme
- At present, the population of dolphins in Ganga in Uttar Pradesh is estimated to be around 600
Gangetic Dolphins
- Protection Status: Dolphins have been included in Schedule I of the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act 1972, in Appendix I of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES), in Appendix II of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS).
- IUCN Status: Endangered
- They are also one among the 22 species identified under the centrally sponsored scheme, “Development of Wildlife Habitat”.
- Characteristic features: The Gangetic river dolphins can only live in freshwater, are blind and catch their prey in a unique manner, using ultrasonic sound waves.
- Distribution: Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.
- Habitat: They live in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh.
- Significance: It is a reliable indicator of the health of the entire river
- The global population of the Ganges Dolphin is estimated at around 4,000, and nearly 80% are found in the Indian subcontinent.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsCurcumin, sometime seen in the news, can
Correct
Solution: A
Curcumin:
It is a yellow pigment found primarily in turmeric. It is a polyphenol compound with anti-inflammatory properties and allegedly has the ability to increase the number of antioxidants that the body produces.
Till now clinical research has not confirmed any medical use for Curcumin in humans. However, it is commonly used in Ayurvedic prescriptions. Apart from medicine, it is used as a flavouring as well as for colouring agent in foods.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Curcumin:
It is a yellow pigment found primarily in turmeric. It is a polyphenol compound with anti-inflammatory properties and allegedly has the ability to increase the number of antioxidants that the body produces.
Till now clinical research has not confirmed any medical use for Curcumin in humans. However, it is commonly used in Ayurvedic prescriptions. Apart from medicine, it is used as a flavouring as well as for colouring agent in foods.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Spectrum
- Spectrum refers to the invisible radio frequencies that wireless signals travel over.
- All these airwaves are sold for a certain period of time, after which their validity lapses, which is generally set at 20 years.
- The State government owns all the publicly available assets within the geographical boundaries of the country, which also include airwaves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
What is spectrum?
Spectrum refers to the invisible radio frequencies that wireless signals travel over. Devices such as cell phones and wireline telephones require signals to connect from one end to another.
- These signals are carried on airwaves (medium of radio waves), which must be sent at designated frequencies to avoid any kind of interference.
- All these airwaves are sold for a certain period of time, after which their validity lapses, which is generally set at 20 years.
- The Union governmentowns all the publicly available assets within the geographical boundaries of the country, which also include airwaves.
Incorrect
Solution: A
What is spectrum?
Spectrum refers to the invisible radio frequencies that wireless signals travel over. Devices such as cell phones and wireline telephones require signals to connect from one end to another.
- These signals are carried on airwaves (medium of radio waves), which must be sent at designated frequencies to avoid any kind of interference.
- All these airwaves are sold for a certain period of time, after which their validity lapses, which is generally set at 20 years.
- The Union governmentowns all the publicly available assets within the geographical boundaries of the country, which also include airwaves.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Syed Ibrahim Khan
- Raskhan was his pen name in Hindi.
- His poetry is in the form of Doha, Padawali and Savayya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Raskhan or Syed Ibrahim Khan was a 16th-century Sufi Muslim poet born either in Amroha or Hardoi in Uttar Pradesh.
- Raskhan was his pen name in Hindi.
- In his early years, he became a follower of Sri Krishna and learned the religion from Goswami Vitthalnath and spent his life in
- His poetry is in the form of Doha, Padawali and Savayya.
- Writings: Raskhan’s Khariboli writings are numerous, the five most important being the Sujana Raskhana, the Premavatika (most popular), the Danalila, the Astayama and a collection of Padas (rhymed couplets).
Incorrect
Solution: C
Raskhan or Syed Ibrahim Khan was a 16th-century Sufi Muslim poet born either in Amroha or Hardoi in Uttar Pradesh.
- Raskhan was his pen name in Hindi.
- In his early years, he became a follower of Sri Krishna and learned the religion from Goswami Vitthalnath and spent his life in
- His poetry is in the form of Doha, Padawali and Savayya.
- Writings: Raskhan’s Khariboli writings are numerous, the five most important being the Sujana Raskhana, the Premavatika (most popular), the Danalila, the Astayama and a collection of Padas (rhymed couplets).
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Taj Bibi
- She was married to Emperor Shah Jahan and was appointed by the Mughals to protect the Gokul area.
- She wrote poetry during the Mughal time and known as ‘Mughal Mirabai’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Taj Bibi: aka the ‘Mughal Mirabai’, was born in the 17th century as the daughter of a Muslim nobleman Padna Khan.
- Taj Bibi was married to Emperor Akbar and was appointed by the Mughals to protect the Gokul area.
- She wrote poetry during the Mughal time when the ruling class belonged to the Muslim religion.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Taj Bibi: aka the ‘Mughal Mirabai’, was born in the 17th century as the daughter of a Muslim nobleman Padna Khan.
- Taj Bibi was married to Emperor Akbar and was appointed by the Mughals to protect the Gokul area.
- She wrote poetry during the Mughal time when the ruling class belonged to the Muslim religion.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following organization publishes the ‘Global biodiversity
Outlook’?Correct
Solution: B
Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO) is the flagship publication of the
Convention on Biological Diversity. It is a periodic report that summarizes the
latest data on the status and trends of biodiversity and draws conclusions
relevant to the further implementation of the ConventionGBO-5 provides global summary of progress towards the Aichi Biodiversity Targets and is based on a range of indicators, research studies and assessments (in particular the IPBES Global Assessment on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services), as well as the national reports provided by countries on their implementation of the CBD.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO) is the flagship publication of the
Convention on Biological Diversity. It is a periodic report that summarizes the
latest data on the status and trends of biodiversity and draws conclusions
relevant to the further implementation of the ConventionGBO-5 provides global summary of progress towards the Aichi Biodiversity Targets and is based on a range of indicators, research studies and assessments (in particular the IPBES Global Assessment on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services), as well as the national reports provided by countries on their implementation of the CBD.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsWhat is/are objectives of the Convention on Biological Diversity?
1. Conservation of biodiversity
2. Sustainable use of biodiversity
3. Fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising from the use of genetic
resources.Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international legally binding treaty with three main goals:
conservation of biodiversity; sustainable use of biodiversity; fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising from the use of genetic resources. Its overall objective is to encourage actions, which will lead to a sustainable future.
The conservation of biodiversity is a common concern of humankind. The Convention on Biological Diversity covers biodiversity at all levels: ecosystems, species and genetic resources.
It also covers biotechnology, including through the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety. In fact, it covers all possible domains that are directly or indirectly related to biodiversity and its role in development, ranging from science, politics and education to agriculture, business, culture and much more.
The CBD’s governing body is the Conference of the Parties (COP). This
ultimate authority of all governments (or Parties) that have ratified the treaty meets every two years to review progress, set priorities and commit to work plans. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) entered into force on 29 December 1993. It has 3 main objectives:
- The conservation of biological diversity
- The sustainable use of the components of biological diversity
- The fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international legally binding treaty with three main goals:
conservation of biodiversity; sustainable use of biodiversity; fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising from the use of genetic resources. Its overall objective is to encourage actions, which will lead to a sustainable future.
The conservation of biodiversity is a common concern of humankind. The Convention on Biological Diversity covers biodiversity at all levels: ecosystems, species and genetic resources.
It also covers biotechnology, including through the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety. In fact, it covers all possible domains that are directly or indirectly related to biodiversity and its role in development, ranging from science, politics and education to agriculture, business, culture and much more.
The CBD’s governing body is the Conference of the Parties (COP). This
ultimate authority of all governments (or Parties) that have ratified the treaty meets every two years to review progress, set priorities and commit to work plans. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) entered into force on 29 December 1993. It has 3 main objectives:
- The conservation of biological diversity
- The sustainable use of the components of biological diversity
- The fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the ‘Inter-Governmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)’, Consider the following statements
1. It is created in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The IPCC does not conduct its own research.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Created in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the objective of the IPCC is to provide governments at all levels with scientific information that they can use to develop climate policies. IPCC reports are also a key input into international climate change negotiations.
The IPCC is an organization of governments that are members of the United
Nations or WMO. The IPCC currently has 195 members. Thousands of people from all over the world contribute to the work of the IPCC.For the assessment reports, IPCC scientists volunteer their time to assess the thousands of scientific papers published each year to provide a comprehensive summary of what is known about the drivers of climate change, its impacts and future risks, and how adaptation and mitigation can reduce those risks.
An open and transparent review by experts and governments around the
world is an essential part of the IPCC process, to ensure an objective and
complete assessment and to reflect a diverse range of views and expertise.
Through its assessments, the IPCC identifies the strength of scientific agreement in different areas and indicates where further research is needed.The IPCC does not conduct its own research.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Created in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), the objective of the IPCC is to provide governments at all levels with scientific information that they can use to develop climate policies. IPCC reports are also a key input into international climate change negotiations.
The IPCC is an organization of governments that are members of the United
Nations or WMO. The IPCC currently has 195 members. Thousands of people from all over the world contribute to the work of the IPCC.For the assessment reports, IPCC scientists volunteer their time to assess the thousands of scientific papers published each year to provide a comprehensive summary of what is known about the drivers of climate change, its impacts and future risks, and how adaptation and mitigation can reduce those risks.
An open and transparent review by experts and governments around the
world is an essential part of the IPCC process, to ensure an objective and
complete assessment and to reflect a diverse range of views and expertise.
Through its assessments, the IPCC identifies the strength of scientific agreement in different areas and indicates where further research is needed.The IPCC does not conduct its own research.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following organization launched the ‘Global wildlife Program (GWP)’?
Correct
Solution: C
The GWP is a World-Bank led global partnership that promotes wildlife
conservation and sustainable development by combatting illicit trafficking in wildlife. This seven-year, US$131 million grant program is expected to leverage an additional US$704 million in additional co-financing from a wide range of partners to promote conservation investments across Africa and Asia.http://www.worldbank.org/en/programs/global-wildlife-program
Incorrect
Solution: C
The GWP is a World-Bank led global partnership that promotes wildlife
conservation and sustainable development by combatting illicit trafficking in wildlife. This seven-year, US$131 million grant program is expected to leverage an additional US$704 million in additional co-financing from a wide range of partners to promote conservation investments across Africa and Asia.http://www.worldbank.org/en/programs/global-wildlife-program
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following greenhouse gases:
1. Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
2. Water Vapour
3. Sulfur Hexaflouride (SF6)
4. Methane (CH4)
5. Nitrogen triflouride (NF3)Which of the above gases is/are placed under Kyoto Protocol?
Correct
Solution: B
The targets for the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol cover
emissions of the six main greenhouse gases, namely:- Carbon dioxide (CO2);
· Methane (CH4);
· Nitrous oxide (N2O);
· Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs);
· Perfluorocarbons (PFCs); and
· Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6)
The maximum amount of emissions (measured as the equivalent in carbon dioxide) that a party may emit over a commitment period in order to comply with its emissions target is known as a Party’s assigned amount.
The individual targets for Annex I Parties are listed in the Kyoto Protocol’s Annex B.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The targets for the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol cover
emissions of the six main greenhouse gases, namely:- Carbon dioxide (CO2);
· Methane (CH4);
· Nitrous oxide (N2O);
· Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs);
· Perfluorocarbons (PFCs); and
· Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6)
The maximum amount of emissions (measured as the equivalent in carbon dioxide) that a party may emit over a commitment period in order to comply with its emissions target is known as a Party’s assigned amount.
The individual targets for Annex I Parties are listed in the Kyoto Protocol’s Annex B.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsThe highly degraded organic matter rich in phosphorus, nitrogen and
potassium in particular, resulting from the activity of earthworms is known as:Correct
Solution: D
Vermicomposting is a type of composting in which certain species of earthworms are used to enhance the process of organic waste conversion and produce a better end-product.
It is a mesophilic process utilizing microorganisms and earthworms. Earthworms feeds the organic waste materials and passes it through their digestive system and gives out in a granular form (cocoons) which is known as vermicompost.
A wide range of organic residues, such as straw, husk, leaves, stalks, weeds etc can be converted into vermicompost. Other potential feedstock for vermicompost production are livestock wastes, poultry litter, dairy wastes, food processing wastes, organic fraction of MSW, bagasse, digestate from biogas plants etc.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Vermicomposting is a type of composting in which certain species of earthworms are used to enhance the process of organic waste conversion and produce a better end-product.
It is a mesophilic process utilizing microorganisms and earthworms. Earthworms feeds the organic waste materials and passes it through their digestive system and gives out in a granular form (cocoons) which is known as vermicompost.
A wide range of organic residues, such as straw, husk, leaves, stalks, weeds etc can be converted into vermicompost. Other potential feedstock for vermicompost production are livestock wastes, poultry litter, dairy wastes, food processing wastes, organic fraction of MSW, bagasse, digestate from biogas plants etc.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following
1.Evaporation
2. Transpiration
3. CondensationWhich of the above process is/are part of the Water Cycle on the Earth?
Correct
Solution: D
Water cycle, also called hydrologic cycle, cycle that involves the continuous circulation of water in the Earth-atmosphere system. Of the many processes involved in the water cycle, the most important are evaporation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, and runoff.
Although the total amount of water within the cycle remains essentially constant, its distribution among the various processes is continually changing.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Water cycle, also called hydrologic cycle, cycle that involves the continuous circulation of water in the Earth-atmosphere system. Of the many processes involved in the water cycle, the most important are evaporation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, and runoff.
Although the total amount of water within the cycle remains essentially constant, its distribution among the various processes is continually changing.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the ‘Ecological Niche’, consider the following statements:
1.It is the role and position a species has in its environment.
2. Each species has a distinct niche.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Ecological Niche, in ecology, all of the interactions of a species with the other members of its community, including competition, predation,
parasitism, and mutualism.A variety of abiotic factors, such as soil type and climate, also define a
species’ niche.Each of the various species that constitute a community occupies its own ecological niche. Each species have a distinct niche. Informally, a niche is considered the “job” or “role” that a species performs within nature.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Ecological Niche, in ecology, all of the interactions of a species with the other members of its community, including competition, predation,
parasitism, and mutualism.A variety of abiotic factors, such as soil type and climate, also define a
species’ niche.Each of the various species that constitute a community occupies its own ecological niche. Each species have a distinct niche. Informally, a niche is considered the “job” or “role” that a species performs within nature.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsIn which one of the following States is the ‘Clouded leopard national park’ located?
Correct
Solution: C
Clouded Leopard National Park is a national park in Tripura, India. It was
established in the year of 2007. It covers an area of about 5.08 square kilometres (1.96 sq mi).Presbytis, or spectacled langur, an endemic species of Tripura is abundant
here, and the other mammals like Leopard, Jungle fowl, barking deer, Clouded leopard, and Wild pigs are also found in the park.Mammals and Birds found in Clouded Leopard National Park.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Clouded Leopard National Park is a national park in Tripura, India. It was
established in the year of 2007. It covers an area of about 5.08 square kilometres (1.96 sq mi).Presbytis, or spectacled langur, an endemic species of Tripura is abundant
here, and the other mammals like Leopard, Jungle fowl, barking deer, Clouded leopard, and Wild pigs are also found in the park.Mammals and Birds found in Clouded Leopard National Park.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Fund(s) is/are associated with United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)?1.Green Climate Fund
2. Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF)
3. Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF)Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: D
At COP 16 held in Cancun, Parties established the Green Climate Fund (GCF)as an operating entity of the Financial Mechanism of the Convention under Article 11. The Fund is governed by the GCF Board and it is accountable to and functions under the guidance of the COP to support projects, programmes, policies and other activities in developing country Parties using thematic funding windows.
The Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) was established under the UNFCC Convention in 2001 to finance projects relating to: adaptation; technology transfer and capacity building; energy, transport, industry, agriculture, forestry and waste management; and economic diversification. This fund should complement other funding mechanisms for the implementation of the Convention.
Least developed countries (LDCs) are the most vulnerable to climate change, yet the least able to adapt. In many cases, they lack the technical, financial and institutional capacity to identify the best ways to build resilience.
194 parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) decided to establish the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF) in 2001. The fund, managed by the GEF, supports the world’s most vulnerable countries in their efforts to adapt to the effects of climate change.
https://www.thegef.org/topics/least-developed-countries-fund-ldcf
Incorrect
Solution: D
At COP 16 held in Cancun, Parties established the Green Climate Fund (GCF)as an operating entity of the Financial Mechanism of the Convention under Article 11. The Fund is governed by the GCF Board and it is accountable to and functions under the guidance of the COP to support projects, programmes, policies and other activities in developing country Parties using thematic funding windows.
The Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) was established under the UNFCC Convention in 2001 to finance projects relating to: adaptation; technology transfer and capacity building; energy, transport, industry, agriculture, forestry and waste management; and economic diversification. This fund should complement other funding mechanisms for the implementation of the Convention.
Least developed countries (LDCs) are the most vulnerable to climate change, yet the least able to adapt. In many cases, they lack the technical, financial and institutional capacity to identify the best ways to build resilience.
194 parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) decided to establish the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF) in 2001. The fund, managed by the GEF, supports the world’s most vulnerable countries in their efforts to adapt to the effects of climate change.
https://www.thegef.org/topics/least-developed-countries-fund-ldcf
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsPassage 1
Indian elections have become less violent over the last three decades. The credit for this must go not only to institutions such as the Election Commission but also to the political class. Yet there is another disturbing tendency, potentially replete with violence, that has been growing during the same period: to view political opponents as enemies to be annihilated.
Which one of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage?
Correct
Answer.C
The problem highlighted in the passage is that political opponents are being seen as enemies. This is a potentially violent problem that can ultimately lead to a threat to democracy and hence needs to be nipped in the bud. Hence C.
Incorrect
Answer.C
The problem highlighted in the passage is that political opponents are being seen as enemies. This is a potentially violent problem that can ultimately lead to a threat to democracy and hence needs to be nipped in the bud. Hence C.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsPassage 2
In order to achieve 24×7 power for all, we need to focus on three frontiers. First, India needs real-time monitoring of supply at the end-user level. We achieve what we measure. While the government is bringing all feeders in the country online, we currently have no provision to monitor supply as experienced by households.
Which of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage?
Correct
Answer.D.
D is correct as the passage focusses on real-time monitoring of supply at the end-user level, the purpose of which can be to help guide discoms to act in areas with sub-optimal performance. Hence D.
Incorrect
Answer.D.
D is correct as the passage focusses on real-time monitoring of supply at the end-user level, the purpose of which can be to help guide discoms to act in areas with sub-optimal performance. Hence D.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsDirections : ( 3-5Q)
Six dice with upper faces erased are as shows.
The sum of the numbers of dots on the opposite face is 7.
If even numbered dice have even number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the total number of dots on the top faces of their dice?
Correct
Answer: Option C)
Explanation:
Even numbered dice are: (II), (IV) and (VI)
No. of dots on the top face of (II) dice = 6
No. of dots on the top face of (IV) dice = 6
and No. of dots on the top face of (VI) dice = 6
Therefore Required total = 6 + 6 + 6 = 18
Incorrect
Answer: Option C)
Explanation:
Even numbered dice are: (II), (IV) and (VI)
No. of dots on the top face of (II) dice = 6
No. of dots on the top face of (IV) dice = 6
and No. of dots on the top face of (VI) dice = 6
Therefore Required total = 6 + 6 + 6 = 18
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsSix dice with upper faces erased are as shows.
The sum of the numbers of dots on the opposite face is 7.
If the odd numbered dice have even number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the total number of dots on the top faces of their dice?
Correct
Answer: Option A)
Explanation:
Odd numbered dice are : (II), (III) and (V)
No. of dots on the top faces of these dice are 2, 2 and 4 respectively.
Required total = 2 + 2 + 4 = 8
Incorrect
Answer: Option A)
Explanation:
Odd numbered dice are : (II), (III) and (V)
No. of dots on the top faces of these dice are 2, 2 and 4 respectively.
Required total = 2 + 2 + 4 = 8
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsSix dice with upper faces erased are as shows.
The sum of the numbers of dots on the opposite face is 7.
If dice (I), (II) and (III) have even number of dots on their bottom faces and the dice (IV), (V) and (VI) have odd number of dots on their top faces, then what would be the difference in the total number of top faces between there two sets?
Correct
Answer: Option D)
Explanation:
No. of faces on the top faces of the dice (I), (II) and (III) are 5, 1 and 5 respectively.
Therefore, Total of these numbers = 5 + 1 + 5 = 11
No. of dots on the top faces of the dice (IV), (V) and (VI) are 1, 3 and 1 respectively.
Therefore, Total of these numbers = 1 + 3 + 1 = 5
Required difference = 11 – 5 = 6
Incorrect
Answer: Option D)
Explanation:
No. of faces on the top faces of the dice (I), (II) and (III) are 5, 1 and 5 respectively.
Therefore, Total of these numbers = 5 + 1 + 5 = 11
No. of dots on the top faces of the dice (IV), (V) and (VI) are 1, 3 and 1 respectively.
Therefore, Total of these numbers = 1 + 3 + 1 = 5
Required difference = 11 – 5 = 6
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