INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Third Five Year Plan
- Under this plan, agriculture was given top priority to support the exports and industry.
- The Plan was a success, as the actual growth was greater than the target growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Third Five Year Plan (1961 – 66)
Target Growth: 5.6%
Actual Growth: 2.8%
At its conception, it was felt that Indian economy has entered a “takeoff stage”. Therefore, its aim was to make India a ‘self-reliant’ and ‘self-generating’ economy. Based on the experience of first two plans (agricultural production was seen as limiting factor in India’s economic development) , agriculture was given top priority to support the exports and industry.
The Plan was thorough failure in reaching the targets due to unforeseen events – Chinese aggression (1962), Indo-Pak war (1965), severe drought 1965-66. Due to conflicts the approach during the later phase was shifted from development to defence & development.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Third Five Year Plan (1961 – 66)
Target Growth: 5.6%
Actual Growth: 2.8%
At its conception, it was felt that Indian economy has entered a “takeoff stage”. Therefore, its aim was to make India a ‘self-reliant’ and ‘self-generating’ economy. Based on the experience of first two plans (agricultural production was seen as limiting factor in India’s economic development) , agriculture was given top priority to support the exports and industry.
The Plan was thorough failure in reaching the targets due to unforeseen events – Chinese aggression (1962), Indo-Pak war (1965), severe drought 1965-66. Due to conflicts the approach during the later phase was shifted from development to defence & development.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Cash Management Bills (CMBs)
- It was introduced to meet the temporary mismatches in the cash flow of the Government of India.
- The CMBs have the generic character of T-bills but are issued for maturities more than 91 days.
- Like T-bills, Cash Management Bills (CMBs) are also issued at a discount and redeemed at face value on maturity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Cash Management Bills (CMBs)
In 2010, Government of India, in consultation with RBI introduced a new short-term instrument, known as Cash Management Bills (CMBs), to meet the temporary mismatches in the cash flow of the Government of India. The CMBs have the generic character of T-bills but are issued for maturities less than 91 days.
Like T-bills, Cash Management Bills (CMBs) are also issued at a discount and redeemed at face value on maturity. The tenor, notified amount and date of issue of the CMBs depend upon the temporary cash requirement of the Government. The tenors of CMBs is generally less than 91 days.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Cash Management Bills (CMBs)
In 2010, Government of India, in consultation with RBI introduced a new short-term instrument, known as Cash Management Bills (CMBs), to meet the temporary mismatches in the cash flow of the Government of India. The CMBs have the generic character of T-bills but are issued for maturities less than 91 days.
Like T-bills, Cash Management Bills (CMBs) are also issued at a discount and redeemed at face value on maturity. The tenor, notified amount and date of issue of the CMBs depend upon the temporary cash requirement of the Government. The tenors of CMBs is generally less than 91 days.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
- LAF is a facility extended by RBI to the scheduled commercial banks including RRBs.
- Repo is an instrument for lending funds by buying securities with an agreement to repurchase.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
What is Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) and whether Re-repo in Government Securities Market is allowed?
LAF is a facility extended by RBI to the scheduled commercial banks and PDs to avail of liquidity in case of requirement or park excess funds with RBI in case of excess liquidity on an overnight basis against the collateral of G-Secs including SDLs. Basically, LAF enables liquidity management on a day to day basis. The operations of LAF are conducted by way of repurchase agreements with RBI being the counter-party to all the transactions. The interest rate in LAF is fixed by RBI from time to time. LAF is an important tool of monetary policy and liquidity management.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) allowed regional rural banks (RRBs) to access the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF), marginal standing facility (MSF) and call or notice money market, aimed at facilitating better liquidity management for these lenders.
Repo market
Repo or ready forward contact is an instrument for borrowing funds by selling securities with an agreement to repurchase the said securities on a mutually agreed future date at an agreed price which includes interest for the funds borrowed.
The reverse of the repo transaction is called ‘reverse repo’ which is lending of funds against buying of securities with an agreement to resell the said securities on a mutually agreed future date at an agreed price which includes interest for the funds lent.
Incorrect
Solution: A
What is Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) and whether Re-repo in Government Securities Market is allowed?
LAF is a facility extended by RBI to the scheduled commercial banks and PDs to avail of liquidity in case of requirement or park excess funds with RBI in case of excess liquidity on an overnight basis against the collateral of G-Secs including SDLs. Basically, LAF enables liquidity management on a day to day basis. The operations of LAF are conducted by way of repurchase agreements with RBI being the counter-party to all the transactions. The interest rate in LAF is fixed by RBI from time to time. LAF is an important tool of monetary policy and liquidity management.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) allowed regional rural banks (RRBs) to access the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF), marginal standing facility (MSF) and call or notice money market, aimed at facilitating better liquidity management for these lenders.
Repo market
Repo or ready forward contact is an instrument for borrowing funds by selling securities with an agreement to repurchase the said securities on a mutually agreed future date at an agreed price which includes interest for the funds borrowed.
The reverse of the repo transaction is called ‘reverse repo’ which is lending of funds against buying of securities with an agreement to resell the said securities on a mutually agreed future date at an agreed price which includes interest for the funds lent.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement regarding Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is incorrect?
Correct
Solution: A
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It provides deposit insurance that works as a protection cover for bank deposit holders when the bank fails to pay its depositors.
The agency insures all kinds of deposit accounts of a bank, such as savings, current, recurring, and fixed deposits up to a limit of Rs. 5 lakh per account holder per bank. In case an individual’s deposit amount exceeds Rs.5 lakh in a single bank, only Rs.5 lakh, including the principal and interest, will be paid by DICGC if the bank becomes bankrupt.
How DICGC Works?
DICGC protects depositors’ money kept in all commercial and foreign banks located in India; central, state, and urban co-operative banks; regional rural banks; and local banks, provided that the bank has opted for DICGC cover.
The agency’s operations are performed as per The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961 and The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation General Regulations, 1961, framed by RBI under the provisions of sub-section (3) of Section 50 of the act. The act states that the establishment of this corporation is with the aim of insuring deposits, guaranteeing credit facilities, and other related matters.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It provides deposit insurance that works as a protection cover for bank deposit holders when the bank fails to pay its depositors.
The agency insures all kinds of deposit accounts of a bank, such as savings, current, recurring, and fixed deposits up to a limit of Rs. 5 lakh per account holder per bank. In case an individual’s deposit amount exceeds Rs.5 lakh in a single bank, only Rs.5 lakh, including the principal and interest, will be paid by DICGC if the bank becomes bankrupt.
How DICGC Works?
DICGC protects depositors’ money kept in all commercial and foreign banks located in India; central, state, and urban co-operative banks; regional rural banks; and local banks, provided that the bank has opted for DICGC cover.
The agency’s operations are performed as per The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act, 1961 and The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation General Regulations, 1961, framed by RBI under the provisions of sub-section (3) of Section 50 of the act. The act states that the establishment of this corporation is with the aim of insuring deposits, guaranteeing credit facilities, and other related matters.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Regional Rural Banks
- RRBs are jointly owned by Government of India (GOI), Sponsor Bank and the concerned State Government and with share proportion 50%,35% & 15% respectively.
- One of the functions of RRB is to carrying out government operations like disbursement of wages of MGNREGA workers.
- RRBs cannot set up branches for urban operations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Regional Rural Banks were established under the provisions of an Ordinance passed on 26 September 1975 and the RRB Act 1987 to provide sufficient banking and credit facility for agriculture and other rural sectors. Regional Rural Banks (RRB) are Indian Scheduled Commercial Banks (Government Banks) operating at regional level in different states of India. They have been created with a view of serving primarily the rural areas of India with basic banking and financial services. However, RRBs may have branches set up for urban operations and their area of operation may include urban area too.
RRBs are jointly owned by Government of India (GOI), Sponsor Bank and the concerned State Government and with share proportion 50%,35% & 15% respectively.
The area of operation of RRBs is limited to the area as notified by Government of India covering one or more districts in the State. RRBs perform various functions in following heads:
- Providing banking facilities to rural and semi –urban areas.
- Carrying out government operations like disbursement of wages of MGNREGA workers, distribution of pension etc.
- Providing Para-Banking facilities like locker facilities, debit and credit cards, mobile banking, internet banking, UPI etc.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Regional Rural Banks were established under the provisions of an Ordinance passed on 26 September 1975 and the RRB Act 1987 to provide sufficient banking and credit facility for agriculture and other rural sectors. Regional Rural Banks (RRB) are Indian Scheduled Commercial Banks (Government Banks) operating at regional level in different states of India. They have been created with a view of serving primarily the rural areas of India with basic banking and financial services. However, RRBs may have branches set up for urban operations and their area of operation may include urban area too.
RRBs are jointly owned by Government of India (GOI), Sponsor Bank and the concerned State Government and with share proportion 50%,35% & 15% respectively.
The area of operation of RRBs is limited to the area as notified by Government of India covering one or more districts in the State. RRBs perform various functions in following heads:
- Providing banking facilities to rural and semi –urban areas.
- Carrying out government operations like disbursement of wages of MGNREGA workers, distribution of pension etc.
- Providing Para-Banking facilities like locker facilities, debit and credit cards, mobile banking, internet banking, UPI etc.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following categories have access to Priority sector loans?
- Artisans, village and cottage industries where individual credit limits do not exceed ₹10 lakh
- Minority communities
- Self Help Groups
- Distressed farmers indebted to non-institutional lenders
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
Priority sector loans to the following borrowers will be considered as lending under Weaker Sections category:
(i) Small and Marginal Farmers
(ii) Artisans, village and cottage industries where individual credit limits do not exceed ₹1 lakh
(iii) Beneficiaries under Government Sponsored Schemes such as National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM), National Urban Livelihood Mission (NULM) and Self Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS)
(iv) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(v) Beneficiaries of Differential Rate of Interest (DRI) scheme
(vi) Self Help Groups
(vii) Distressed farmers indebted to non-institutional lenders
(viii) Distressed persons other than farmers, with loan amount not exceeding ₹1 lakh per borrower to prepay their debt to non-institutional lenders
(ix) Individual women beneficiaries up to ₹1 lakh per borrower (For UCBs, existing loans to women will continue to be classified under weaker sections till their maturity/repayment.)
(x) Persons with disabilities
(xi) Minority communities as may be notified by Government of India from time to time.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Priority sector loans to the following borrowers will be considered as lending under Weaker Sections category:
(i) Small and Marginal Farmers
(ii) Artisans, village and cottage industries where individual credit limits do not exceed ₹1 lakh
(iii) Beneficiaries under Government Sponsored Schemes such as National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM), National Urban Livelihood Mission (NULM) and Self Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS)
(iv) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(v) Beneficiaries of Differential Rate of Interest (DRI) scheme
(vi) Self Help Groups
(vii) Distressed farmers indebted to non-institutional lenders
(viii) Distressed persons other than farmers, with loan amount not exceeding ₹1 lakh per borrower to prepay their debt to non-institutional lenders
(ix) Individual women beneficiaries up to ₹1 lakh per borrower (For UCBs, existing loans to women will continue to be classified under weaker sections till their maturity/repayment.)
(x) Persons with disabilities
(xi) Minority communities as may be notified by Government of India from time to time.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding non-performing assets
- A non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for a period of 90 days.
- An asset would be classified as “Loss assets” if it has remained in the substandard category for a period of 12 months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Non-performing assets
An asset, including a leased asset, becomes non-performing when it ceases to generate income for the bank. A ‘non-performing asset’ (NPA) was defined as a credit facility in respect of which the interest and/ or instalment of principal has remained ‘past due’ for a specified period of time.
A non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for a period of 90 days.
Description: Banks are required to classify NPAs further into Substandard, Doubtful and Loss assets.1. Substandard assets: Assets which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months.
2. Doubtful assets: An asset would be classified as doubtful if it has remained in the substandard category for a period of 12 months.
3. Loss assets: As per RBI, “Loss asset is considered uncollectible and of such little value that its continuance as a bankable asset is not warranted, although there may be some salvage or recovery value.”
Incorrect
Solution: A
Non-performing assets
An asset, including a leased asset, becomes non-performing when it ceases to generate income for the bank. A ‘non-performing asset’ (NPA) was defined as a credit facility in respect of which the interest and/ or instalment of principal has remained ‘past due’ for a specified period of time.
A non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for a period of 90 days.
Description: Banks are required to classify NPAs further into Substandard, Doubtful and Loss assets.1. Substandard assets: Assets which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months.
2. Doubtful assets: An asset would be classified as doubtful if it has remained in the substandard category for a period of 12 months.
3. Loss assets: As per RBI, “Loss asset is considered uncollectible and of such little value that its continuance as a bankable asset is not warranted, although there may be some salvage or recovery value.”
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)
- Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 was implemented through an act of Parliament.
- IBC applies to companies, partnerships and individuals.
- For companies and individuals, the proceedings of the resolution process will be adjudicated by the National Companies Law Tribunal (NCLT).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
What is Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) 2016?
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 was implemented through an act of Parliament.What does the IBC aim to do?
IBC applies to companies, partnerships and individuals. It provides for a time-bound process to resolve insolvency. When a default in repayment occurs, creditors gain control over debtor’s assets and must take decisions to resolve insolvency. Under IBC debtor and creditor both can start ‘recovery’ proceedings against each other.What is the timeframe for completion of the exercise under the Code?
Companies have to complete the entire insolvency exercise within 180 days under IBC. The deadline may be extended if the creditors do not raise objections on the extension. For smaller companies including startups with an annual turnover of Rs 1 crore, the whole exercise of insolvency must be completed in 90 days and the deadline can be extended by 45 days. If debt resolution doesn’t happen the company goes for liquidation.Who regulates the IBC proceedings?
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India has been appointed as a regulator and it can oversee these proceedings. IBBI has 10 members; from Finance Ministry and Law Ministry the Reserve Bank of India.Who adjudicates over the proceedings?
The proceedings of the resolution process will be adjudicated by the National Companies Law Tribunal (NCLT), for companies and the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) for individuals.Incorrect
Solution: A
What is Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) 2016?
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016 was implemented through an act of Parliament.What does the IBC aim to do?
IBC applies to companies, partnerships and individuals. It provides for a time-bound process to resolve insolvency. When a default in repayment occurs, creditors gain control over debtor’s assets and must take decisions to resolve insolvency. Under IBC debtor and creditor both can start ‘recovery’ proceedings against each other.What is the timeframe for completion of the exercise under the Code?
Companies have to complete the entire insolvency exercise within 180 days under IBC. The deadline may be extended if the creditors do not raise objections on the extension. For smaller companies including startups with an annual turnover of Rs 1 crore, the whole exercise of insolvency must be completed in 90 days and the deadline can be extended by 45 days. If debt resolution doesn’t happen the company goes for liquidation.Who regulates the IBC proceedings?
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India has been appointed as a regulator and it can oversee these proceedings. IBBI has 10 members; from Finance Ministry and Law Ministry the Reserve Bank of India.Who adjudicates over the proceedings?
The proceedings of the resolution process will be adjudicated by the National Companies Law Tribunal (NCLT), for companies and the Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) for individuals. -
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
- IIP is a key economic indicator of the manufacturing sector of the economy.
- IIP index is currently calculated using 2011-2012 as the base year.
- IIP data is compiled and published by Office of Economic Advisor every month.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Index of Industrial Production data or IIP as it is commonly called is an index that tracks manufacturing activity in different sectors of an economy. The IIP number measures the industrial production for the period under review, usually a month, as against the reference period. IIP is a key economic indicator of the manufacturing sector of the economy. There is a lag of six weeks in the publication of the IIP index data after the reference month ends. IIP index is currently calculated using 2011-2012 as the base year.
IIP Index Components:
Electricity, crude oil, coal, cement, steel, refinery products, natural gas, and fertilisers are the eight core industries that comprise about 40 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production. Mining, manufacturing, and electricity are the three broad sectors in which IIP constituents fall.
Who releases Index of Industrial Production or IIP data?
In the case of Index of Industrial Production India, IIP data is compiled and published by CSO every month. CSO or Central Statistical Organisation operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
Incorrect
Solution: A
Index of Industrial Production data or IIP as it is commonly called is an index that tracks manufacturing activity in different sectors of an economy. The IIP number measures the industrial production for the period under review, usually a month, as against the reference period. IIP is a key economic indicator of the manufacturing sector of the economy. There is a lag of six weeks in the publication of the IIP index data after the reference month ends. IIP index is currently calculated using 2011-2012 as the base year.
IIP Index Components:
Electricity, crude oil, coal, cement, steel, refinery products, natural gas, and fertilisers are the eight core industries that comprise about 40 percent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production. Mining, manufacturing, and electricity are the three broad sectors in which IIP constituents fall.
Who releases Index of Industrial Production or IIP data?
In the case of Index of Industrial Production India, IIP data is compiled and published by CSO every month. CSO or Central Statistical Organisation operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gross value added (GVA)
- Gross value added (GVA) is an economic productivity metric that measures the contribution of a corporate subsidiary, company, or municipality to an economy, producer, sector, or region.
- It can be used to measure how much money a product or service has contributed toward meeting a company’s fixed costs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
- Gross value added (GVA) is an economic productivity metric that measures the contribution of a corporate subsidiary, company, or municipality to an economy, producer, sector, or region.
- GVA is the output of the country less the intermediate consumption, which is the difference between gross output and net output.
- GVA is important because it is used to adjust GDP, which is a key indicator of the state of a nation’s total economy.
- It can also be used to measure how much money a product or service has contributed toward meeting a company’s fixed costs.
GVA provides a dollar value for the amount of goods and services that have been produced in a country, minus the cost of all inputs and raw materials that are directly attributable to that production. GVA thus adjusts gross domestic product (GDP) by the impact of subsidies and taxes (tariffs) on products.
Incorrect
Solution: C
- Gross value added (GVA) is an economic productivity metric that measures the contribution of a corporate subsidiary, company, or municipality to an economy, producer, sector, or region.
- GVA is the output of the country less the intermediate consumption, which is the difference between gross output and net output.
- GVA is important because it is used to adjust GDP, which is a key indicator of the state of a nation’s total economy.
- It can also be used to measure how much money a product or service has contributed toward meeting a company’s fixed costs.
GVA provides a dollar value for the amount of goods and services that have been produced in a country, minus the cost of all inputs and raw materials that are directly attributable to that production. GVA thus adjusts gross domestic product (GDP) by the impact of subsidies and taxes (tariffs) on products.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)
- It is the minimum lending rate below which a bank is not permitted to lend.
- It is set by RBI.
- Under MCLR, the interest rates are determined based on the relative risk factor of individual customers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) is the minimum lending rate below which a bank is not permitted to lend. MCLR replaced the earlier base rate system to determine the lending rates for commercial banks.
RBI implemented MCLR on 1 April 2016 to determine rates of interests for loans. It is an internal reference rate for banks to determine the interest they can levy on loans. For this, they take into account the additional or incremental cost of arranging an additional rupee for a prospective buyer.
The Outcome of MCLR implementation
After the implementation of MCLR, the interest rates are determined as per the relative risk factor of individual customers. Previously, when RBI reduced the repo rate, banks took a long time to reflect it in the lending rates for the borrowers.
Under the MCLR regime, banks must adjust their interest rates as soon as the repo rate changes. It is the respective banks and not RBI which sets the MCLR. The implementation aims at improving the openness in the structure followed by the banks to calculate the interest rate on advances.
It also ensures the prospect of bank credits at the interest that is true to the consumers as well as the banks.
MCLR is calculated based on the loan tenor, i.e., the amount of time a borrower has to repay the loan. This tenor-linked benchmark is internal in nature. The bank determines the actual lending rates by adding the elements spread to this tool.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR) is the minimum lending rate below which a bank is not permitted to lend. MCLR replaced the earlier base rate system to determine the lending rates for commercial banks.
RBI implemented MCLR on 1 April 2016 to determine rates of interests for loans. It is an internal reference rate for banks to determine the interest they can levy on loans. For this, they take into account the additional or incremental cost of arranging an additional rupee for a prospective buyer.
The Outcome of MCLR implementation
After the implementation of MCLR, the interest rates are determined as per the relative risk factor of individual customers. Previously, when RBI reduced the repo rate, banks took a long time to reflect it in the lending rates for the borrowers.
Under the MCLR regime, banks must adjust their interest rates as soon as the repo rate changes. It is the respective banks and not RBI which sets the MCLR. The implementation aims at improving the openness in the structure followed by the banks to calculate the interest rate on advances.
It also ensures the prospect of bank credits at the interest that is true to the consumers as well as the banks.
MCLR is calculated based on the loan tenor, i.e., the amount of time a borrower has to repay the loan. This tenor-linked benchmark is internal in nature. The bank determines the actual lending rates by adding the elements spread to this tool.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Basel Committee
- It was established by the central bank Governors of the Group of Twenty (G20) countries at the end of 1974.
- The Committee was established to enhance financial stability by improving the quality of banking supervision worldwide.
- Basel III guidelines were introduced in response to 2008 financial crisis.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Basel Committee – initially named the Committee on Banking Regulations and Supervisory Practices – was established by the central bank Governors of the Group of Ten countries at the end of 1974 in the aftermath of serious disturbances in international currency and banking markets (notably the failure of Bankhaus Herstatt in West Germany).
The Committee, headquartered at the Bank for International Settlements in Basel, was established to enhance financial stability by improving the quality of banking supervision worldwide, and to serve as a forum for regular cooperation between its member countries on banking supervisory matters. The Committee’s first meeting took place in February 1975, and meetings have been held regularly three or four times a year since.
Basel Norms are the norms issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) for the international banking regulations.
Basel III
The introduction of Basel III guidelines happened because of the 2008 financial crisis that highlighted some serious flaws in the regulation and compliance mechanisms that were put in a place for the banks. It was introduced in 2010. Its objective was to make a resilient and transparent banking system, improve banking sector shock-absorbing capacity and more focus on Capital Adequacy Ratio.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Basel Committee – initially named the Committee on Banking Regulations and Supervisory Practices – was established by the central bank Governors of the Group of Ten countries at the end of 1974 in the aftermath of serious disturbances in international currency and banking markets (notably the failure of Bankhaus Herstatt in West Germany).
The Committee, headquartered at the Bank for International Settlements in Basel, was established to enhance financial stability by improving the quality of banking supervision worldwide, and to serve as a forum for regular cooperation between its member countries on banking supervisory matters. The Committee’s first meeting took place in February 1975, and meetings have been held regularly three or four times a year since.
Basel Norms are the norms issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) for the international banking regulations.
Basel III
The introduction of Basel III guidelines happened because of the 2008 financial crisis that highlighted some serious flaws in the regulation and compliance mechanisms that were put in a place for the banks. It was introduced in 2010. Its objective was to make a resilient and transparent banking system, improve banking sector shock-absorbing capacity and more focus on Capital Adequacy Ratio.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Federation of Indian Export Organisations (FIEO)
- It was setup by FICCI in 1965.
- FIEO is partner of Govt. of India to boost International Trade from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Federation of Indian Export Organisations popularly known as ‘FIEO’ is the apex body of the Government recognised Export Promotion Councils, Commodity Boards and Development Authorities in India. Set up in 1965 by Ministry of Commerce, Govt. of India to focus the efforts of all stakeholders engaged in promotion of trade from the country, FIEO is partner of Govt. of India to boost International Trade from India. FIEO provides the crucial interface between International Trading community of India with the Central and State Governments, Financial Institutions, Ports, Railways, Surface Transport and all engaged in Export Trade Facilitation. The Federation directly and indirectly serves the interests of over 200,000 exporters from every Industry and Services sector in the country.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Federation of Indian Export Organisations popularly known as ‘FIEO’ is the apex body of the Government recognised Export Promotion Councils, Commodity Boards and Development Authorities in India. Set up in 1965 by Ministry of Commerce, Govt. of India to focus the efforts of all stakeholders engaged in promotion of trade from the country, FIEO is partner of Govt. of India to boost International Trade from India. FIEO provides the crucial interface between International Trading community of India with the Central and State Governments, Financial Institutions, Ports, Railways, Surface Transport and all engaged in Export Trade Facilitation. The Federation directly and indirectly serves the interests of over 200,000 exporters from every Industry and Services sector in the country.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the functions of Board For Reconstruction of Public Sector Enterprises?
- To monitor incipient sickness in CPSEs
- To advise the Government on disinvestments
- To advise the Government on ways and means for strengthening public sector enterprises
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Board For Reconstruction of Public Sector Enterprises
(Brpse)- Background
Board for Reconstruction of Public Sector Enterprises (BRPSE) was established in December 2004 as an advisory body to advise the Government on the strategies, measures and schemes related to strengthening, modernizing, reviving and restructuring of public sector enterprises.
- Functions of BRPSE
- To advise the Government on ways and means for strengthening public sector enterprises in general and making them more autonomous and professional;
2. To consider restructuring – financial, organizational and business (including diversification, joint ventures, seeking strategic partners, merger and acquisition) – of CPSEs and suggest ways and means for funding such schemes;
3. To examine the proposals of the administrative Ministries for revival/ restructuring of sick/loss making CPSEs for their turnaround;
4. To advise the Government on disinvestments/closure/sale in full or part, in respect of chronically sick/loss making companies which cannot be revived. In respect of such unviable companies the Board would also advise the Government about sources of fund including sale of surplus assets of the enterprise for the payment of all legitimate dues and compensation to workers and other costs of closure;
5. To monitor incipient sickness in CPSEs; and
6. To advise the Government on such other matters as may be assigned to it by the Government from time to time.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Board For Reconstruction of Public Sector Enterprises
(Brpse)- Background
Board for Reconstruction of Public Sector Enterprises (BRPSE) was established in December 2004 as an advisory body to advise the Government on the strategies, measures and schemes related to strengthening, modernizing, reviving and restructuring of public sector enterprises.
- Functions of BRPSE
- To advise the Government on ways and means for strengthening public sector enterprises in general and making them more autonomous and professional;
2. To consider restructuring – financial, organizational and business (including diversification, joint ventures, seeking strategic partners, merger and acquisition) – of CPSEs and suggest ways and means for funding such schemes;
3. To examine the proposals of the administrative Ministries for revival/ restructuring of sick/loss making CPSEs for their turnaround;
4. To advise the Government on disinvestments/closure/sale in full or part, in respect of chronically sick/loss making companies which cannot be revived. In respect of such unviable companies the Board would also advise the Government about sources of fund including sale of surplus assets of the enterprise for the payment of all legitimate dues and compensation to workers and other costs of closure;
5. To monitor incipient sickness in CPSEs; and
6. To advise the Government on such other matters as may be assigned to it by the Government from time to time.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Capital Gain Tax
- Any asset that is held for less than 24 months is termed as a short-term asset.
- Assets like preference shares, equities, securities, equity-based Mutual Funds and zero-coupon bonds are considered as long-term capital asset if they are held for over a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
What is a Capital Gain Tax?
To simplify the Capital gain tax meaning, the tax that is levied on capital gains is termed as capital gain tax. Such taxes are levied when an asset is transferred between owners.
Types of Capital Gains Taxation
There are two types of capital gains –
1) Short-term Capital Gain Tax
Any asset that is held for less than 36 months is termed as a short-term asset. In the case of immovable properties, the duration is 24 months. The profits generated through the sale of such an asset would be treated as short-term capital gain and would be taxed accordingly.
2) Long-term Capital Gain Tax
Any asset that is held for over 36 months is termed as a long-term asset. The profits generated through the sale of such an asset would be treated as long-term capital gain and would attract tax accordingly.
Assets like preference shares, equities, UTI units, securities, equity-based Mutual Funds and zero-coupon bonds are also considered as long-term capital asset if they are held for over a year.
Incorrect
Solution: B
What is a Capital Gain Tax?
To simplify the Capital gain tax meaning, the tax that is levied on capital gains is termed as capital gain tax. Such taxes are levied when an asset is transferred between owners.
Types of Capital Gains Taxation
There are two types of capital gains –
1) Short-term Capital Gain Tax
Any asset that is held for less than 36 months is termed as a short-term asset. In the case of immovable properties, the duration is 24 months. The profits generated through the sale of such an asset would be treated as short-term capital gain and would be taxed accordingly.
2) Long-term Capital Gain Tax
Any asset that is held for over 36 months is termed as a long-term asset. The profits generated through the sale of such an asset would be treated as long-term capital gain and would attract tax accordingly.
Assets like preference shares, equities, UTI units, securities, equity-based Mutual Funds and zero-coupon bonds are also considered as long-term capital asset if they are held for over a year.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding cess and surcharge
- A cess imposed by the central government is a tax on tax, levied by the government for a specific purpose.
- Surcharge is a charge on any tax, charged on the tax already paid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
A cess is an additional tax levied by the government for a specific purpose. It is usually imposed over and above the existing tax rates. The revenue collected through cess is used for a specific purpose, such as the education cess and health cess. Cess is a tax on tax, which means that it is levied on the existing tax rate. For example, if the government imposes a 2% cess on income tax, a person with a taxable income of Rs. 10 lakhs and an income tax rate of 10% will have to pay a cess of Rs. 2,000 (2% of Rs. 1 lakh, which is the taxable income after deducting exemptions).
A surcharge is an additional charge imposed on any tax that has already been paid. It is usually imposed on high-income taxpayers or on corporate entities. The revenue collected through surcharge is used for various purposes, such as funding education, infrastructure development, or rural development. For example, if the government imposes a 10% surcharge on income tax for taxpayers with a taxable income of Rs. 50 lakhs and above, a person with a taxable income of Rs. 60 lakhs and an income tax rate of 30% will have to pay a surcharge of Rs. 18,000 (10% of Rs. 1.5 lakhs, which is the taxable income after deducting exemptions).
Incorrect
Solution: C
A cess is an additional tax levied by the government for a specific purpose. It is usually imposed over and above the existing tax rates. The revenue collected through cess is used for a specific purpose, such as the education cess and health cess. Cess is a tax on tax, which means that it is levied on the existing tax rate. For example, if the government imposes a 2% cess on income tax, a person with a taxable income of Rs. 10 lakhs and an income tax rate of 10% will have to pay a cess of Rs. 2,000 (2% of Rs. 1 lakh, which is the taxable income after deducting exemptions).
A surcharge is an additional charge imposed on any tax that has already been paid. It is usually imposed on high-income taxpayers or on corporate entities. The revenue collected through surcharge is used for various purposes, such as funding education, infrastructure development, or rural development. For example, if the government imposes a 10% surcharge on income tax for taxpayers with a taxable income of Rs. 50 lakhs and above, a person with a taxable income of Rs. 60 lakhs and an income tax rate of 30% will have to pay a surcharge of Rs. 18,000 (10% of Rs. 1.5 lakhs, which is the taxable income after deducting exemptions).
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
- Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were set up based on the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group (1975).
- The first Regional Rural Bank, the Prathama Grameen Bank, was sponsored by Syndicate bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Narasimham Working Group was constituted in 1975 to review the arrangements for institutional credit for agriculture and rural development. Based on the recommendations of this group, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in India in 1975. The main objective of setting up RRBs was to provide credit and other facilities to the rural areas for agricultural and rural development.
The first Regional Rural Bank (RRB) in India was Prathama Grameen Bank, established on 2nd October 1975. It was sponsored by the Syndicate Bank and was located in Moradabad district of Uttar Pradesh. Since then, several other RRBs have been established in different parts of the country to cater to the credit and other financial needs of the rural population.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Narasimham Working Group was constituted in 1975 to review the arrangements for institutional credit for agriculture and rural development. Based on the recommendations of this group, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established in India in 1975. The main objective of setting up RRBs was to provide credit and other facilities to the rural areas for agricultural and rural development.
The first Regional Rural Bank (RRB) in India was Prathama Grameen Bank, established on 2nd October 1975. It was sponsored by the Syndicate Bank and was located in Moradabad district of Uttar Pradesh. Since then, several other RRBs have been established in different parts of the country to cater to the credit and other financial needs of the rural population.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding currency management
- The responsibility for coinage vests with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
- The Government of India in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India decides the design of banknotes
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
What is the role of the Reserve Bank of India in currency management?
The Reserve Bank derives its role in currency management from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Reserve Bank manages currency in India. The Government, on the advice of the Reserve Bank, decides on various denominations of banknotes to be issued. The Reserve Bank also co-ordinates with the Government in the designing of banknotes, including the security features. The Reserve Bank estimates the quantity of banknotes that are likely to be needed denomination-wise and accordingly, places indent with the various printing presses. The aim of the Reserve Bank is to provide good quality notes to members of public. Towards this aim, the banknotes received back from circulation are examined and those fit for circulation are reissued and the others (soiled and mutilated) are destroyed so as to maintain the quality of banknotes in circulation.
What is the role of Government of India?
In terms of Section 25 of RBI Act, 1934 the design of banknotes is required to be approved by the Central Government on the recommendations of the Central Board of the Reserve Bank of India.
The responsibility for coinage vests with the Government of India on the basis of the Coinage Act, 2011 as amended from time to time. The Government of India is also responsible for the designing and minting of coins in various denominations.
Who decides on the figure to be printed on a new note?
The Government of India in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India decides the design of banknotes.
Incorrect
Solution: B
What is the role of the Reserve Bank of India in currency management?
The Reserve Bank derives its role in currency management from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Reserve Bank manages currency in India. The Government, on the advice of the Reserve Bank, decides on various denominations of banknotes to be issued. The Reserve Bank also co-ordinates with the Government in the designing of banknotes, including the security features. The Reserve Bank estimates the quantity of banknotes that are likely to be needed denomination-wise and accordingly, places indent with the various printing presses. The aim of the Reserve Bank is to provide good quality notes to members of public. Towards this aim, the banknotes received back from circulation are examined and those fit for circulation are reissued and the others (soiled and mutilated) are destroyed so as to maintain the quality of banknotes in circulation.
What is the role of Government of India?
In terms of Section 25 of RBI Act, 1934 the design of banknotes is required to be approved by the Central Government on the recommendations of the Central Board of the Reserve Bank of India.
The responsibility for coinage vests with the Government of India on the basis of the Coinage Act, 2011 as amended from time to time. The Government of India is also responsible for the designing and minting of coins in various denominations.
Who decides on the figure to be printed on a new note?
The Government of India in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India decides the design of banknotes.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Asian Development Bank (ADB)
- The bank admits the members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific and non-regional developed countries.
- India has the larger shareholding than United Kingdom (UK)
- The United Nations is the official Observer of the bank
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Asian Development Bank (ADB):
About ADB:
- It is a regional development bank.
- established on 19 December 1966.
- headquartered — Manila, Philippines.
- United Nations is official Observer.
Who can be its members?
The bank admits the members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP, formerly the Economic Commission for Asia and the Far East or ECAFE) and non-regional developed countries.
- ADB now has 68 members, 49 from within Asia.
Voting rights:
- It is modeled closely on the World Bank, and has a similar weighted voting system where votes are distributed in proportion with members’ capital subscriptions.
- As of 31 December 2019, ADB’s five largest shareholders are Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People’s Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%).
India’s shareholding in the ADB was 6.385%, while the United Kingdom’s shareholding was 5.509%.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Asian Development Bank (ADB):
About ADB:
- It is a regional development bank.
- established on 19 December 1966.
- headquartered — Manila, Philippines.
- United Nations is official Observer.
Who can be its members?
The bank admits the members of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP, formerly the Economic Commission for Asia and the Far East or ECAFE) and non-regional developed countries.
- ADB now has 68 members, 49 from within Asia.
Voting rights:
- It is modeled closely on the World Bank, and has a similar weighted voting system where votes are distributed in proportion with members’ capital subscriptions.
- As of 31 December 2019, ADB’s five largest shareholders are Japan and the United States (each with 15.6% of total shares), the People’s Republic of China (6.4%), India (6.3%), and Australia (5.8%).
India’s shareholding in the ADB was 6.385%, while the United Kingdom’s shareholding was 5.509%.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following form part of Capital Budget of India?
- The administrative expenses
- Salaries of Armed forces personnel
- Repayment of loans by states
- Creating assets such as roads and hospitals
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: B
The Capital Budget of India includes the capital receipts and capital expenditure of the government. Capital receipts are the money that the government receives from the sale of assets or borrowings, while capital expenditure is the expenditure incurred in creating assets or repayment of loans.
- The administrative expenses
Administrative expenses are a part of the Revenue Budget of the government and are incurred for the day-to-day functioning of the government. These expenses are not included in the Capital Budget of India.
- Salaries of Armed forces personnel
Salaries of Armed forces personnel are also a part of the Revenue Budget of the government and are considered revenue expenditure. These expenses are not included in the Capital Budget of India.
- Repayment of loans by states
Repayment of loans by states is a capital payment and is included in the Capital Budget of India.
- Creating assets such as roads and hospitals
Creating assets such as roads and hospitals is a capital payment and is included in the Capital Budget of India.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Capital Budget of India includes the capital receipts and capital expenditure of the government. Capital receipts are the money that the government receives from the sale of assets or borrowings, while capital expenditure is the expenditure incurred in creating assets or repayment of loans.
- The administrative expenses
Administrative expenses are a part of the Revenue Budget of the government and are incurred for the day-to-day functioning of the government. These expenses are not included in the Capital Budget of India.
- Salaries of Armed forces personnel
Salaries of Armed forces personnel are also a part of the Revenue Budget of the government and are considered revenue expenditure. These expenses are not included in the Capital Budget of India.
- Repayment of loans by states
Repayment of loans by states is a capital payment and is included in the Capital Budget of India.
- Creating assets such as roads and hospitals
Creating assets such as roads and hospitals is a capital payment and is included in the Capital Budget of India.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Central Board of Directors is the top decision-making body in the RBI.
- Governor and Deputy governors are appointed by Central Government.
- The tenure of service is maximum of 5 years and can be reappointed
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
STRUCTURE OF RBI
- Central Board of Directors is the top decision-making body in the RBI. It is made up of official and non-official directors.
- The Governor and Deputy Governors are the official directors.
- There is a Governor and maximum 4 Deputy Governors (According to Section-8 of RBI Act 1934); so maximum number of Official Directors in RBI’s Central Board of Directors is five.
- Governor and Deputy governors are appointed by Central Government. The tenure of service is maximum of 3 years and can be reappointed
- Further, there are 16 non-official directors in RBI.
- Out of them, four represent the local Boards located in Delhi, Chennai, Kolkata and Mumbai, thus representing 4 regions of India.
Incorrect
Solution: B
STRUCTURE OF RBI
- Central Board of Directors is the top decision-making body in the RBI. It is made up of official and non-official directors.
- The Governor and Deputy Governors are the official directors.
- There is a Governor and maximum 4 Deputy Governors (According to Section-8 of RBI Act 1934); so maximum number of Official Directors in RBI’s Central Board of Directors is five.
- Governor and Deputy governors are appointed by Central Government. The tenure of service is maximum of 3 years and can be reappointed
- Further, there are 16 non-official directors in RBI.
- Out of them, four represent the local Boards located in Delhi, Chennai, Kolkata and Mumbai, thus representing 4 regions of India.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsRBI is largely called as Banker to Banks is largely due to
- It is the banker of all the banks.
- It keeps the reserve of the banks like cash reserve ratio (CRR) with it.
- It provides financial assistance to banks against mortgaged securities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
RBI role as Banker to bank
- It is the banker of all the banks.
- It keeps the reserve of the banks like cash reserve ratio (CRR) with it.
- It provides financial assistance to banks against mortgaged securities.
- It rediscounts bills of exchange.
- Usually, banks borrow and lend money among themselves via call money market, regulated by RBI.
- RBI provides enough money to banks and so called as lender of last resort.
Incorrect
Solution: D
RBI role as Banker to bank
- It is the banker of all the banks.
- It keeps the reserve of the banks like cash reserve ratio (CRR) with it.
- It provides financial assistance to banks against mortgaged securities.
- It rediscounts bills of exchange.
- Usually, banks borrow and lend money among themselves via call money market, regulated by RBI.
- RBI provides enough money to banks and so called as lender of last resort.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the assets of Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
- Government securities
- Foreign currency assets
- Bill purchases and discounts
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsumer Confidence Survey, sometime seen in the news, is released by
Correct
Solution: B
PUBLICATIONS OF RBI
- Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India-Annually
- Financial stability report- Half yearly
- Monetary policy report- Half yearly
- Report on foreign exchange reserves- Half yearly
- Bi-monthly Policy Statement
- Industrial Outlook Survey of the Manufacturing Sector (Quarterly)
- Consumer Confidence Survey (Quarterly)
- Report on Financial Review
Incorrect
Solution: B
PUBLICATIONS OF RBI
- Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India-Annually
- Financial stability report- Half yearly
- Monetary policy report- Half yearly
- Report on foreign exchange reserves- Half yearly
- Bi-monthly Policy Statement
- Industrial Outlook Survey of the Manufacturing Sector (Quarterly)
- Consumer Confidence Survey (Quarterly)
- Report on Financial Review
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the objectives of Minimum Reserve System
- To maintain the money supply in the economy without inflationary pressure.
- To ensure the confidence of the Indian currency holders that the currency held by them is a legal tender.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
OBJECTIVES OF MINIMUM RESERVE SYSTEM (MRS)
- To maintain the money supply in the economy without inflationary pressure and maintain the confidence of the general public in the currency.
- To ensure the confidence of the Indian currency holders that the currency held by them is a legal tender.
- RBI wants to ensure the appropriate supply of currency in the economy through MRS.
- Through the MRS, the RBI accelerate the economic growth of the country without increasing the rate of inflation in the economy.
Incorrect
Solution: C
OBJECTIVES OF MINIMUM RESERVE SYSTEM (MRS)
- To maintain the money supply in the economy without inflationary pressure and maintain the confidence of the general public in the currency.
- To ensure the confidence of the Indian currency holders that the currency held by them is a legal tender.
- RBI wants to ensure the appropriate supply of currency in the economy through MRS.
- Through the MRS, the RBI accelerate the economic growth of the country without increasing the rate of inflation in the economy.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsOur municipal corporation are understaffed. The issue of skills and competencies of the staff poses an even greater challenge. Urban service delivery and infrastructure are complex to plan and execute. They require a high degree of specialization and professionalism. The current framework within which municipal employees, including senior management, are recruited does not adequately factor in the technical and managerial competencies required. Cadre and recruitment rules only specify the bare minimum in academic qualifications. There is no mention of managerial or technical competencies, or of relevant work experience. This is the case with most municipal corporations. They also suffer from weak organization design and structure.
Which among the following in the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the above passage?
- The task of providing urban servicing is a complex issue which requires the organizational expansion of municipal bodies all over the country,
- Our cities can provide better quality of life if our local government bodies have adequate staff with required skills and competencies.
- Lack of skilled staff is due to the absence of institutions which offer the requisite skills in city management.
Correct
Ans. B.
The passage talks about the human capital challenges in municipal corporation and the ways in which it is impeding their service delivery capabilities. The problem is due to the fact that such technical and managerial competencies are not factored in the requirements and neither are skilling efforts made. Statement ii captures this and hence B.
Incorrect
Ans. B.
The passage talks about the human capital challenges in municipal corporation and the ways in which it is impeding their service delivery capabilities. The problem is due to the fact that such technical and managerial competencies are not factored in the requirements and neither are skilling efforts made. Statement ii captures this and hence B.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThe debate on the UCC is centered on the argument to replace individual personal customs and practices of marriage, divorce, adoption and successions with a common code. Those in favor of one code argue that it will end discrimination in religions. Detractors contend that it will rob the nation of its religious diversity and violate the fundamental right to practice religion enshrined in Article 25 of the Constitution. In fact, they hold that a state action to introduce the UCC is against the quintessence of democracy. The secular state is, after all, an enabler of rights rather than an inhibitor in sensitive matters of religion and personal laws.
Which of the following is/are assumption(s) that have been made in the passage?
- Personal customs are an essential part of any religion
- If the state tries to introduce UCC, it would violate the tenets of secularisms
- UCC is a contentious issue
Correct
Ans. D.
All the three options are valid assumptions made in the passage. The passage does say that debate on UCC is related to personal customs. Every religion has a different form of such customs and hence they are an essential part of religion. Last statement is correct as there is a debate over UCC. The 2nd statement is correct as per the view of those who argue that if state introduces UCC, it abridges the freedom of religion.
Incorrect
Ans. D.
All the three options are valid assumptions made in the passage. The passage does say that debate on UCC is related to personal customs. Every religion has a different form of such customs and hence they are an essential part of religion. Last statement is correct as there is a debate over UCC. The 2nd statement is correct as per the view of those who argue that if state introduces UCC, it abridges the freedom of religion.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsIn a certain code language,
‘Worker hard stay humble’ is written as ‘3E$ 4D@ 3Z$ 4S@’
‘Faith can move zombie’ is written as ‘ 2O% 3D@ 3I# 2D$’
‘Think outside box only’ is written as ‘ 3D& 3Z$ 2Y% 4L#’
‘Too nothing little always’ is written as ‘ 4D@ 5H& 1N% 4T@’
What is the code for the word ‘Zombie’?
Correct
Correct Option: C
Following common explanation, we get the code for ‘Zombie’ as ‘ 3D@’.
Option C is hence the correct answer.
Common Explanation:
In this question,
- Each of the symbols of mathematical operations in the end of the code represents the number of letters its corresponding word does have.
No. of letters in the word Symbol
3 %
4 $
5 #
6 @
7 &
- Now, the letters used in the middle of the codes represent two methods. Some words end with a consonant and the other end with a vowel. A consonant representing the word it belongs to, gets coded as the next letter in the alphabet and a vowel representing the word it belongs to, gets coded as the previous letter of this vowel in the alphabet.
For example,
The word ‘Worker’ ends with ‘R’ and the next letter to ‘R’ in the alphabet is ‘S’. So, the code of ‘Worker’ made applying the rules discussed so far would be ” _S@.
- The number in each of the codes represents the number of consonants present in each of the words.
For instance,
The number of consonants in the word ‘Worker’ is 4. Hence, the complete code for ‘Worker’ will be 4S@.
Following the rules discussed so far, we can code the other words as well.
Incorrect
Correct Option: C
Following common explanation, we get the code for ‘Zombie’ as ‘ 3D@’.
Option C is hence the correct answer.
Common Explanation:
In this question,
- Each of the symbols of mathematical operations in the end of the code represents the number of letters its corresponding word does have.
No. of letters in the word Symbol
3 %
4 $
5 #
6 @
7 &
- Now, the letters used in the middle of the codes represent two methods. Some words end with a consonant and the other end with a vowel. A consonant representing the word it belongs to, gets coded as the next letter in the alphabet and a vowel representing the word it belongs to, gets coded as the previous letter of this vowel in the alphabet.
For example,
The word ‘Worker’ ends with ‘R’ and the next letter to ‘R’ in the alphabet is ‘S’. So, the code of ‘Worker’ made applying the rules discussed so far would be ” _S@.
- The number in each of the codes represents the number of consonants present in each of the words.
For instance,
The number of consonants in the word ‘Worker’ is 4. Hence, the complete code for ‘Worker’ will be 4S@.
Following the rules discussed so far, we can code the other words as well.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsIn a certain code language,
‘Worker hard stay humble’ is written as ‘3E$ 4D@ 3Z$ 4S@’
‘Faith can move zombie’ is written as ‘ 2O% 3D@ 3I# 2D$’
‘Think outside box only’ is written as ‘ 3D& 3Z$ 2Y% 4L#’
‘Too nothing little always’ is written as ‘ 4D@ 5H& 1N% 4T@’
Which of the following codes is for ‘Winners never quit’?
Correct
Correct Option: C
Following common explanation, we get the code for ‘Winners never quit’ as ‘ 3S# 2U$ 5T&’.
Option C is hence the correct answer.
Common Explanation:
In this question,
- Each of the symbols of mathematical operations in the end of the code represents the number of letters its corresponding word does have.
No. of letters in the word Symbol
3 %
4 $
5 #
6 @
7 &
- Now, the letters used in the middle of the codes represent two methods. Some words end with a consonant and the other end with a vowel. A consonant representing the word it belongs to, gets coded as the next letter in the alphabet and a vowel representing the word it belongs to, gets coded as the previous letter of this vowel in the alphabet.
For example,
The word ‘Worker’ ends with ‘R’ and the next letter to ‘R’ in the alphabet is ‘S’. So, the code of ‘Worker’ made applying the rules discussed so far would be ” _S@.
- The number in each of the codes represents the number of consonants present in each of the words.
For instance,
The number of consonants in the word ‘Worker’ is 4. Hence, the complete code for ‘Worker’ will be 4S@.
Following the rules discussed so far, we can code the other words as well.
Incorrect
Correct Option: C
Following common explanation, we get the code for ‘Winners never quit’ as ‘ 3S# 2U$ 5T&’.
Option C is hence the correct answer.
Common Explanation:
In this question,
- Each of the symbols of mathematical operations in the end of the code represents the number of letters its corresponding word does have.
No. of letters in the word Symbol
3 %
4 $
5 #
6 @
7 &
- Now, the letters used in the middle of the codes represent two methods. Some words end with a consonant and the other end with a vowel. A consonant representing the word it belongs to, gets coded as the next letter in the alphabet and a vowel representing the word it belongs to, gets coded as the previous letter of this vowel in the alphabet.
For example,
The word ‘Worker’ ends with ‘R’ and the next letter to ‘R’ in the alphabet is ‘S’. So, the code of ‘Worker’ made applying the rules discussed so far would be ” _S@.
- The number in each of the codes represents the number of consonants present in each of the words.
For instance,
The number of consonants in the word ‘Worker’ is 4. Hence, the complete code for ‘Worker’ will be 4S@.
Following the rules discussed so far, we can code the other words as well.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsIn a certain code language,
‘Worker hard stay humble’ is written as ‘3E$ 4D@ 3Z$ 4S@’
‘Faith can move zombie’ is written as ‘ 2O% 3D@ 3I# 2D$’
‘Think outside box only’ is written as ‘ 3D& 3Z$ 2Y% 4L#’
‘Too nothing little always’ is written as ‘ 4D@ 5H& 1N% 4T@’
What is the code for the word ‘Half girl friend’?
Correct
Correct Option: B
Following common explanation, we get the code for ‘Half girl friend’ as ‘ 3M$ 4E@ 3G$’.
Option B is hence the correct answer.
Common Explanation:
In this question,
- Each of the symbols of mathematical operations in the end of the code represents the number of letters its corresponding word does have.
No. of letters in the word Symbol
3 %
4 $
5 #
6 @
7 &
- Now, the letters used in the middle of the codes represent two methods. Some words end with a consonant and the other end with a vowel. A consonant representing the word it belongs to, gets coded as the next letter in the alphabet and a vowel representing the word it belongs to, gets coded as the previous letter of this vowel in the alphabet.
For example,
The word ‘Worker’ ends with ‘R’ and the next letter to ‘R’ in the alphabet is ‘S’. So, the code of ‘Worker’ made applying the rules discussed so far would be ” _S@.
- The number in each of the codes represents the number of consonants present in each of the words.
For instance,
The number of consonants in the word ‘Worker’ is 4. Hence, the complete code for ‘Worker’ will be 4S@.
Following the rules discussed so far, we can code the other words as well.
Incorrect
Correct Option: B
Following common explanation, we get the code for ‘Half girl friend’ as ‘ 3M$ 4E@ 3G$’.
Option B is hence the correct answer.
Common Explanation:
In this question,
- Each of the symbols of mathematical operations in the end of the code represents the number of letters its corresponding word does have.
No. of letters in the word Symbol
3 %
4 $
5 #
6 @
7 &
- Now, the letters used in the middle of the codes represent two methods. Some words end with a consonant and the other end with a vowel. A consonant representing the word it belongs to, gets coded as the next letter in the alphabet and a vowel representing the word it belongs to, gets coded as the previous letter of this vowel in the alphabet.
For example,
The word ‘Worker’ ends with ‘R’ and the next letter to ‘R’ in the alphabet is ‘S’. So, the code of ‘Worker’ made applying the rules discussed so far would be ” _S@.
- The number in each of the codes represents the number of consonants present in each of the words.
For instance,
The number of consonants in the word ‘Worker’ is 4. Hence, the complete code for ‘Worker’ will be 4S@.
Following the rules discussed so far, we can code the other words as well.
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