INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
Click Here to Download the Insta Test PDF
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Khejri tree
- It is mainly found in Evergreen and semi-evergreen vegetation in the Indian sub-continent.
- The tree is frost and drought resistant.
- Khejri is a nitrogen-fixing tree which enhances the fertility of the soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Rajasthan’s State tree — Khejri — is dying a slow death.
Khejri (Prosopis cineraria) covers about two-thirds of the total geographical area of the State and and is of immense significance culturally and economically. The tree supports rural economy like no other wild vegetation does.
Khejri (Prosopis cineraria) is one of the most common tree species found in India (in the dry regions of Rajasthan, Delhi, Gujarat, Punjab and Madhya Pradesh), Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan. It plays a vital role in preserving the ecosystem of arid and semi-arid areas, mainly in the Thar Desert. The tree is frost and drought resistant and tolerates extreme temperature ranging from 40–45 0C in summer to less than 10 0C in winter. It is capable of growing in areas of rainfall ranging from 100–600 mm. The tree can withstand the hottest winds, the driest season and stay alive where other plants cannot survive.
It can be safely said that khejri is a tree of the desert. The tree grows on a variety of soil but prefers alluvial, consisting of various mixtures of sand and clay. It can tolerate moderate salinity of soil but dries up in very high salinity. It also acts as an effective soil binder and is a great stabilising agent in sandy soils. Khejri though is rarely seen in hilly areas. When it grows on hilly soil in high rainfall zones, its growth is stunted and fruiting is poor.
The tree is honoured and worshipped by the Bishnoi community.
Khejri is a nitrogen-fixing tree which enhances the fertility of the soil. It supports agricultural crops when sown under and around it. When planted along the boundary of farmland, khejri acts as an effective wind break and protects the plants from the desert winds. It also provides a rich source of bio-matter for the soil when it sheds its foliage.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Rajasthan’s State tree — Khejri — is dying a slow death.
Khejri (Prosopis cineraria) covers about two-thirds of the total geographical area of the State and and is of immense significance culturally and economically. The tree supports rural economy like no other wild vegetation does.
Khejri (Prosopis cineraria) is one of the most common tree species found in India (in the dry regions of Rajasthan, Delhi, Gujarat, Punjab and Madhya Pradesh), Afghanistan, Iran, and Pakistan. It plays a vital role in preserving the ecosystem of arid and semi-arid areas, mainly in the Thar Desert. The tree is frost and drought resistant and tolerates extreme temperature ranging from 40–45 0C in summer to less than 10 0C in winter. It is capable of growing in areas of rainfall ranging from 100–600 mm. The tree can withstand the hottest winds, the driest season and stay alive where other plants cannot survive.
It can be safely said that khejri is a tree of the desert. The tree grows on a variety of soil but prefers alluvial, consisting of various mixtures of sand and clay. It can tolerate moderate salinity of soil but dries up in very high salinity. It also acts as an effective soil binder and is a great stabilising agent in sandy soils. Khejri though is rarely seen in hilly areas. When it grows on hilly soil in high rainfall zones, its growth is stunted and fruiting is poor.
The tree is honoured and worshipped by the Bishnoi community.
Khejri is a nitrogen-fixing tree which enhances the fertility of the soil. It supports agricultural crops when sown under and around it. When planted along the boundary of farmland, khejri acts as an effective wind break and protects the plants from the desert winds. It also provides a rich source of bio-matter for the soil when it sheds its foliage.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding World Organization for Animal Health (WOAH)
- It is an intergovernmental organization coordinating, supporting and promoting animal disease control.
- The main objective of the WOAH is to control epizootic diseases and thus to prevent their spread.
- WOAH is one of the standard-setting bodies recognized by the Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
World Organization for Animal Health (WOAH)
World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH), formerly the Office International des Epizooties (OIE), is an intergovernmental organization coordinating, supporting and promoting animal disease control.
The main objective of the WOAH is to control epizootic diseases and thus to prevent their spread.
These missions are achieved through various activities, including the establishment of standards, guidelines and recommendations pertaining to animal health.
WOAH (founded as OIE) is one of the standard-setting bodies recognized by the Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures. Collaboration between the WTO and WOAH concerns the use of international standards in the context of the SPS Agreement.
Incorrect
Solution: D
World Organization for Animal Health (WOAH)
World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH), formerly the Office International des Epizooties (OIE), is an intergovernmental organization coordinating, supporting and promoting animal disease control.
The main objective of the WOAH is to control epizootic diseases and thus to prevent their spread.
These missions are achieved through various activities, including the establishment of standards, guidelines and recommendations pertaining to animal health.
WOAH (founded as OIE) is one of the standard-setting bodies recognized by the Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures. Collaboration between the WTO and WOAH concerns the use of international standards in the context of the SPS Agreement.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ozone
- Ozone molecules are created by the interaction of ultra-violet (UV) radiation from the Sun with O2 molecules.
- The ozone layer is important because it has the property of absorbing all the UV-A radiation, the most damaging form of UV radiation.
- Ozone layer is responsible for stratospheric temperature inversion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Oxygen (O2) makes up 21% of the Earth’s atmosphere, and ozone makes up less than 0.001%.
Ozone molecules are created by the interaction of ultra-violet (UV) radiation from the Sun with O2 molecules: when an O2 molecule is split, the two free oxygen atoms will bond with other O2 molecules to form O3 molecules. Because UV radiation is more intense at higher altitudes where the air is thinner, it is in the stratosphere where most of the ozone is produced, giving rise to what is called the ‘ozone layer’ as shown in the figure below. The ozone layer extends between about 10 and 40km altitude, peaking at about 25km.
The ozone layer is very important for life on Earth because it has the property of absorbing the most damaging form of UV radiation, UV-B radiation. This has a wavelength of between 280 and 315 nanometres. As UV radiation is absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere, it heats up the surrounding air to produce the stratospheric temperature inversion.
UV radiation spectrum is divided into three regions called UVA, UVB and UVC. As sunlight passes through the atmosphere, all UVC and most UVB is absorbed by ozone, water vapour, oxygen and carbon dioxide. UVA is not filtered as significantly by the atmosphere.
Short-wavelength UV-C is the most damaging type of UV radiation. However, it is completely filtered by the atmosphere and does not reach the earth’s surface.
Ozone can also be formed at ground level to produce ‘photochemical smog’; and, as ozone is a toxic gas, there is a health hazard when ozone reaches high levels. This problem occurs primarily in the summer in cities with a high amount of traffic when sunlight interacts with car exhaust fumes containing nitrogen oxides.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Oxygen (O2) makes up 21% of the Earth’s atmosphere, and ozone makes up less than 0.001%.
Ozone molecules are created by the interaction of ultra-violet (UV) radiation from the Sun with O2 molecules: when an O2 molecule is split, the two free oxygen atoms will bond with other O2 molecules to form O3 molecules. Because UV radiation is more intense at higher altitudes where the air is thinner, it is in the stratosphere where most of the ozone is produced, giving rise to what is called the ‘ozone layer’ as shown in the figure below. The ozone layer extends between about 10 and 40km altitude, peaking at about 25km.
The ozone layer is very important for life on Earth because it has the property of absorbing the most damaging form of UV radiation, UV-B radiation. This has a wavelength of between 280 and 315 nanometres. As UV radiation is absorbed by ozone in the stratosphere, it heats up the surrounding air to produce the stratospheric temperature inversion.
UV radiation spectrum is divided into three regions called UVA, UVB and UVC. As sunlight passes through the atmosphere, all UVC and most UVB is absorbed by ozone, water vapour, oxygen and carbon dioxide. UVA is not filtered as significantly by the atmosphere.
Short-wavelength UV-C is the most damaging type of UV radiation. However, it is completely filtered by the atmosphere and does not reach the earth’s surface.
Ozone can also be formed at ground level to produce ‘photochemical smog’; and, as ozone is a toxic gas, there is a health hazard when ozone reaches high levels. This problem occurs primarily in the summer in cities with a high amount of traffic when sunlight interacts with car exhaust fumes containing nitrogen oxides.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian Knowledge System (IKS)
- It is an innovative cell under Ministry of Education (MoE) at University Grants Commission (UGC).
- It will actively engage for spreading the rich heritage of our country and traditional knowledge in the field of Arts and literature, Agriculture, Basic Sciences, Engineering & Technology, Architecture, Management, Economics, etc.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Indian Knowledge System (IKS) is an innovative cell under Ministry of Education (MoE) at AICTE, New Delhi. It is established to promote interdisciplinary research on all aspects of IKS, preserve and disseminate IKS for further research and societal applications. It will actively engage for spreading the rich heritage of our country and traditional knowledge in the field of Arts and literature, Agriculture, Basic Sciences, Engineering & Technology, Architecture, Management, Economics, etc.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Indian Knowledge System (IKS) is an innovative cell under Ministry of Education (MoE) at AICTE, New Delhi. It is established to promote interdisciplinary research on all aspects of IKS, preserve and disseminate IKS for further research and societal applications. It will actively engage for spreading the rich heritage of our country and traditional knowledge in the field of Arts and literature, Agriculture, Basic Sciences, Engineering & Technology, Architecture, Management, Economics, etc.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding PM SVANidhi
- The scheme is a Central Sector Scheme i.e., fully funded by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
- It aims to facilitate working capital loan up to Rs 10 lakhs for street vendors.
- Only the street vendors in possession of Certificate of Vending / Identity Card issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) are eligible under this scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
PM SVANidhi
Objectives
The scheme is a Central Sector Scheme i.e. fully funded by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs with the following objectives: (i) To facilitate working capital loan up to `10,000; (ii) To incentivize regular repayment; and (iii) To reward digital transactions
The scheme will help formalize the street vendors with above objectives and will open up new opportunities to this sector to move up the economic ladder.
The Scheme is available to all street vendors engaged in vending in urban areas as on or before March 24, 2020. The eligible vendors will be identified as per following criteria:
(i) Street vendors in possession of Certificate of Vending / Identity Card issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs);
(ii) The vendors, who have been identified in the survey but have not been issued Certificate of Vending / Identity Card;
(iii) Street Vendors, left out of the ULB identification survey or who have started vending after completion of the survey and have been issued Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB / Town Vending Committee (TVC); and
(iv) The vendors of surrounding development/ peri-urban / rural areas vending in the geographical limits of the ULBs and have been issued Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB / TVC.
Incorrect
Solution: A
PM SVANidhi
Objectives
The scheme is a Central Sector Scheme i.e. fully funded by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs with the following objectives: (i) To facilitate working capital loan up to `10,000; (ii) To incentivize regular repayment; and (iii) To reward digital transactions
The scheme will help formalize the street vendors with above objectives and will open up new opportunities to this sector to move up the economic ladder.
The Scheme is available to all street vendors engaged in vending in urban areas as on or before March 24, 2020. The eligible vendors will be identified as per following criteria:
(i) Street vendors in possession of Certificate of Vending / Identity Card issued by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs);
(ii) The vendors, who have been identified in the survey but have not been issued Certificate of Vending / Identity Card;
(iii) Street Vendors, left out of the ULB identification survey or who have started vending after completion of the survey and have been issued Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB / Town Vending Committee (TVC); and
(iv) The vendors of surrounding development/ peri-urban / rural areas vending in the geographical limits of the ULBs and have been issued Letter of Recommendation (LoR) to that effect by the ULB / TVC.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Capacity Building Commission
- It is the custodian of the civil services capacity building ecosystem.
- The Commission will determine the roll out strategy for Mission Karmayogi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Capacity Building Commission was constituted through the Gazette of India on 1 April 2021. As the custodian of the civil services capacity building ecosystem, the commission is mandated to perform the following functions:
- Facilitate preparation of Annual Capacity Building Plans of departments, ministries and agencies.
- Make Policy recommendations to DoPT on personnel/ HR and Capacity Building.
- Evolve a harmonious de-siloed approach to improve civil service capacity.
- Analyze learning/ competency related data from iGOT-Karmayogi, online training platform.
- Drive standardization, harmonization and shared understanding of Capacity Building activities.
- Create shared learning resources, including internal and external faculty and resource centers.
- Exercise functional supervision over all Central Training Institutions.
- Undertake audit of Human Resources in Government and outcomes of the Capacity Building efforts.
- Approve Knowledge Partners and Content Validation mechanism for training of civil servants.
- Organize a global HR Summit to bring best practices of human resource management to the governance in India.
- Facilitate preparation of Annual Capacity Building Plans of departments, ministries and agencies.
Capacity Building Commission has been setup as envisaged under Mission Karmayogi.
Capacity Building Commission shall determine the roll out strategy of National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB) – Mission Karmayogi.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Capacity Building Commission was constituted through the Gazette of India on 1 April 2021. As the custodian of the civil services capacity building ecosystem, the commission is mandated to perform the following functions:
- Facilitate preparation of Annual Capacity Building Plans of departments, ministries and agencies.
- Make Policy recommendations to DoPT on personnel/ HR and Capacity Building.
- Evolve a harmonious de-siloed approach to improve civil service capacity.
- Analyze learning/ competency related data from iGOT-Karmayogi, online training platform.
- Drive standardization, harmonization and shared understanding of Capacity Building activities.
- Create shared learning resources, including internal and external faculty and resource centers.
- Exercise functional supervision over all Central Training Institutions.
- Undertake audit of Human Resources in Government and outcomes of the Capacity Building efforts.
- Approve Knowledge Partners and Content Validation mechanism for training of civil servants.
- Organize a global HR Summit to bring best practices of human resource management to the governance in India.
- Facilitate preparation of Annual Capacity Building Plans of departments, ministries and agencies.
Capacity Building Commission has been setup as envisaged under Mission Karmayogi.
Capacity Building Commission shall determine the roll out strategy of National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB) – Mission Karmayogi.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Supply Chain Ministerial Forum
- It is forum to work together, in an effort to alleviate near-term transportation, logistics, and supply chain disruptions and bottlenecks.
- India and China are members of this forum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Australia, Brazil, Canada, Costa Rica, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the European Union, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, the Netherlands, the Republic of Korea, Singapore, Spain, the United Kingdom, and the United States, following engagement at the 2022 Supply Chain Ministerial Forum, intend to work together on crisis response in an effort to alleviate near-term transportation, logistics, and supply chain disruptions and bottlenecks as well as the long-term resilience challenges that make our supply chains vulnerable and cause spillover effects for consumers, large and small businesses, workers, and families.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Australia, Brazil, Canada, Costa Rica, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the European Union, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, the Netherlands, the Republic of Korea, Singapore, Spain, the United Kingdom, and the United States, following engagement at the 2022 Supply Chain Ministerial Forum, intend to work together on crisis response in an effort to alleviate near-term transportation, logistics, and supply chain disruptions and bottlenecks as well as the long-term resilience challenges that make our supply chains vulnerable and cause spillover effects for consumers, large and small businesses, workers, and families.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)
- It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages.
- It can take up to 4,000 kg of payload to Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbits of 600 km altitude.
- It is a three-stage launch vehicle, with cryogenic propellant as its final stage.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is the third generation launch vehicle of India. It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages. After its first successful launch in October 1994, PSLV emerged as a reliable and versatile workhorse launch vehicle of India.
The PSLV is capable of placing multiple payloads into orbit, thus multi-payload adaptors are used in the payload fairing.
It can take up to 1,750 kg of payload to Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbits of 600 km altitude.
PSLV has also been used to launch various satellites into Geosynchronous and Geostationary orbits.
It is a four stage launch vehicle.
- A large solid rocket motor forming the first stage,
- An earth storable liquid stage as the second stage,
- A high performance solid rocket motor as third stage, and
- A liquid stage with engines as fourth stage.
LVM3 is configured as a three stage vehicle with two solid strap-on motors (S200), one liquid core stage (L110) and a high thrust cryogenic upper stage (C25).
Incorrect
Solution: A
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is the third generation launch vehicle of India. It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages. After its first successful launch in October 1994, PSLV emerged as a reliable and versatile workhorse launch vehicle of India.
The PSLV is capable of placing multiple payloads into orbit, thus multi-payload adaptors are used in the payload fairing.
It can take up to 1,750 kg of payload to Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbits of 600 km altitude.
PSLV has also been used to launch various satellites into Geosynchronous and Geostationary orbits.
It is a four stage launch vehicle.
- A large solid rocket motor forming the first stage,
- An earth storable liquid stage as the second stage,
- A high performance solid rocket motor as third stage, and
- A liquid stage with engines as fourth stage.
LVM3 is configured as a three stage vehicle with two solid strap-on motors (S200), one liquid core stage (L110) and a high thrust cryogenic upper stage (C25).
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015
- Before 2015, grant of mineral resources was through ‘first-come-first-serve’ method.
- Under the act, E-Auction was made mandatory for the grant of mineral concession.
- The act provided for establishing District Mineral Foundation Trust for the welfare of mining affected areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015
The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 regulates the mining sector in India and mandates the requirement for granting leases for mining operations.
Before 2015, grant of mineral resources was through ‘first-come-first-serve’ method which was discretionary and decision making was not transparent.
The Act was comprehensively amended in 2015 to bring several reforms in the mineral sector, notably:
- Mandating auction of mineral concessions to improve transparency.
- Establishing District Mineral Foundation and National Mineral Exploration Trust.
- Stringent penalty for illegal mining.
Ø To remedy the basic structural defects of the mining sector and infuse greater ease of doing business, the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (MMDR) Amendment Ordinance, 2015 was promulgated on 12thJanuary 2015, which was replaced by the MMDR Amendment Act, 2015.
Salient features of MMDR Amendment Act, 2015
- E-Auction was made mandatory for the grant of mineral concession to ensure transparent method of allotments of mineral wealth.
- Need for renewals and prior approvals was removed for ease of doing business and removing discretions.
- Provided for establishing District Mineral Foundation Trust for the welfare of mining affected areas by using contributions from the mining companies.
- National Mineral Exploration Trust was established for regional and detailed mineral exploration in the country.
- Penal provisions were made more stringent to deter illegal mining activities. Further, provision was made for constitution of special courts by the State Governments for fast-track trial of cases of illegal mining.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015
The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 regulates the mining sector in India and mandates the requirement for granting leases for mining operations.
Before 2015, grant of mineral resources was through ‘first-come-first-serve’ method which was discretionary and decision making was not transparent.
The Act was comprehensively amended in 2015 to bring several reforms in the mineral sector, notably:
- Mandating auction of mineral concessions to improve transparency.
- Establishing District Mineral Foundation and National Mineral Exploration Trust.
- Stringent penalty for illegal mining.
Ø To remedy the basic structural defects of the mining sector and infuse greater ease of doing business, the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (MMDR) Amendment Ordinance, 2015 was promulgated on 12thJanuary 2015, which was replaced by the MMDR Amendment Act, 2015.
Salient features of MMDR Amendment Act, 2015
- E-Auction was made mandatory for the grant of mineral concession to ensure transparent method of allotments of mineral wealth.
- Need for renewals and prior approvals was removed for ease of doing business and removing discretions.
- Provided for establishing District Mineral Foundation Trust for the welfare of mining affected areas by using contributions from the mining companies.
- National Mineral Exploration Trust was established for regional and detailed mineral exploration in the country.
- Penal provisions were made more stringent to deter illegal mining activities. Further, provision was made for constitution of special courts by the State Governments for fast-track trial of cases of illegal mining.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Special Economic Zones (SEZs)
- Asia’s first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) was set up in Mumbai in 1965.
- The SEZ Act 2005 envisages key role for the State Governments in Export Promotion and creation of related infrastructure.
- The functioning of the SEZs is governed by a three-tier administrative set up, with Board of Approval as the apex body and is headed by the Minister of Commerce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
India was one of the first in Asia to recognize the effectiveness of the Export Processing Zone (EPZ) model in promoting exports, with Asia’s first EPZ set up in Kandla in 1965.
Special Economic Zones (SEZs) Policy was announced in April 2000.
This policy intended to make SEZs an engine for economic growth supported by quality infrastructure complemented by an attractive fiscal package, both at the Centre and the State level, with the minimum possible regulations. SEZs in India functioned from 1.11.2000 to 09.02.2006 under the provisions of the Foreign Trade Policy and fiscal incentives were made effective through the provisions of relevant statutes.
To instill confidence in investors and signal the Government’s commitment to a stable SEZ policy regime and with a view to impart stability to the SEZ regime thereby generating greater economic activity and employment through the establishment of SEZs, a comprehensive draft SEZ Bill prepared after extensive discussions with the stakeholders. A number of meetings were held in various parts of the country both by the Minister for Commerce and Industry as well as senior officials for this purpose. The Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, was passed by Parliament in May, 2005 which received Presidential assent on the 23rd of June, 2005. The main objectives of the SEZ Act are:
- generation of additional economic activity
- promotion of exports of goods and services
- promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources
- creation of employment opportunities
- development of infrastructure facilities
The SEZ Act 2005 envisages key role for the State Governments in Export Promotion and creation of related infrastructure. A Single Window SEZ approval mechanism has been provided through a 19 member inter-ministerial SEZ Board of Approval (BoA). The applications duly recommended by the respective State Governments/UT Administration are considered by this BoA periodically. All decisions of the Board of approvals are with consensus.
The functioning of the SEZs is governed by a three tier administrative set up. The Board of Approval is the apex body and is headed by the Secretary, Department of Commerce.
Incorrect
Solution: B
India was one of the first in Asia to recognize the effectiveness of the Export Processing Zone (EPZ) model in promoting exports, with Asia’s first EPZ set up in Kandla in 1965.
Special Economic Zones (SEZs) Policy was announced in April 2000.
This policy intended to make SEZs an engine for economic growth supported by quality infrastructure complemented by an attractive fiscal package, both at the Centre and the State level, with the minimum possible regulations. SEZs in India functioned from 1.11.2000 to 09.02.2006 under the provisions of the Foreign Trade Policy and fiscal incentives were made effective through the provisions of relevant statutes.
To instill confidence in investors and signal the Government’s commitment to a stable SEZ policy regime and with a view to impart stability to the SEZ regime thereby generating greater economic activity and employment through the establishment of SEZs, a comprehensive draft SEZ Bill prepared after extensive discussions with the stakeholders. A number of meetings were held in various parts of the country both by the Minister for Commerce and Industry as well as senior officials for this purpose. The Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, was passed by Parliament in May, 2005 which received Presidential assent on the 23rd of June, 2005. The main objectives of the SEZ Act are:
- generation of additional economic activity
- promotion of exports of goods and services
- promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources
- creation of employment opportunities
- development of infrastructure facilities
The SEZ Act 2005 envisages key role for the State Governments in Export Promotion and creation of related infrastructure. A Single Window SEZ approval mechanism has been provided through a 19 member inter-ministerial SEZ Board of Approval (BoA). The applications duly recommended by the respective State Governments/UT Administration are considered by this BoA periodically. All decisions of the Board of approvals are with consensus.
The functioning of the SEZs is governed by a three tier administrative set up. The Board of Approval is the apex body and is headed by the Secretary, Department of Commerce.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Doom Loop
- Doom loop describes a scenario in which one negative factor creates another negative factor, which in turn worsens the first or creates a third, similar to a vicious cycle.
- The Greek debt crisis is a good example of a doom loop.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What Is a Doom Loop?
Doom loop describes a scenario in which one negative factor creates another negative factor, which in turn worsens the first or creates a third, similar to a vicious cycle.
- Excess government debt can trigger an economic doom loop, as happened in Greece in 2010.1
- A weak banking system (or one overexposed to risk) can also trigger a doom loop, as happened in the 2008 global financial crisis.
- Intervention in the form of a bailout is usually needed to break a doom loop.
- The Greek debt crisis is a good example of a doom loop.
- The term was popularized in the 2001 management book Good to Great by Jim Collins.
Incorrect
Solution: C
What Is a Doom Loop?
Doom loop describes a scenario in which one negative factor creates another negative factor, which in turn worsens the first or creates a third, similar to a vicious cycle.
- Excess government debt can trigger an economic doom loop, as happened in Greece in 2010.1
- A weak banking system (or one overexposed to risk) can also trigger a doom loop, as happened in the 2008 global financial crisis.
- Intervention in the form of a bailout is usually needed to break a doom loop.
- The Greek debt crisis is a good example of a doom loop.
- The term was popularized in the 2001 management book Good to Great by Jim Collins.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Foreign Currency Non-Resident (FCNR) account
- The FCNR account can only be opened as a fixed deposit and only in “permitted foreign currencies” freely convertible in Indian rupees.
- Only a person who is an Indian Citizen and a non-resident under FEMA can open an FCNR account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Foreign Currency Non-Resident (FCNR) account
Basic features of the account
The FCNR account can only be opened as a fixed deposit and only in “permitted foreign currencies” freely convertible in Indian rupees. These include various foreign currencies like Pound Sterling, US Dollar, Canadian Dollar, Australian Dollar, EURO and Japanese Yen etc.. These accounts can be opened for a period between one year and five years. In case of premature withdrawals, you have to pay penalty in terms of reduction in the interest rate which you will get. However, in case the deposits under FCNR are liquidated before completion of one year, no interest is payable.
Who and how of opening of FCNR account
Any person who is an Indian Citizen and a non-resident under FEMA can open an FCNR account. Moreover, non-Indian Citizen and Person of Indian Origin are also allowed to open the FCNR account. Both these categories of persons are collectively referred to as NRI under FEMA. The FCNR account can be opened in single or joint names but in case of joint account the joint holder also needs to be an NRI.
It is not necessary for you to be physically present in India for opening an FCNR account. The NRIs can open this account in the overseas branch but need to submit some basic documents like copy of passport, proof of foreign address etc.
Since these accounts are opened in foreign currency, there is no risk due to changes in the exchange rate of the currency of the deposit and Indian currency.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Foreign Currency Non-Resident (FCNR) account
Basic features of the account
The FCNR account can only be opened as a fixed deposit and only in “permitted foreign currencies” freely convertible in Indian rupees. These include various foreign currencies like Pound Sterling, US Dollar, Canadian Dollar, Australian Dollar, EURO and Japanese Yen etc.. These accounts can be opened for a period between one year and five years. In case of premature withdrawals, you have to pay penalty in terms of reduction in the interest rate which you will get. However, in case the deposits under FCNR are liquidated before completion of one year, no interest is payable.
Who and how of opening of FCNR account
Any person who is an Indian Citizen and a non-resident under FEMA can open an FCNR account. Moreover, non-Indian Citizen and Person of Indian Origin are also allowed to open the FCNR account. Both these categories of persons are collectively referred to as NRI under FEMA. The FCNR account can be opened in single or joint names but in case of joint account the joint holder also needs to be an NRI.
It is not necessary for you to be physically present in India for opening an FCNR account. The NRIs can open this account in the overseas branch but need to submit some basic documents like copy of passport, proof of foreign address etc.
Since these accounts are opened in foreign currency, there is no risk due to changes in the exchange rate of the currency of the deposit and Indian currency.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsIndia’s Bioeconomy Report 2022 was released by
Correct
Solution: D
Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) recently released India’s Bioeconomy Report 2022.
The country’s bio-economy was valued at USD 80.12 billion between January and December of 2021, according to the Indian Bio-economy Report 2022. Also, the report included some fascinating information about India’s expanding bio-economy, such as the fact that three biotech startups were incorporated every day in 2021 (A total of 1,128 biotech start-ups set up in 2021), the industry crossed USD 1 billion in R&D investments.
The nation has set an ambitious target for the BioEconomy to touch the $150 billion threshold by 2025.
Indian BioEconomy is continued to nearly account for 2.6 percent share of India’s GDP in 2021.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC) recently released India’s Bioeconomy Report 2022.
The country’s bio-economy was valued at USD 80.12 billion between January and December of 2021, according to the Indian Bio-economy Report 2022. Also, the report included some fascinating information about India’s expanding bio-economy, such as the fact that three biotech startups were incorporated every day in 2021 (A total of 1,128 biotech start-ups set up in 2021), the industry crossed USD 1 billion in R&D investments.
The nation has set an ambitious target for the BioEconomy to touch the $150 billion threshold by 2025.
Indian BioEconomy is continued to nearly account for 2.6 percent share of India’s GDP in 2021.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gilt Funds
- Gilt Funds are debt funds which invests in corporate bonds and bonds and fixed interest-bearing securities issued by the state and central governments.
- The capital gains from gilt fund are non-taxable in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Gilt Funds are debt funds which only invest in bonds and fixed interest-bearing securities issued by the state and central governments. These investments are made in instruments having varying maturities. Since the money is invested with the government, these funds are said to carry minimal risk.
Unlike bond funds which may invest in corporate bonds, Gilt Funds solely invest in g-secs or government securities.
Gilt funds are considered to carry minimal to no credit risk as to the government issues the underlying securities.
Unlike corporate bond funds, gilt funds are the most liquid instruments as they don’t carry credit risk.
Capital gains from your gilt fund are taxable.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Gilt Funds are debt funds which only invest in bonds and fixed interest-bearing securities issued by the state and central governments. These investments are made in instruments having varying maturities. Since the money is invested with the government, these funds are said to carry minimal risk.
Unlike bond funds which may invest in corporate bonds, Gilt Funds solely invest in g-secs or government securities.
Gilt funds are considered to carry minimal to no credit risk as to the government issues the underlying securities.
Unlike corporate bond funds, gilt funds are the most liquid instruments as they don’t carry credit risk.
Capital gains from your gilt fund are taxable.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Tobin Tax
- Tobin tax is a tax levied on spot currency conversions, with the intention of disincentivizing short-term currency speculation.
- Tobin tax is meant to apply to financial sector participants as a means of controlling the stability of a given country’s currency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What Is the Tobin Tax?
The Tobin tax is a tax levied on spot currency conversions, with the intention of disincentivizing short-term currency speculation, named after economist James Tobin.
In contrast to a consumption tax paid by consumers, the Tobin tax is meant to apply to financial sector participants as a means of controlling the stability of a given country’s currency. It is more formally known today as a Financial Transactions Tax (FTT), or less formally a Robin Hood tax.
Key Takeaways
- The Tobin tax is a duty proposed on spot currency trades to penalize short-term currency trading in order to stabilize markets and disincentive speculation.
- The Tobin tax can be used to generate revenue streams for countries that see a great deal of short-term currency movement.
The Tobin tax is sometimes referred to as the Robin Hood tax, as many see it as a way for governments to take small amounts of money from the people making large, short-term currency exchanges.
Incorrect
Solution: C
What Is the Tobin Tax?
The Tobin tax is a tax levied on spot currency conversions, with the intention of disincentivizing short-term currency speculation, named after economist James Tobin.
In contrast to a consumption tax paid by consumers, the Tobin tax is meant to apply to financial sector participants as a means of controlling the stability of a given country’s currency. It is more formally known today as a Financial Transactions Tax (FTT), or less formally a Robin Hood tax.
Key Takeaways
- The Tobin tax is a duty proposed on spot currency trades to penalize short-term currency trading in order to stabilize markets and disincentive speculation.
- The Tobin tax can be used to generate revenue streams for countries that see a great deal of short-term currency movement.
The Tobin tax is sometimes referred to as the Robin Hood tax, as many see it as a way for governments to take small amounts of money from the people making large, short-term currency exchanges.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding UNION BUDGET 2023-24
- Per capita income has more than doubled to ₹1.97 lakh in around nine years.
- Indian economy has increased in size from being 10th to 5th largest in the world in the past nine years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Union Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman presented the Union Budget 2023-24 in Parliament today. The highlights of the Budget are as follows:
- Per capita income has more than doubled to ₹1.97 lakh in around nine years.
- Indian economy has increased in size from being 10th to 5th largest in the world in the past nine years.
- EPFO membership has more than doubled to 27 crore.
- 7,400 crore digital payments of ₹126 lakh crore has taken place through UPI in 2022.
- 11.7 crore household toilets constructed under Swachh Bharat Mission.
- 9.6 crore LPG connections provided under Ujjwala.
- 220 crore covid vaccination of 102 crore persons.
- 47.8 crore PM Jan Dhan bank accounts.
- Insurance cover for 44.6 crore persons under PM Suraksha Bima and PM Jeevan Jyoti Yojana.
- Cash transfer of ₹2.2 lakh crore to over 11.4 crore farmers under PM Kisan Samman Nidhi.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Union Minister of Finance and Corporate Affairs Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman presented the Union Budget 2023-24 in Parliament today. The highlights of the Budget are as follows:
- Per capita income has more than doubled to ₹1.97 lakh in around nine years.
- Indian economy has increased in size from being 10th to 5th largest in the world in the past nine years.
- EPFO membership has more than doubled to 27 crore.
- 7,400 crore digital payments of ₹126 lakh crore has taken place through UPI in 2022.
- 11.7 crore household toilets constructed under Swachh Bharat Mission.
- 9.6 crore LPG connections provided under Ujjwala.
- 220 crore covid vaccination of 102 crore persons.
- 47.8 crore PM Jan Dhan bank accounts.
- Insurance cover for 44.6 crore persons under PM Suraksha Bima and PM Jeevan Jyoti Yojana.
- Cash transfer of ₹2.2 lakh crore to over 11.4 crore farmers under PM Kisan Samman Nidhi.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsAgriculture Accelerator Fund, sometime seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: A
Agriculture Accelerator Fund to be set-up to encourage agri-startups by young entrepreneurs in rural areas.
The Government of India, Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare (DA&FW) is committed to the welfare of the farmers. It includes modernizing the agricultural systems by incorporating new and innovative solutions brought by the agri-entrepreneurs. Accordingly DA&FW is implementing “Innovation and Agri-Entrepreneurship Development” programme under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) from 2018-19 with an objective to promote innovation and agri-entrepreneurship by providing financial support and nurturing an incubation ecosystem in the country.
This Department has appointed five Knowledge Partners (KPs) and twenty four RKVY Agribusiness Incubators (R-ABIs) have been appointed from across the country for incubation of startups and implementation of this programme. Under the programme, the financial support is provided to entrepreneurs in the field of agriculture & allied sector to set up their startups. For this, a financial support of Rs. 5.00 lakh is provided at the idea/pre seed stage and Rs. 25 lakh at the seed stage.
So far, a total of 1138 agri startups are supported under the programme with financial assistance of Rs. 70.30 crores. The technical and financial assistance are provided to startups to launch their products, services, business platforms, etc into the market and facilitate them to scale up their products and operations to attain business viability.
Agri-start-ups supported under the programme are at various stage of implementation from idea to scaling and growth stage. These agri-startups are working in different areas of agriculture & allied sectors for improving the farming practices such as precision agriculture, farm mechanization, agri logistics & supply chain, waste to wealth, organic farming, animal husbandry, dairy & fisheries, etc.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Agriculture Accelerator Fund to be set-up to encourage agri-startups by young entrepreneurs in rural areas.
The Government of India, Department of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare (DA&FW) is committed to the welfare of the farmers. It includes modernizing the agricultural systems by incorporating new and innovative solutions brought by the agri-entrepreneurs. Accordingly DA&FW is implementing “Innovation and Agri-Entrepreneurship Development” programme under Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) from 2018-19 with an objective to promote innovation and agri-entrepreneurship by providing financial support and nurturing an incubation ecosystem in the country.
This Department has appointed five Knowledge Partners (KPs) and twenty four RKVY Agribusiness Incubators (R-ABIs) have been appointed from across the country for incubation of startups and implementation of this programme. Under the programme, the financial support is provided to entrepreneurs in the field of agriculture & allied sector to set up their startups. For this, a financial support of Rs. 5.00 lakh is provided at the idea/pre seed stage and Rs. 25 lakh at the seed stage.
So far, a total of 1138 agri startups are supported under the programme with financial assistance of Rs. 70.30 crores. The technical and financial assistance are provided to startups to launch their products, services, business platforms, etc into the market and facilitate them to scale up their products and operations to attain business viability.
Agri-start-ups supported under the programme are at various stage of implementation from idea to scaling and growth stage. These agri-startups are working in different areas of agriculture & allied sectors for improving the farming practices such as precision agriculture, farm mechanization, agri logistics & supply chain, waste to wealth, organic farming, animal husbandry, dairy & fisheries, etc.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the components of Saptarishi vision mentioned in UNION BUDGET 2023-24?
- Inclusive Development
- Youth Power
- Green Growth
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Aspirational Districts Programme
- It aims to quickly and effectively transform some of the most underdeveloped districts of the country.
- The programme is anchored by NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
About Aspirational Districts Programme:
Launched in January 2018, the ‘Transformation of Aspirational Districts’ programme aims to quickly and effectively transform some of the most underdeveloped districts of the country.
The broad contours of the programme are Convergence (of Central & State Schemes), Collaboration (of Central, State level ‘Prabhari’ Officers & District Collectors), and Competition among districts driven by a Mass Movement or a Jan Andolan.
With States as the main drivers, this program will focus on the strength of each district, identify low-hanging fruits for immediate improvement, measure progress, and rank districts.
Focus of the programme:
To enable optimum utilization of their potential, this program focuses closely on improving people’s ability to participate fully in the burgeoning economy. Health & Nutrition, Education, Agriculture & Water Resources, Financial Inclusion & Skill Development, and Basic Infrastructure are this programme’s core areas of focus.
Significance of the scheme:
If these districts are transformed, there would be tremendous improvement in the internal security environment of the country.
If Prabhari officers can bring convergence in the development efforts of different Ministries and state Governments and the schemes specially launched by Home Ministry in these districts, it would serve as a great opportunity to ensure rapid development in the country.
At Government of India level, programme is anchored by NITI Aayog. In addition, individual Ministries have assumed responsibility to drive progress of districts.
Incorrect
Solution: C
About Aspirational Districts Programme:
Launched in January 2018, the ‘Transformation of Aspirational Districts’ programme aims to quickly and effectively transform some of the most underdeveloped districts of the country.
The broad contours of the programme are Convergence (of Central & State Schemes), Collaboration (of Central, State level ‘Prabhari’ Officers & District Collectors), and Competition among districts driven by a Mass Movement or a Jan Andolan.
With States as the main drivers, this program will focus on the strength of each district, identify low-hanging fruits for immediate improvement, measure progress, and rank districts.
Focus of the programme:
To enable optimum utilization of their potential, this program focuses closely on improving people’s ability to participate fully in the burgeoning economy. Health & Nutrition, Education, Agriculture & Water Resources, Financial Inclusion & Skill Development, and Basic Infrastructure are this programme’s core areas of focus.
Significance of the scheme:
If these districts are transformed, there would be tremendous improvement in the internal security environment of the country.
If Prabhari officers can bring convergence in the development efforts of different Ministries and state Governments and the schemes specially launched by Home Ministry in these districts, it would serve as a great opportunity to ensure rapid development in the country.
At Government of India level, programme is anchored by NITI Aayog. In addition, individual Ministries have assumed responsibility to drive progress of districts.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsiGOT Karmayogi, sometime seen in the news, is related to
Correct
Solution: A
iGOT Karmayogi, an integrated online training platform, launched to provide continuous learning opportunities for lakhs of government employees to upgrade their skills and facilitate people-centric approach.
iGOT Karmayogi aims to provideonline, face-to-face and blended learning and manage lifelong learning records of the officials.
Linkages between these two aspects will pave the way to –
- AI enabled assessment of competency levels
- Competency gaps in an individual
- Data driven strategic HR decision making, both leading to Strategic HR management of the Government.
The entire Programme will be managed by a robust Institutional Framework with shared ownership between the Centre and the States. This will be complemented by a Policy Framework that involves –
- Implementable policies
- Aligns government modalities
- Creates positive momentum
Incorrect
Solution: A
iGOT Karmayogi, an integrated online training platform, launched to provide continuous learning opportunities for lakhs of government employees to upgrade their skills and facilitate people-centric approach.
iGOT Karmayogi aims to provideonline, face-to-face and blended learning and manage lifelong learning records of the officials.
Linkages between these two aspects will pave the way to –
- AI enabled assessment of competency levels
- Competency gaps in an individual
- Data driven strategic HR decision making, both leading to Strategic HR management of the Government.
The entire Programme will be managed by a robust Institutional Framework with shared ownership between the Centre and the States. This will be complemented by a Policy Framework that involves –
- Implementable policies
- Aligns government modalities
- Creates positive momentum
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements.
Hydrogen peroxide is seen as one of the safest and environmentally sustainable alternatives to other bleaches because
- It degrades to form only oxygen and water.
- It breaks down rapidly in water and soil and does not accumulate in the food chain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is the only germicidal agent composed only of water and oxygen. Like ozone, it kills disease organisms by oxidation.
When Hydrogen peroxide reacts with organic material it breaks down into oxygen and water, meaning it is non-toxic for general use.
Hydrogen peroxide kills microorganisms by oxidizing them, which can be best described as a controlled burning process. It can be helpful in cuts and infections, Foot Fungus, Sinus Infections etc.
For statement 2, look at the last entry of the table below:
Incorrect
Solution: C
Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is the only germicidal agent composed only of water and oxygen. Like ozone, it kills disease organisms by oxidation.
When Hydrogen peroxide reacts with organic material it breaks down into oxygen and water, meaning it is non-toxic for general use.
Hydrogen peroxide kills microorganisms by oxidizing them, which can be best described as a controlled burning process. It can be helpful in cuts and infections, Foot Fungus, Sinus Infections etc.
For statement 2, look at the last entry of the table below:
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs
Mountain/Peak Location
- Mount Paektu Mongolia
- Mount Kilimanjaro Kenya
- Saddle Peak South Andaman Island
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: D
Paektu Mountain, also known as Baekdu Mountain, and in China as Changbai Mountain, is an active stratovolcano on the Chinese–North Korean border.
Mount Kilimanjaro or just Kilimanjaro, with its three volcanic cones, Kibo, Mawenzi, and Shira, is a dormant volcano in Tanzania.
Saddle Peak or Saddle Hill is located on North Andaman Island in India’s Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Paektu Mountain, also known as Baekdu Mountain, and in China as Changbai Mountain, is an active stratovolcano on the Chinese–North Korean border.
Mount Kilimanjaro or just Kilimanjaro, with its three volcanic cones, Kibo, Mawenzi, and Shira, is a dormant volcano in Tanzania.
Saddle Peak or Saddle Hill is located on North Andaman Island in India’s Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are generally considered as micronutrients for human body?
- Carbohydrates
- Protein
- Vitamins
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution: B
The term micronutrients is used to describe vitamins and minerals in general.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Macronutrients, on the other hand, include proteins, fats and carbohydrates.
Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.
Our body needs smaller amounts of micronutrients relative to macronutrients. That’s why they’re labelled “micro.”
Humans must obtain micronutrients from food since your body cannot produce vitamins and minerals — for the most part. That’s why they’re also referred to as essential nutrients.
Vitamins are organic compounds made by plants and animals which can be broken down by heat, acid or air. On the other hand, minerals are inorganic, exist in soil or water and cannot be broken down.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The term micronutrients is used to describe vitamins and minerals in general.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Macronutrients, on the other hand, include proteins, fats and carbohydrates.
Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.
Our body needs smaller amounts of micronutrients relative to macronutrients. That’s why they’re labelled “micro.”
Humans must obtain micronutrients from food since your body cannot produce vitamins and minerals — for the most part. That’s why they’re also referred to as essential nutrients.
Vitamins are organic compounds made by plants and animals which can be broken down by heat, acid or air. On the other hand, minerals are inorganic, exist in soil or water and cannot be broken down.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWho among the following leaders was nicknamed as ‘Dharti Abba’ or Father of the Earth?
Correct
Solution: B
Birsa Munda was a tribal leader from the tribal belt of Chotanagpur.
He created a new religion called Birsait, which worshipped only one god. Birsait soon became the popular religion among the Mundas and Oraons. Nicknamed ‘Dharti Abba’ or Father of the Earth, Munda encouraged his followers to get back to their tribal roots and follow their traditions.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Birsa Munda was a tribal leader from the tribal belt of Chotanagpur.
He created a new religion called Birsait, which worshipped only one god. Birsait soon became the popular religion among the Mundas and Oraons. Nicknamed ‘Dharti Abba’ or Father of the Earth, Munda encouraged his followers to get back to their tribal roots and follow their traditions.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsThe, extrusion technology, sometimes seen in news, is mainly associated with:
Correct
Solution: C
There are three main technologies available to produce fortified rice. They are: coating, extrusion and dusting.
In the coating method, the nutrient (vitamin or mineral mix) is combined with ingredients such as waxes and gums. It is then sprayed on the surface of rice grains in several layers. This is then blended with polished rice at about a ratio of 1:100.
In dusting, micronutrients in the form of ne particles are blended with bulk rice. This method makes use of the electrostatic forces between the rice’s surface and the micronutrients. Details on extrusion are provided below.
In India, rice is fortified using extrusion technology. In this technology, milled rice is pulverized and mixed with a premix containing vitamins and minerals.
Incorrect
Solution: C
There are three main technologies available to produce fortified rice. They are: coating, extrusion and dusting.
In the coating method, the nutrient (vitamin or mineral mix) is combined with ingredients such as waxes and gums. It is then sprayed on the surface of rice grains in several layers. This is then blended with polished rice at about a ratio of 1:100.
In dusting, micronutrients in the form of ne particles are blended with bulk rice. This method makes use of the electrostatic forces between the rice’s surface and the micronutrients. Details on extrusion are provided below.
In India, rice is fortified using extrusion technology. In this technology, milled rice is pulverized and mixed with a premix containing vitamins and minerals.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsTRIPs agreement provides a comprehensive set of global trade rules for the protection of copyright patents, trademarks, industrial designs, trade secrets, semiconductor layout designs and geographical indications that apply to all the member countries irrespective of their levels of development, natural and human endowments and history. Every member country has been asked by the WTO to amend its national patent law to conform to that universal globalized format for legislation relating to pharmaceutical, agrochemical, food, alloys etc. Under article 65, the developed countries have been asked to change their laws within another five years and the less developed countries within an additional five years. The least developed countries have been asked to make those changes by 2005.
This attempt at global standardization and uniformity by way of TRIPs agreement conflicts with the main thrust of the Rio Earth Summit of 1992 that set out the conditions for sustainable development. These two reveals two contrasting types of international approaches and norms. While the 1992 Earth Summit and the 1993 Convention on Bio-Diversity (CBD) focused on ‘diversity’ as being fundamental to sustain life an development, TRIPs and WTO are pushing for ‘Conformity’ to International standardized norms on patents, services, labour, investment and what not irrespective of their history, ecology, level of economic development, etc. But despite their diametrically opposed viewpoints, 170 countries signed CBD upholding the need for diversity, and 50 countries signed the TRIPs agreement in 1994 claiming the urgency of uniformity; with a very large element of common names (130) in both.
Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the passage?
-
-
- TRIPs agreement doesn’t recommend sustainable development.
- Underdeveloped countries who are TRIPs members endorse biodiversity over compliance.
- Both TRIPs and CBD pose two completely different types of protocols.
-
Correct
Answer: C.
Statement 1 is wrong as TRIPs does not have to deal with Sustainable development. Statement 2 is wrong as it is not so and not stated in the passage as well. Hence C.
Incorrect
Answer: C.
Statement 1 is wrong as TRIPs does not have to deal with Sustainable development. Statement 2 is wrong as it is not so and not stated in the passage as well. Hence C.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsTRIPs agreement provides a comprehensive set of global trade rules for the protection of copyright patents, trademarks, industrial designs, trade secrets, semiconductor layout designs and geographical indications that apply to all the member countries irrespective of their levels of development, natural and human endowments and history. Every member country has been asked by the WTO to amend its national patent law to conform to that universal globalized format for legislation relating to pharmaceutical, agrochemical, food, alloys etc. Under article 65, the developed countries have been asked to change their laws within another five years and the less developed countries within an additional five years. The least developed countries have been asked to make those changes by 2005.
This attempt at global standardization and uniformity by way of TRIPs agreement conflicts with the main thrust of the Rio Earth Summit of 1992 that set out the conditions for sustainable development. These two reveals two contrasting types of international approaches and norms. While the 1992 Earth Summit and the 1993 Convention on Bio-Diversity (CBD) focused on ‘diversity’ as being fundamental to sustain life an development, TRIPs and WTO are pushing for ‘Conformity’ to International standardized norms on patents, services, labour, investment and what not irrespective of their history, ecology, level of economic development, etc. But despite their diametrically opposed viewpoints, 170 countries signed CBD upholding the need for diversity, and 50 countries signed the TRIPs agreement in 1994 claiming the urgency of uniformity; with a very large element of common names
What are the differences between the CBD and TRIPs norms, according to the page?
Correct
Answer. C.
It can be directly inferred from the passage that CBD recommends ‘diversity’ for sustainable development, TRIPs want countries to stick to international norms without considering diversity.
Incorrect
Answer. C.
It can be directly inferred from the passage that CBD recommends ‘diversity’ for sustainable development, TRIPs want countries to stick to international norms without considering diversity.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsIf 3, 1, 11, 5 represents CAKE; 6, 1, 9, 12 is FAIL, what is represents FIRST?
Correct
Correct Option: C
Letters are coded according to their place in English alphabet.
So,
FIRST → 6, 9, 18, 19, 20.
Incorrect
Correct Option: C
Letters are coded according to their place in English alphabet.
So,
FIRST → 6, 9, 18, 19, 20.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsIn a certain code language,
‘Live Free Die Well’ is written as ‘bg ph su md’
‘Right To Free Life’ is written as ‘va su oh ke’
‘To Live Make Home’ is written as ‘tl ke ph rn’
‘Make Your Life Well’ is written as ‘bg ri oh tl’
Which of the following is the code for ‘To Live Well’ in the given code language?
Correct
Correct Option: C
Following the common explanation, we can say that ‘ph bg ke’ is the code for ‘To Live Well’ in the given code language.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
Common Explanation:
Live Free Die Well → bg su ph md …….(i)
Right To Free Life → va su oh ke …….(ii)
To Live Make Home → tl ke ph rn …….(iii)
Make Your Life Well → ri bg oh tl …….(iv)
From the equations (i) and (ii), we get:
Free → su …….(v)
From the equations (i), and (iii), we get:
Live → ph …….(vi)
From the equations (i) and (iv), we get:
Well → bg …….(vii)
From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get:
Die → md …….(viii)
From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get:
To → ke …….(ix)
From the equations (ii) and (iv), we get:
Life → oh …….(x)
From the equations (ii), (v), (ix) and (x), we get:
Right → va …….(xi)
From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get:
Make → tl …….(xii)
From the equations (iii), (vi), (ix) and (xii), we get:
Home → rn …….(xiii)
From the equations (iv) (vii), (x) and (xii), we get:
Your → ri …….(xiv)
Incorrect
Correct Option: C
Following the common explanation, we can say that ‘ph bg ke’ is the code for ‘To Live Well’ in the given code language.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
Common Explanation:
Live Free Die Well → bg su ph md …….(i)
Right To Free Life → va su oh ke …….(ii)
To Live Make Home → tl ke ph rn …….(iii)
Make Your Life Well → ri bg oh tl …….(iv)
From the equations (i) and (ii), we get:
Free → su …….(v)
From the equations (i), and (iii), we get:
Live → ph …….(vi)
From the equations (i) and (iv), we get:
Well → bg …….(vii)
From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get:
Die → md …….(viii)
From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get:
To → ke …….(ix)
From the equations (ii) and (iv), we get:
Life → oh …….(x)
From the equations (ii), (v), (ix) and (x), we get:
Right → va …….(xi)
From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get:
Make → tl …….(xii)
From the equations (iii), (vi), (ix) and (xii), we get:
Home → rn …….(xiii)
From the equations (iv) (vii), (x) and (xii), we get:
Your → ri …….(xiv)
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsIn a certain code language,
‘Live Free Die Well’ is written as ‘bg ph su md’
‘Right To Free Life’ is written as ‘va su oh ke’
‘To Live Make Home’ is written as ‘tl ke ph rn’
‘Make Your Life Well’ is written as ‘bg ri oh tl’
What does the code ‘va’ stands for in the given code language?
Correct
Correct Option: A
Following the common explanation, we can say that the code ‘va’ stands for ‘Right’ in the given code language.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
Common Explanation:
Live Free Die Well → bg su ph md …….(i)
Right To Free Life → va su oh ke …….(ii)
To Live Make Home → tl ke ph rn …….(iii)
Make Your Life Well → ri bg oh tl …….(iv)
From the equations (i) and (ii), we get:
Free → su …….(v)
From the equations (i), and (iii), we get:
Live → ph …….(vi)
From the equations (i) and (iv), we get:
Well → bg …….(vii)
From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get:
Die → md …….(viii)
From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get:
To → ke …….(ix)
From the equations (ii) and (iv), we get:
Life → oh …….(x)
From the equations (ii), (v), (ix) and (x), we get:
Right → va …….(xi)
From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get:
Make → tl …….(xii)
From the equations (iii), (vi), (ix) and (xii), we get:
Home → rn …….(xiii)
From the equations (iv) (vii), (x) and (xii), we get:
Your → ri …….(xiv)
Incorrect
Correct Option: A
Following the common explanation, we can say that the code ‘va’ stands for ‘Right’ in the given code language.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
Common Explanation:
Live Free Die Well → bg su ph md …….(i)
Right To Free Life → va su oh ke …….(ii)
To Live Make Home → tl ke ph rn …….(iii)
Make Your Life Well → ri bg oh tl …….(iv)
From the equations (i) and (ii), we get:
Free → su …….(v)
From the equations (i), and (iii), we get:
Live → ph …….(vi)
From the equations (i) and (iv), we get:
Well → bg …….(vii)
From the equations (i), (v), (vi) and (vii), we get:
Die → md …….(viii)
From the equations (ii) and (iii), we get:
To → ke …….(ix)
From the equations (ii) and (iv), we get:
Life → oh …….(x)
From the equations (ii), (v), (ix) and (x), we get:
Right → va …….(xi)
From the equations (iii) and (iv), we get:
Make → tl …….(xii)
From the equations (iii), (vi), (ix) and (xii), we get:
Home → rn …….(xiii)
From the equations (iv) (vii), (x) and (xii), we get:
Your → ri …….(xiv)
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