INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
Click Here to Download the Insta Test PDF
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs (SEED)
- It is been implemented by Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
- It is a scheme for empowerment of DNT communities have been formulated for families having income from all sources of Rs.2.50 lakh or less per annum
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
SEED
Context: The scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs (SEED) for the welfare of De-notified, Nomadic and Semi Nomadic Communities, has been delayed due to tribe categorization work
Who are de-notified, nomadic and semi-nomadic tribes?
They are communities that were ‘notified’ as being ‘born criminals’ during the British regime under a series of laws starting with the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871. This law was repealed and these communities became ‘De-Notified’.
The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched the Scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs (SEED) for the welfare of De-notified, Nomadic and Semi Nomadic (DNT) Communities.
SEED scheme
A Scheme for empowerment of DNT communities have been formulated for families having income from all sources of Rs.2.50 lakh or less per annum and not availing any such benefits from similar Scheme of Centre Government or the State Government.
About SEED
It is being implemented through an online portal (from 2021 to 2026) and would issue a unique ID to each applicant. But delay in the categorization of 1262 tribes is delaying the implementation of the scheme.
Incorrect
Solution: B
SEED
Context: The scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs (SEED) for the welfare of De-notified, Nomadic and Semi Nomadic Communities, has been delayed due to tribe categorization work
Who are de-notified, nomadic and semi-nomadic tribes?
They are communities that were ‘notified’ as being ‘born criminals’ during the British regime under a series of laws starting with the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871. This law was repealed and these communities became ‘De-Notified’.
The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched the Scheme for Economic Empowerment of DNTs (SEED) for the welfare of De-notified, Nomadic and Semi Nomadic (DNT) Communities.
SEED scheme
A Scheme for empowerment of DNT communities have been formulated for families having income from all sources of Rs.2.50 lakh or less per annum and not availing any such benefits from similar Scheme of Centre Government or the State Government.
About SEED
It is being implemented through an online portal (from 2021 to 2026) and would issue a unique ID to each applicant. But delay in the categorization of 1262 tribes is delaying the implementation of the scheme.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Central Adoption Resource Authority
- Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development.
- CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Central Adoption Resource Authority
Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India. It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions. CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003.
CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption agencies.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Central Adoption Resource Authority
Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India. It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions. CARA is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003.
CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption agencies.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsUnder Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, who among the following are eligible for legal services?
- Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe
- Mentally ill person
- Victim of trafficking in human beings
- Industrial workman
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 prescribes the criteria for giving legal services to the eligible persons. Section 12 of the Act reads as under:-
Every person who has to file or defend a case shall be entitled to legal services under this Act if that person is –
(a) a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe;
(b) a victim of trafficking in human beings or begar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution;
(c) a woman or a child;
(d) a mentally ill or otherwise disabled person;
(e) a person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake or industrial disaster; or
(f) an industrial workman; or
(g) in custody, including custody in a protective home within the meaning of clause (g) of section 2 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 (104 of 1956); or in a juvenile home within the meaning of clause
(j) of section 2 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 1986 (53 of 1986) or in a psychiatric hospital or psychiatric nursing home within the meaning of clause (g) of section 2 of the Mental Health Act, 1987 (14 of 1987); or
(h) in receipt of annual income less than rupees nine thousand or such other higher amount as may be prescribed by the State Govt., if the case is before a court other than the Supreme Court, and less than rupees twelve thousand or such other higher amount as may be prescribed by the Central Govt., if the case is before the Supreme Court.”Incorrect
Solution: D
Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 prescribes the criteria for giving legal services to the eligible persons. Section 12 of the Act reads as under:-
Every person who has to file or defend a case shall be entitled to legal services under this Act if that person is –
(a) a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe;
(b) a victim of trafficking in human beings or begar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution;
(c) a woman or a child;
(d) a mentally ill or otherwise disabled person;
(e) a person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake or industrial disaster; or
(f) an industrial workman; or
(g) in custody, including custody in a protective home within the meaning of clause (g) of section 2 of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956 (104 of 1956); or in a juvenile home within the meaning of clause
(j) of section 2 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 1986 (53 of 1986) or in a psychiatric hospital or psychiatric nursing home within the meaning of clause (g) of section 2 of the Mental Health Act, 1987 (14 of 1987); or
(h) in receipt of annual income less than rupees nine thousand or such other higher amount as may be prescribed by the State Govt., if the case is before a court other than the Supreme Court, and less than rupees twelve thousand or such other higher amount as may be prescribed by the Central Govt., if the case is before the Supreme Court.” -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding President at UN Security Council
- The presidency of the Council is held by each of the members in turn for one year.
- During Presidency of India at UNSC, the Prime Minister is the President of the United Nations Security Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
India has served seven times in the UN Security Council as a non-permanent member and in January 2021, India entered the UNSC for the eighth time.
India has assumed the rotating Presidency of the United Nations Security Council for the month of August 2021 and December 2022.
About Security Council Presidency:
- The presidency of the Council is held by each of the members in turn for one month, following the English alphabetical order of the Member States names.
- It rotates among the 15 member-states of the council monthly.
- The head of the country’s delegation is known as the President of the United Nations Security Council.
- The president serves to coordinate actions of the council, decide policy disputes, and sometimes functions as a diplomat or intermediary between conflicting groups.
Incorrect
Solution: D
India has served seven times in the UN Security Council as a non-permanent member and in January 2021, India entered the UNSC for the eighth time.
India has assumed the rotating Presidency of the United Nations Security Council for the month of August 2021 and December 2022.
About Security Council Presidency:
- The presidency of the Council is held by each of the members in turn for one month, following the English alphabetical order of the Member States names.
- It rotates among the 15 member-states of the council monthly.
- The head of the country’s delegation is known as the President of the United Nations Security Council.
- The president serves to coordinate actions of the council, decide policy disputes, and sometimes functions as a diplomat or intermediary between conflicting groups.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ashwagandha
- It is a traditional Indian herb that boosts energy, reduces stress and makes the immune system stronger.
- Ashwagandha is widely grown in montane forest vegetation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Ashwagandha:
The Ministry of Ayush has collaborated with the U.K.’s London School of Hygiene and Tropical Medicine (LSHTM) to conduct a study on ‘Ashwagandha’ for promoting recovery from COVID-19.
Key facts:
- ‘Ashwagandha’ (Withania somnifera) is commonly known as ‘Indian winter cherry’.
- It is a traditional Indian herb that boosts energy, reduces stress and makes the immune system stronger.
- It is classified as an adaptogen, which means that it can help the body to manage stress.
- Ashwagandha is widely grown in dry parts of subtropical regions. Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh are major ashwagandha growing states in India.
- Being a hardy and drought-tolerant crop, ashwagandha requires a relatively dry season throughout its growing period. Areas with 60-75 cm rainfall are suitable for its cultivation.
- Temperature between 20°C to 35°C is most suitable.
- It grows well in sandy loam or light red soils having pH 7.5-8.0. Black or heavy soils having good drainage are also suitable for ashwagandha cultivation.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Ashwagandha:
The Ministry of Ayush has collaborated with the U.K.’s London School of Hygiene and Tropical Medicine (LSHTM) to conduct a study on ‘Ashwagandha’ for promoting recovery from COVID-19.
Key facts:
- ‘Ashwagandha’ (Withania somnifera) is commonly known as ‘Indian winter cherry’.
- It is a traditional Indian herb that boosts energy, reduces stress and makes the immune system stronger.
- It is classified as an adaptogen, which means that it can help the body to manage stress.
- Ashwagandha is widely grown in dry parts of subtropical regions. Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh are major ashwagandha growing states in India.
- Being a hardy and drought-tolerant crop, ashwagandha requires a relatively dry season throughout its growing period. Areas with 60-75 cm rainfall are suitable for its cultivation.
- Temperature between 20°C to 35°C is most suitable.
- It grows well in sandy loam or light red soils having pH 7.5-8.0. Black or heavy soils having good drainage are also suitable for ashwagandha cultivation.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Preventive Detention
- Preventive Detention is an act that is supposedly justified for non-punitive ends and is a preventive measure.
- The person under preventive detention gets the same safeguards as an arrested person under Article 22 of the Constitution.
- Preventive detention may be used indefinitely under Article 22 of the Indian Constitution, whether in times of peace, non-emergency situations, or otherwise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Preventive Detention can be understood as imprisonment of a person without trial, an act that is supposedly justified for non-punitive ends and is often described as a preventive measure rather than a punitive one. The essence of the Law on Preventive Detention is entirely different from the arrest and incarceration under regular criminal prison, which is relevant in both a crisis and a calm scenario. In the event of arrest and detention, the arrested person is given various safeguards mentioned under Article 22(1) and (2) of the Constitution, but in compliance with the law of preventive detention under Article 22(3), such protections are not extended to the arrested detention. Clauses (4) to (7) provide for the protections in accordance with preventive detention.
Preventive detention may be used indefinitely under Article 22 of the Indian Constitution, whether in times of peace, non-emergency situations, or otherwise. Detainees are denied the right to legal counsel, cross-examination, timely or periodic review, access to the courts, or compensation for wrongful arrest or imprisonment under the Constitution, which enables them to be held without accusation or trial for up to three months.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Preventive Detention can be understood as imprisonment of a person without trial, an act that is supposedly justified for non-punitive ends and is often described as a preventive measure rather than a punitive one. The essence of the Law on Preventive Detention is entirely different from the arrest and incarceration under regular criminal prison, which is relevant in both a crisis and a calm scenario. In the event of arrest and detention, the arrested person is given various safeguards mentioned under Article 22(1) and (2) of the Constitution, but in compliance with the law of preventive detention under Article 22(3), such protections are not extended to the arrested detention. Clauses (4) to (7) provide for the protections in accordance with preventive detention.
Preventive detention may be used indefinitely under Article 22 of the Indian Constitution, whether in times of peace, non-emergency situations, or otherwise. Detainees are denied the right to legal counsel, cross-examination, timely or periodic review, access to the courts, or compensation for wrongful arrest or imprisonment under the Constitution, which enables them to be held without accusation or trial for up to three months.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Zika virus:
- The virus was first identified in Kenya in 1947 in monkeys.
- The Zika virus is predominantly transmitted by infected mosquitoes from the Aedes genus, mainly Aedes aegypti.
- The Aedes mosquitoes also spread dengue, chikungunya and yellow fever.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
About Zika:
- The Zika virus is predominantly transmitted by infected mosquitoes from the Aedes genus, mainly Aedes aegypti. The Aedes mosquitoes also spread dengue, chikungunya and yellow fever.
- The virus was first identified in Uganda in 1947 in monkeys.
Transmission:
- Apart from the mosquitoes, an infected person can also spread the virus.
Symptoms:
- Generally, the symptoms include fever, rash, conjunctivitis, muscle and joint pain, malaise, or headache. It lasts for about two to seven days. Most infected people do not develop any symptoms.
- Zika virus infection during pregnancy can cause infants to be born with microcephaly (smaller than normal head size) and other congenital malformations, known as congenital Zika syndrome.
- It has no treatment or vaccine. Instead, the focus is on relieving symptoms and includes rest, rehydration and acetaminophen for fever and pain.
Incorrect
Solution: B
About Zika:
- The Zika virus is predominantly transmitted by infected mosquitoes from the Aedes genus, mainly Aedes aegypti. The Aedes mosquitoes also spread dengue, chikungunya and yellow fever.
- The virus was first identified in Uganda in 1947 in monkeys.
Transmission:
- Apart from the mosquitoes, an infected person can also spread the virus.
Symptoms:
- Generally, the symptoms include fever, rash, conjunctivitis, muscle and joint pain, malaise, or headache. It lasts for about two to seven days. Most infected people do not develop any symptoms.
- Zika virus infection during pregnancy can cause infants to be born with microcephaly (smaller than normal head size) and other congenital malformations, known as congenital Zika syndrome.
- It has no treatment or vaccine. Instead, the focus is on relieving symptoms and includes rest, rehydration and acetaminophen for fever and pain.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Leopards
- The largest number of leopards have been estimated in Karnataka.
- It is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
- Unlike lions, leopards are solitary creatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Union Environment Ministry has released a new report titled- Status of Leopards, Co-predators and Megaherbivores-2018.
- The report was released on July 29, 2021 — World Tiger Day.
As per the report:
- India’s official leopard count has increased 63 per cent from 2014-2018. There were 12,852 leopards in the country in 2018 (7,910 in 2014).
- The largest number of leopards have been estimated in Madhya Pradesh (3,421) followed by Karnataka (1,783) and Maharashtra (1,690).
About Leopard:
- Scientific Name- Panthera pardus.
- Listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Included in Appendix I of CITES.
- Listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
- Nine subspecies of the leopard have been recognized, and they are distributed across Africa and Asia.
Leopards are found in a wide variety of habitats including savanna and rainforest, grasslands, desert and semi-desert regions of southern Africa, woodlands, and riverine forests. In Java, leopards inhabit dense tropical rainforests and dry deciduous forests in mountainous areas. Outside protected areas, they can be found in mixed agricultural land and secondary forest. In the Russian Far East, these animals live in temperate coniferous forests where winter temperatures reach a low of −25 °C (−13 °F).
Unlike lions, leopards are solitary creatures. Males are almost entirely solitary and females only break their solitude when they are raising cubs. But, like lions, leopards roar. Male leopards defend their territory by roaring and scent marking, while females use their roar to attract mates and call their cubs. A leopard roar is a rough rasp, like a handsaw cutting wood.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Union Environment Ministry has released a new report titled- Status of Leopards, Co-predators and Megaherbivores-2018.
- The report was released on July 29, 2021 — World Tiger Day.
As per the report:
- India’s official leopard count has increased 63 per cent from 2014-2018. There were 12,852 leopards in the country in 2018 (7,910 in 2014).
- The largest number of leopards have been estimated in Madhya Pradesh (3,421) followed by Karnataka (1,783) and Maharashtra (1,690).
About Leopard:
- Scientific Name- Panthera pardus.
- Listed in Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Included in Appendix I of CITES.
- Listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
- Nine subspecies of the leopard have been recognized, and they are distributed across Africa and Asia.
Leopards are found in a wide variety of habitats including savanna and rainforest, grasslands, desert and semi-desert regions of southern Africa, woodlands, and riverine forests. In Java, leopards inhabit dense tropical rainforests and dry deciduous forests in mountainous areas. Outside protected areas, they can be found in mixed agricultural land and secondary forest. In the Russian Far East, these animals live in temperate coniferous forests where winter temperatures reach a low of −25 °C (−13 °F).
Unlike lions, leopards are solitary creatures. Males are almost entirely solitary and females only break their solitude when they are raising cubs. But, like lions, leopards roar. Male leopards defend their territory by roaring and scent marking, while females use their roar to attract mates and call their cubs. A leopard roar is a rough rasp, like a handsaw cutting wood.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Manganese nodules
- Manganese nodules are potato-shaped, largely porous nodules found in abundance carpeting the sea floor of world oceans in deep sea.
- They occur in all the world’s oceans but are generally found in areas where sediment accumulation rate is fast.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Manganese nodules are authigenic deposits composed principally of manganese oxides enriched in Fe and Co, Ni, and Cu. They occur in all the world’s oceans but are generally found in areas where sediment accumulation rate is slow. Indeed, Mn nodules grow slowly—millimeters to 10s of millimeters per million years.
What are PMN?
Polymetallic nodules (also known as manganese nodules) are potato-shaped, largely porous nodules found in abundance carpeting the sea floor of world oceans in deep sea.
Composition: Besides manganese and iron, they contain nickel, copper, cobalt, lead, molybdenum, cadmium, vanadium, titanium, of which nickel, cobalt and copper are considered to be of economic and strategic importance.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Manganese nodules are authigenic deposits composed principally of manganese oxides enriched in Fe and Co, Ni, and Cu. They occur in all the world’s oceans but are generally found in areas where sediment accumulation rate is slow. Indeed, Mn nodules grow slowly—millimeters to 10s of millimeters per million years.
What are PMN?
Polymetallic nodules (also known as manganese nodules) are potato-shaped, largely porous nodules found in abundance carpeting the sea floor of world oceans in deep sea.
Composition: Besides manganese and iron, they contain nickel, copper, cobalt, lead, molybdenum, cadmium, vanadium, titanium, of which nickel, cobalt and copper are considered to be of economic and strategic importance.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding suspension of MP’s
- Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha member can be suspended if the member disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the Council by persistently and willfully obstructing the business thereof.
- Rules of respective houses gives power to the Speaker/ Chairperson to “automatically suspend” a member in case of “grace disorder”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
How are Lok Sabha MPs suspended?
There are rules that govern the suspension of members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
In the Lok Sabha, Rules 374 and 374(A) give the Speaker the power to suspend a member either through a motion or by themselves.
Such an action may be taken if a member “disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the House by persistently and willfully obstructing the business”, according to Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, published by the Lok Sabha Secretariat.
In such a case, the Speaker may name the member and they may be suspended following a motion for a period not more than the remainder of the session.
Rule 374(A) gives power to the Speaker to “automatically suspend” a member in case of “grace disorder”.
“In the event of grave disorder occasioned by a member coming into the Well of the House or abusing the Rules of the House persistently and wilfully obstructing its business by shouting slogans or otherwise, such member shall, on being named by the Speaker, stand automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less,” according to rules published by the Lok Sabha Secretariat.
In both the cases, suspended members are supposed to leave the House. On Monday, the suspended MPs were accused of “utter disregard” and entering the Well of the House. Moreover, the MPs did not leave the House even after suspension.
How are Rajya Sabha MPs suspended?
In the Rajya Sabha, the suspension of a member is governed by Rule 256. Unlike the Lok Sabha, Deccan Herald notes, the Rajya Sabha Chairperson does not have the power to suspend a member.
Similar to Lok Sabha, a Rajya Sabha member can be suspended if the member “disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the Council by persistently and willfully obstructing the business thereof”, according Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business In the Council of States, published by Rajya Sabha Secretariat.
The Rajya Sabha Chair can only suspend a member through a motion. The Chair names a member, following which the House takes up a motion to suspend that member for a period not more than the remaining of the session, according to Rule 256(2).
While the Chair cannot suspend a member by themselves, the Chair can ask the member to leave the House.
Incorrect
Solution: A
How are Lok Sabha MPs suspended?
There are rules that govern the suspension of members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
In the Lok Sabha, Rules 374 and 374(A) give the Speaker the power to suspend a member either through a motion or by themselves.
Such an action may be taken if a member “disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the House by persistently and willfully obstructing the business”, according to Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, published by the Lok Sabha Secretariat.
In such a case, the Speaker may name the member and they may be suspended following a motion for a period not more than the remainder of the session.
Rule 374(A) gives power to the Speaker to “automatically suspend” a member in case of “grace disorder”.
“In the event of grave disorder occasioned by a member coming into the Well of the House or abusing the Rules of the House persistently and wilfully obstructing its business by shouting slogans or otherwise, such member shall, on being named by the Speaker, stand automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less,” according to rules published by the Lok Sabha Secretariat.
In both the cases, suspended members are supposed to leave the House. On Monday, the suspended MPs were accused of “utter disregard” and entering the Well of the House. Moreover, the MPs did not leave the House even after suspension.
How are Rajya Sabha MPs suspended?
In the Rajya Sabha, the suspension of a member is governed by Rule 256. Unlike the Lok Sabha, Deccan Herald notes, the Rajya Sabha Chairperson does not have the power to suspend a member.
Similar to Lok Sabha, a Rajya Sabha member can be suspended if the member “disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the Council by persistently and willfully obstructing the business thereof”, according Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business In the Council of States, published by Rajya Sabha Secretariat.
The Rajya Sabha Chair can only suspend a member through a motion. The Chair names a member, following which the House takes up a motion to suspend that member for a period not more than the remaining of the session, according to Rule 256(2).
While the Chair cannot suspend a member by themselves, the Chair can ask the member to leave the House.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Nirbhaya Fund
- It is a non-lapsable corpus fund, being administered by Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD).
- Under the Nirbhaya Fund, “One Stop Centre (OSC) Scheme” is being implemented across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Government has set up a dedicated fund – Nirbhaya Fund – which can be utilized for projects specifically designed to improve the safety and security of women. It is a non-lapsable corpus fund, being administered by Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance.
As per the guidelines issued by Ministry of Finance dt 25.03.2015, the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is the nodal Ministry to appraise/recommend proposals and schemes to be funded under Nirbhaya Fund. MWCD further has the responsibility to review and monitor the progress of sanctioned schemes in conjunction with the line Ministries/Departments.
Under the Nirbhaya Fund, one of the schemes namely “One Stop Centre (OSC) Scheme” is implemented across the country since 1st April 2015. OSCs aim to facilitate women affected by violence with a range of integrated services under one roof such as Police facilitation, medical aid, providing legal and psycho-social counselling and temporary shelter. OSCs are to be set up within 2 kms radius of the hospitals or medical facilities either in new constructed building in an approved design or in pre-existing buildings. Under the scheme, One Stop Centers are being set up in all districts of the country. So far, 704 OSCs have been operationalized and more than three lakh women have been assisted through them.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Government has set up a dedicated fund – Nirbhaya Fund – which can be utilized for projects specifically designed to improve the safety and security of women. It is a non-lapsable corpus fund, being administered by Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance.
As per the guidelines issued by Ministry of Finance dt 25.03.2015, the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is the nodal Ministry to appraise/recommend proposals and schemes to be funded under Nirbhaya Fund. MWCD further has the responsibility to review and monitor the progress of sanctioned schemes in conjunction with the line Ministries/Departments.
Under the Nirbhaya Fund, one of the schemes namely “One Stop Centre (OSC) Scheme” is implemented across the country since 1st April 2015. OSCs aim to facilitate women affected by violence with a range of integrated services under one roof such as Police facilitation, medical aid, providing legal and psycho-social counselling and temporary shelter. OSCs are to be set up within 2 kms radius of the hospitals or medical facilities either in new constructed building in an approved design or in pre-existing buildings. Under the scheme, One Stop Centers are being set up in all districts of the country. So far, 704 OSCs have been operationalized and more than three lakh women have been assisted through them.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Methanol
- Methanol burns efficiently in all internal combustion engines, produces no particulate matter, no soot and no SOX and NOX emissions.
- METHNAOL 15 (M15) in petrol will reduce pollution by 33% and diesel replacement by methanol will reduce by more than 80 %.
- Methanol can be produced from Natural Gas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Methanol is a clean burning drop in fuel which can replace both petrol & diesel in transportation & LPG, Wood, Kerosene in cooking fuel. It can also replace diesel in Railways, Marine Sector, Gensets, Power Generation and Methanol based reformers could be the ideal compliment to Hybrid and Electric Mobility. Methanol Economy is the ‘Bridge’ to the dream of a complete “Hydrogen based fuel systems”.
Methanol burns efficiently in all internal combustion engines, produces no particulate matter, no soot, almost nil SOX and NOX emissions (Near Zero Pollution). The gaseous version of Methanol – DME can blend with LPG and can be excellent substitute for diesel in Large buses and trucks.
METHNAOL 15 (M15) in petrol will reduce pollution by 33% and diesel replacement by methanol will reduce by more than 80 %.
Methanol can be produced from Natural Gas, Indian High Ash Coal, Bio-mass, MSW, stranded and flared gases and India can achieve (through right technology adaptation} to produce Methanol @ Rs.19 a litre from Indian coal and all other feedstock.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Methanol is a clean burning drop in fuel which can replace both petrol & diesel in transportation & LPG, Wood, Kerosene in cooking fuel. It can also replace diesel in Railways, Marine Sector, Gensets, Power Generation and Methanol based reformers could be the ideal compliment to Hybrid and Electric Mobility. Methanol Economy is the ‘Bridge’ to the dream of a complete “Hydrogen based fuel systems”.
Methanol burns efficiently in all internal combustion engines, produces no particulate matter, no soot, almost nil SOX and NOX emissions (Near Zero Pollution). The gaseous version of Methanol – DME can blend with LPG and can be excellent substitute for diesel in Large buses and trucks.
METHNAOL 15 (M15) in petrol will reduce pollution by 33% and diesel replacement by methanol will reduce by more than 80 %.
Methanol can be produced from Natural Gas, Indian High Ash Coal, Bio-mass, MSW, stranded and flared gases and India can achieve (through right technology adaptation} to produce Methanol @ Rs.19 a litre from Indian coal and all other feedstock.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC)
- The UAE and Indonesia launched the alliance on the sidelines of the UN climate summit COP27
- They can store carbon up to 400 % faster than tropical rainforests that are located on land.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
At the 27th session of the COP, Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) was launched in partnership with India, to meet the goal towards carbon sinking by restoring mangrove plantations.
The UAE and Indonesia launched the alliance on the sidelines of the UN climate summit COP27, being held in Sharm El Sheikh in Egypt from November 6 to 18. The collaboration aims to strengthen the conservation and restoration of mangrove ecosystems worldwide. India, Australia, Japan, Spain and Sri Lanka have joined it as partners.
MAC is an initiative to educate and spread worldwide awareness on the importance of mangroves and their role in curbing global warming to fight climate change.
According to the MAC website, “They also provide breeding grounds for marine biodiversity, and 80 per cent of global fish populations rely on healthy mangrove ecosystems.”
They can store ten times more carbon per hectare as compared to terrestrial forests. They can store carbon up to 400 % faster than tropical rainforests that are located on land.
Incorrect
Solution: C
At the 27th session of the COP, Mangrove Alliance for Climate (MAC) was launched in partnership with India, to meet the goal towards carbon sinking by restoring mangrove plantations.
The UAE and Indonesia launched the alliance on the sidelines of the UN climate summit COP27, being held in Sharm El Sheikh in Egypt from November 6 to 18. The collaboration aims to strengthen the conservation and restoration of mangrove ecosystems worldwide. India, Australia, Japan, Spain and Sri Lanka have joined it as partners.
MAC is an initiative to educate and spread worldwide awareness on the importance of mangroves and their role in curbing global warming to fight climate change.
According to the MAC website, “They also provide breeding grounds for marine biodiversity, and 80 per cent of global fish populations rely on healthy mangrove ecosystems.”
They can store ten times more carbon per hectare as compared to terrestrial forests. They can store carbon up to 400 % faster than tropical rainforests that are located on land.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding rare earth elements (REE)
- They are a set of seventeen metallic elements and all elements belong to lanthanides on the periodic table.
- Rare earths are used as catalysts, phosphors, and polishing compounds.
- The rare earth elements are all metals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The rare earth elements (REE) are a set of seventeen metallic elements. These include the fifteen lanthanides on the periodic table plus scandium and yttrium.
Rare earth elements are an essential part of many high-tech devices.
The rare earth elements are all metals, and the group is often referred to as the “rare earth metals.” These metals have many similar properties, and that often causes them to be found together in geologic deposits. They are also referred to as “rare earth oxides” because many of them are typically sold as oxide compounds.
Rare earths are used as catalysts, phosphors, and polishing compounds. These are used for air pollution control, illuminated screens on electronic devices, and the polishing of optical-quality glass. All of these products are expected to experience rising demand.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The rare earth elements (REE) are a set of seventeen metallic elements. These include the fifteen lanthanides on the periodic table plus scandium and yttrium.
Rare earth elements are an essential part of many high-tech devices.
The rare earth elements are all metals, and the group is often referred to as the “rare earth metals.” These metals have many similar properties, and that often causes them to be found together in geologic deposits. They are also referred to as “rare earth oxides” because many of them are typically sold as oxide compounds.
Rare earths are used as catalysts, phosphors, and polishing compounds. These are used for air pollution control, illuminated screens on electronic devices, and the polishing of optical-quality glass. All of these products are expected to experience rising demand.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Vikram-S
- It is India’s first privately-developed rocket, lifted off from Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) launchpad in Sriharikota.
- The rocket Vikram-S is a two-stage solid fueled, sub-orbital rocket.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
The rocket Vikram-S is a single-stage solid fuelled, sub-orbital rocket developed over two years by incorporating advanced technologies including carbon composite structures and 3D-printed components.
Equipped with a gross lift off mass of 545kg, and payload mass of 80 kg, Vikram-S carried with it three customer payloads, which will map the measurement and validation of certain flight parameters and payload integration processes.
Vikram-S, India’s first privately-developed rocket, lifted off from Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) launchpad in Sriharikota. It took Skyroot Aerospace about two years to develop and has been built using advanced technologies including carbon composite structures and 3D-printed components.
Skyroot Aerospace is an Indian startup in the aerospace industry that has developed a rocket under the ‘Prarambh Mission’.
This Hyderabad-based startup’s design will be launched with three payloads on a suborbital mission known as Prarambh.
In addition to being the nation’s first private launch, it will also be Skyroot Aerospace’s first mission, named “Prarambh,” that will carry three payloads into space. There will be two Indian and one foreign customer among them.
Incorrect
Solution: A
The rocket Vikram-S is a single-stage solid fuelled, sub-orbital rocket developed over two years by incorporating advanced technologies including carbon composite structures and 3D-printed components.
Equipped with a gross lift off mass of 545kg, and payload mass of 80 kg, Vikram-S carried with it three customer payloads, which will map the measurement and validation of certain flight parameters and payload integration processes.
Vikram-S, India’s first privately-developed rocket, lifted off from Indian Space Research Organisation’s (ISRO) launchpad in Sriharikota. It took Skyroot Aerospace about two years to develop and has been built using advanced technologies including carbon composite structures and 3D-printed components.
Skyroot Aerospace is an Indian startup in the aerospace industry that has developed a rocket under the ‘Prarambh Mission’.
This Hyderabad-based startup’s design will be launched with three payloads on a suborbital mission known as Prarambh.
In addition to being the nation’s first private launch, it will also be Skyroot Aerospace’s first mission, named “Prarambh,” that will carry three payloads into space. There will be two Indian and one foreign customer among them.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Torrefaction technology:
- It is a thermal process used to produce high-grade solid biofuels from various streams of woody biomass or agro residues
- Biomass torrefaction involves heating the biomass to temperatures between 250 and 300 degrees Celsius in a low-oxygen atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Torrefaction:
It is a thermal process used to produce high-grade solid biofuels from various streams of woody biomass or agro residues.
The end product is a stable, homogeneous, high quality solid biofuel with far greater energy density and calorific value than the original feedstock, providing significant benefits in logistics, handling and storage, as well as opening up a wide range of potential uses.
How it works?
- Biomass torrefaction involves heating the biomass to temperatures between 250 and 300 degrees Celsius in a low-oxygen atmosphere.
- When biomass is heated at such temperatures, the moisture evaporates and various low-calorific components (volatiles) contained in the biomass are driven out.
3. During this process the hemi-cellulose in the biomass decomposes, which transforms the biomass from a fibrous low-quality fuel into a product with excellent fuel characteristics.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Torrefaction:
It is a thermal process used to produce high-grade solid biofuels from various streams of woody biomass or agro residues.
The end product is a stable, homogeneous, high quality solid biofuel with far greater energy density and calorific value than the original feedstock, providing significant benefits in logistics, handling and storage, as well as opening up a wide range of potential uses.
How it works?
- Biomass torrefaction involves heating the biomass to temperatures between 250 and 300 degrees Celsius in a low-oxygen atmosphere.
- When biomass is heated at such temperatures, the moisture evaporates and various low-calorific components (volatiles) contained in the biomass are driven out.
3. During this process the hemi-cellulose in the biomass decomposes, which transforms the biomass from a fibrous low-quality fuel into a product with excellent fuel characteristics.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Coral Triangle:
- It is a marine area located in the western Atlantic Ocean.
- It is home to six of the world’s seven species of marine turtles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Coral Triangle is a marine area located in the western Pacific Ocean. It includes the waters of Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Papua New Guinea, Timor Leste and Solomon Islands.
The Coral Triangle hosts an astonishing amount of marine life. Seventy-five percent of the world’s coral species are found here—nearly 600 different species. Over 2000 different types of reef fish find refuge in these dazzling underwater gardens, and this is an important place for tuna to spawn. Whales, dolphins, porpoises, dugongs and whale sharks feed, breed and migrate in these waters. And the Coral Triangle is home to six of the world’s seven species of marine turtles.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Coral Triangle is a marine area located in the western Pacific Ocean. It includes the waters of Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Papua New Guinea, Timor Leste and Solomon Islands.
The Coral Triangle hosts an astonishing amount of marine life. Seventy-five percent of the world’s coral species are found here—nearly 600 different species. Over 2000 different types of reef fish find refuge in these dazzling underwater gardens, and this is an important place for tuna to spawn. Whales, dolphins, porpoises, dugongs and whale sharks feed, breed and migrate in these waters. And the Coral Triangle is home to six of the world’s seven species of marine turtles.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Rotavirus
- It is a leading cause of severe diarrhoea and death among children less than five years of age
- It is highly contagious disease
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Rotavirus:
- Rotavirus is a leading cause of severe diarrhoea and death among children less than five years of age.
- It is responsible for around 10% of total child mortality every year.
Rotavirus-Signs and Symptoms:
- Kids with a rotavirus infection have fever, nausea, and vomiting, often followed by abdominal cramps and frequent, watery diarrhea.\
- Kids may also have a cough and runny nose.
- Sometimes the diarrhea that accompanies a rotavirus infection is so severe that it can quickly lead to dehydration.
- As with all viruses, though, some rotavirus infections cause few or no symptoms, especially in adults.
Transmission:
- Rotavirus is transmitted by the faecal-oral route, via contact with contaminated hands, surfaces and objects, and possibly by the respiratory route. Viral diarrhea is highly contagious.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Rotavirus:
- Rotavirus is a leading cause of severe diarrhoea and death among children less than five years of age.
- It is responsible for around 10% of total child mortality every year.
Rotavirus-Signs and Symptoms:
- Kids with a rotavirus infection have fever, nausea, and vomiting, often followed by abdominal cramps and frequent, watery diarrhea.\
- Kids may also have a cough and runny nose.
- Sometimes the diarrhea that accompanies a rotavirus infection is so severe that it can quickly lead to dehydration.
- As with all viruses, though, some rotavirus infections cause few or no symptoms, especially in adults.
Transmission:
- Rotavirus is transmitted by the faecal-oral route, via contact with contaminated hands, surfaces and objects, and possibly by the respiratory route. Viral diarrhea is highly contagious.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs
Protected Areas Known for:
- Dachigam National Park Kashmir stag
- Sipahijala Wildlife Sanctuary Hoolock gibbon
- Silent Valley National Park Lion-tailed macaque
How many of the pairs given above is/are matched correctly?
Correct
Solution: C
Dachigam National Park is located 22 kilometers from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. It covers an area of 141 km². The name of the park literally stands for “ten villages” which could be in memory of the ten villages that were relocated for its formation. Dachigam National Park is home to the endangered Kashmir stag or hangul.
Sipahijala Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area located in the state of Tripura. The sanctuary is spread over an area of 18.53 square kilometers and is known for its rich biodiversity and stunning natural beauty. It is home to a wide variety of primates, including the endangered spectacled langur, the capped langur, and the hoolock gibbon.
Silent Valley National Park, is a national park in Kerala, India. It is located in the Nilgiri hills, has a core area of 89.52 km², which is surrounded by a buffer zone of 148 km². This national park has some rare species of flora and fauna. This area was explored in 1847 by the botanist Robert Wight. The park is home to a wide variety of rare and endemic species, including the lion-tailed macaque, Nilgiri langur, Malabar giant squirrel, and the endangered Nilgiri tahr. It also has over 100 species of orchids, including the rare and endangered Slipper Orchid.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Dachigam National Park is located 22 kilometers from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. It covers an area of 141 km². The name of the park literally stands for “ten villages” which could be in memory of the ten villages that were relocated for its formation. Dachigam National Park is home to the endangered Kashmir stag or hangul.
Sipahijala Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area located in the state of Tripura. The sanctuary is spread over an area of 18.53 square kilometers and is known for its rich biodiversity and stunning natural beauty. It is home to a wide variety of primates, including the endangered spectacled langur, the capped langur, and the hoolock gibbon.
Silent Valley National Park, is a national park in Kerala, India. It is located in the Nilgiri hills, has a core area of 89.52 km², which is surrounded by a buffer zone of 148 km². This national park has some rare species of flora and fauna. This area was explored in 1847 by the botanist Robert Wight. The park is home to a wide variety of rare and endemic species, including the lion-tailed macaque, Nilgiri langur, Malabar giant squirrel, and the endangered Nilgiri tahr. It also has over 100 species of orchids, including the rare and endangered Slipper Orchid.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following sites is/are the ecological hotspots of the World?
- Atlantic Forests, Brazil
- Eastern Ghats
- Central American Highland Forests
- Western Himalayas
Select the correct the answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: B
Ecological hotspots are areas with outstanding biodiversity or a high concentration of biological values.
These values can refer to threatened or endemic species, unique ecosystems, or globally important numbers of a particular species. The concept is based on an approach in which conservation activities and funds focus on a relatively small number of key sites for biodiversity.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Ecological hotspots are areas with outstanding biodiversity or a high concentration of biological values.
These values can refer to threatened or endemic species, unique ecosystems, or globally important numbers of a particular species. The concept is based on an approach in which conservation activities and funds focus on a relatively small number of key sites for biodiversity.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following commodities/products is/are considered as Minor Forest Produce?
- Bamboo
- Teak
- Karanjee
- Tamarind
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: A
Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is more often than not determined by the traders instead of self-sustained process of demand and supply. Implementing a scheme to ensure that such forest dwellers are not deprived of their due. Under the scheme maximum selling price for MFP is being implemented in schedule V States initially. Web based portal has also been developed which indicate current price of MFPs on real time basis across different mandis of the States.
Included MFP Products
- Tendu Leave
- Bamboo
- Mahuwa Seeds
- Sal Leaf
- Sal Seed
- Lac
- Chironjee
- Wild Honey
- Myrobalan
- Tamarind
- Gums (Gum Karaya) and
- Karanji.
Teak is a timber species and is not considered as Minor Forest Produce.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is more often than not determined by the traders instead of self-sustained process of demand and supply. Implementing a scheme to ensure that such forest dwellers are not deprived of their due. Under the scheme maximum selling price for MFP is being implemented in schedule V States initially. Web based portal has also been developed which indicate current price of MFPs on real time basis across different mandis of the States.
Included MFP Products
- Tendu Leave
- Bamboo
- Mahuwa Seeds
- Sal Leaf
- Sal Seed
- Lac
- Chironjee
- Wild Honey
- Myrobalan
- Tamarind
- Gums (Gum Karaya) and
- Karanji.
Teak is a timber species and is not considered as Minor Forest Produce.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsIsrael has borders with which of the following countries.
- Syria
- Jordan
- Iraq
- Saudi Arabia
- Lebanon
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution: A
Israel is a Middle Eastern country located on the eastern shore of the Mediterranean Sea. It shares borders with five other countries in the region:
- Lebanon to the north, with a land border that is approximately 79 kilometers long.
- Egypt to the south, with a land border that is approximately 266 kilometers long.
- Jordan to the east, although the border between Israel and Jordan is mostly made up of the Jordan River and the Dead Sea.
- The Palestinian territories of the West Bank and Gaza Strip to the east and west respectively.
- Syria to the northeast, with a land border that is approximately 76 kilometers long.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Israel is a Middle Eastern country located on the eastern shore of the Mediterranean Sea. It shares borders with five other countries in the region:
- Lebanon to the north, with a land border that is approximately 79 kilometers long.
- Egypt to the south, with a land border that is approximately 266 kilometers long.
- Jordan to the east, although the border between Israel and Jordan is mostly made up of the Jordan River and the Dead Sea.
- The Palestinian territories of the West Bank and Gaza Strip to the east and west respectively.
- Syria to the northeast, with a land border that is approximately 76 kilometers long.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Deepor Beel:
- It is situated in the state of Arunachal Pradesh
- It has been designated as a Ramsar Site
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Deepor Beel is a freshwater lake located in the state of Assam. Deepor Beel is home to a wide variety of flora and fauna. Some of the bird species found here include the greater adjutant stork, Pallas’s fish eagle, and the Baikal teal.
It has been designated as a Ramsar Site, which is an international recognition for wetlands of international importance. The site is recognized for its ecological, cultural, scientific, and recreational values.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Deepor Beel is a freshwater lake located in the state of Assam. Deepor Beel is home to a wide variety of flora and fauna. Some of the bird species found here include the greater adjutant stork, Pallas’s fish eagle, and the Baikal teal.
It has been designated as a Ramsar Site, which is an international recognition for wetlands of international importance. The site is recognized for its ecological, cultural, scientific, and recreational values.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following events is the last one to take place?
Correct
Solution: C
Dharmapala founded the Vikramasila University in the 8th century, while the Brihadeesvara temple was constructed in the 11th century. The first battle of Tarain was fought in 1191 CE.
Marco Polo, the Italian explorer, visited India during the late 13th century.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Dharmapala founded the Vikramasila University in the 8th century, while the Brihadeesvara temple was constructed in the 11th century. The first battle of Tarain was fought in 1191 CE.
Marco Polo, the Italian explorer, visited India during the late 13th century.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Kelp Forests:
- They are underwater ecosystems that are dominated by large brown algae
- These forests are found in shallow, nutrient-rich waters along rocky coastlines in cold, temperate oceans around the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Kelp forests are underwater ecosystems that are dominated by large brown algae known as kelp. These forests are found in shallow, nutrient-rich waters along rocky coastlines in cold, temperate oceans around the world.
Kelp forests are home to a wide variety of marine life, including fish, invertebrates, and mammals. These ecosystems support a high level of biodiversity and are often compared to rainforests in terms of their importance for the environment.
Kelp is a type of seaweed that can grow at a rate of up to 30 cm per day, making it one of the fastest-growing organisms on the planet. Kelp can grow up to 30 meters in length, forming dense forests that provide shelter and food for many species.
Kelp forests are also important for carbon sequestration, as they absorb and store large amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Kelp forests are underwater ecosystems that are dominated by large brown algae known as kelp. These forests are found in shallow, nutrient-rich waters along rocky coastlines in cold, temperate oceans around the world.
Kelp forests are home to a wide variety of marine life, including fish, invertebrates, and mammals. These ecosystems support a high level of biodiversity and are often compared to rainforests in terms of their importance for the environment.
Kelp is a type of seaweed that can grow at a rate of up to 30 cm per day, making it one of the fastest-growing organisms on the planet. Kelp can grow up to 30 meters in length, forming dense forests that provide shelter and food for many species.
Kelp forests are also important for carbon sequestration, as they absorb and store large amounts of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsA sanctuary may be defined as a place where Man is passive and the rest of Nature active. Till quite recently Nature had her own sanctuaries, where man either did not go at all or only as a tool-using animal in comparatively small numbers. But now, in this machinery age, there is no place left where man cannot go with overwhelming forces at his command. He can strangle to death all the nobler wild life in the world to-day. To-morrow he certainly will have done so, unless he exercises due foresight and self-control in the meantime.
There is not the slightest doubt that birds and mammals are now being killed off much faster than they can breed. And it is always the largest and noblest forms of life that suffer most. The whales and elephants, lions and eagles, go. The rats and flies, and all mean parasites, remain. This is inevitable in certain cases. But it is wanton killing off that I am speaking of tonight. Civilized man begins by destroying the very forms of wild life he learns to appreciate most when he becomes still more civilized. The obvious remedy is to begin conservation at an earlier stage, when it is easier and better in every way, by enforcing laws for close seasons, game preserves, the selective protection of certain species, and sanctuaries.
I have just defined a sanctuary as a place where man is passive and the rest of Nature active. But this general definition is too absolute for any special case. The mere fact that man has to protect a sanctuary does away with his purely passive attitude. Then, he can be beneficially active by destroying pests and parasites, like bot-flies or mosquitoes, and by finding antidotes for diseases like the epidemic which periodically kills off the rabbits and thus starves many of the carnivora to death. But, except in cases where experiment has proved his intervention to be beneficial, the less he upsets the balance of Nature the better, even when he tries to be an earthly Providence.
Which of the following is the essential message being conveyed by the author?
Correct
Ans. C.
The author in his last paragraph warns the man against his attitude and suggests not to create disturbance in ecological system and should have foresight for his own benefit which is the central message of the passage
Incorrect
Ans. C.
The author in his last paragraph warns the man against his attitude and suggests not to create disturbance in ecological system and should have foresight for his own benefit which is the central message of the passage
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA sanctuary may be defined as a place where Man is passive and the rest of Nature active. Till quite recently Nature had her own sanctuaries, where man either did not go at all or only as a tool-using animal in comparatively small numbers. But now, in this machinery age, there is no place left where man cannot go with overwhelming forces at his command. He can strangle to death all the nobler wild life in the world to-day. To-morrow he certainly will have done so, unless he exercises due foresight and self-control in the meantime.
There is not the slightest doubt that birds and mammals are now being killed off much faster than they can breed. And it is always the largest and noblest forms of life that suffer most. The whales and elephants, lions and eagles, go. The rats and flies, and all mean parasites, remain. This is inevitable in certain cases. But it is wanton killing off that I am speaking of tonight. Civilized man begins by destroying the very forms of wild life he learns to appreciate most when he becomes still more civilized. The obvious remedy is to begin conservation at an earlier stage, when it is easier and better in every way, by enforcing laws for close seasons, game preserves, the selective protection of certain species, and sanctuaries.
I have just defined a sanctuary as a place where man is passive and the rest of Nature active. But this general definition is too absolute for any special case. The mere fact that man has to protect a sanctuary does away with his purely passive attitude. Then, he can be beneficially active by destroying pests and parasites, like bot-flies or mosquitoes, and by finding antidotes for diseases like the epidemic which periodically kills off the rabbits and thus starves many of the carnivora to death. But, except in cases where experiment has proved his intervention to be beneficial, the less he upsets the balance of Nature the better, even when he tries to be an earthly Providence.
The author’s argument that destroying bot-flies and mosquitoes would be a beneficial action is most weakened by all of the following except
- Parasites have an important role to play in the regulation of populations
- The elimination of any species can have unpredictable effects on the balance of nature
- The pests themselves are part of the food chain
- These insects have been introduced to the area by human activities
Correct
Ans. D.
In “except” questions find the true statements first. In this case find four statements that weaken the idea that destroying pests is beneficial. That means finding statements that show that it is not a good idea to destroy the pests. Answers A, B, C, and E give reasons why destroying these insects might be a mistake. D, however, is the right answer because it suggests that eliminating these insects might not be wrong, since they are not even natural inhabitants of the area.
Incorrect
Ans. D.
In “except” questions find the true statements first. In this case find four statements that weaken the idea that destroying pests is beneficial. That means finding statements that show that it is not a good idea to destroy the pests. Answers A, B, C, and E give reasons why destroying these insects might be a mistake. D, however, is the right answer because it suggests that eliminating these insects might not be wrong, since they are not even natural inhabitants of the area.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsCorrect
Answer: Option a)
Explanation:
The fig. (X) is similar to the Form I. So, when the sheet shown in fig. (X) is folded to form a cube then one of the two half-shaded faces lies opposite to one of the blank faces and the other half-shaded face lies opposite to another blank face. The two remaining blank faces lie opposite to each other. Thus, both the cubes shown in figures (1).and (4) can be formed when the sheet shown in fig. (X) is folded. Also, though the cubes shown in figures (2) and (3) have faces that can appear adjacent to each other but the cube formed by folding the sheet in fig. (X) cannot be rotated to form either of the two. Hence, the cubes in figures (2) and (3) cannot be formed.
Incorrect
Answer: Option a)
Explanation:
The fig. (X) is similar to the Form I. So, when the sheet shown in fig. (X) is folded to form a cube then one of the two half-shaded faces lies opposite to one of the blank faces and the other half-shaded face lies opposite to another blank face. The two remaining blank faces lie opposite to each other. Thus, both the cubes shown in figures (1).and (4) can be formed when the sheet shown in fig. (X) is folded. Also, though the cubes shown in figures (2) and (3) have faces that can appear adjacent to each other but the cube formed by folding the sheet in fig. (X) cannot be rotated to form either of the two. Hence, the cubes in figures (2) and (3) cannot be formed.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThe six faces of a dice have been marked with alphabets A, B, C, D, E and F respectively. This dice is rolled down three times. The three positions are shown as:
Find the alphabet opposite A.
Correct
Answer: Option C)
Explanation:
From figures (ii) and (iii), we conclude that the alphabets C, D, B and F appear adjacent to the alphabet E. Therefore, the alphabet A appears opposite E. Conversely, E appears opposite A.
Incorrect
Answer: Option C)
Explanation:
From figures (ii) and (iii), we conclude that the alphabets C, D, B and F appear adjacent to the alphabet E. Therefore, the alphabet A appears opposite E. Conversely, E appears opposite A.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 points
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