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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- National Civil Services Day is celebrated in India on April 21 every year.
- The theme for this year’s Civil Services Day is ‘Viksit Bharat: Empowering Citizens and Reaching the Last Mile’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- The Government of India commemorates ‘Civil Services Day’ every year on April 21. The day is marked to celebrate the exemplary work done by our civil servants, and as an opportunity for them to recommit themselves to the cause of citizens. The theme for this year’s Civil Services Day is ‘Viksit Bharat: Empowering Citizens and Reaching the Last Mile’.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/21/16th-civil-services-day/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- The Government of India commemorates ‘Civil Services Day’ every year on April 21. The day is marked to celebrate the exemplary work done by our civil servants, and as an opportunity for them to recommit themselves to the cause of citizens. The theme for this year’s Civil Services Day is ‘Viksit Bharat: Empowering Citizens and Reaching the Last Mile’.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/21/16th-civil-services-day/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel:
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- He was one of the main leaders of Kheda Satyagraha (1918) and Bardoli Satyagraha (1928).
- He was appointed as the 49th President of the Indian National Congress.
- For his commitment to national integration, he is known as the “Iron Man of India”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel (31 October 1875 – 15 December 1950), popularly known as Sardar Patel, was the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home minister of India.
- He was one of the main leaders of Kheda Satyagraha (1918) and Bardoli Satyagraha (1928).
- The women of Bardoli gave him the title of “Sardar”.
- He was appointed as the 49th President of the Indian National Congress, organising the party for elections in 1934 and 1937 while promoting the Quit India Movement.
- For his commitment to national integration, he is known as the “Iron Man of India”.
- He is also remembered as the “patron saint of India’s civil servants” for having established modern all-India services.
- The Statue of Unity, the world’s tallest statue, was dedicated to him on 31 October 2018 and is approximately 182 metres (597 ft) in height.
- He was a major driving force behind the liberal industrial policy resolution of 1948.
- He headed the following committee of the Constituent Assembly:
- Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights.
- Committee on Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas.
- Provincial Constitution
- In 2014, the Government of India decided to celebrate the birthday of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel as “National Unity Day” to honour Sardar Patel’s contribution to integrated India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/21/16th-civil-services-day/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel (31 October 1875 – 15 December 1950), popularly known as Sardar Patel, was the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home minister of India.
- He was one of the main leaders of Kheda Satyagraha (1918) and Bardoli Satyagraha (1928).
- The women of Bardoli gave him the title of “Sardar”.
- He was appointed as the 49th President of the Indian National Congress, organising the party for elections in 1934 and 1937 while promoting the Quit India Movement.
- For his commitment to national integration, he is known as the “Iron Man of India”.
- He is also remembered as the “patron saint of India’s civil servants” for having established modern all-India services.
- The Statue of Unity, the world’s tallest statue, was dedicated to him on 31 October 2018 and is approximately 182 metres (597 ft) in height.
- He was a major driving force behind the liberal industrial policy resolution of 1948.
- He headed the following committee of the Constituent Assembly:
- Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights.
- Committee on Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas.
- Provincial Constitution
- In 2014, the Government of India decided to celebrate the birthday of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel as “National Unity Day” to honour Sardar Patel’s contribution to integrated India.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/21/16th-civil-services-day/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Animal Welfare Board of India.
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- Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body established under the Wild Life(Protection) Act, 1972.
- It was started under the stewardship of Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale.
- It provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advises the Government of India on animal welfare issues.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. Established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, the Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian. From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 50 years.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/21/animal-birth-control-rules-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. Established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, the Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian. From ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues, the Board has been the face of the animal welfare movement in the country for the last 50 years.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/21/animal-birth-control-rules-2023/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about SATHI portal:
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- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Textiles.
- It addresses the need expressed by many states for technical support.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (d )
Explanation:
- Context: The Sathi (Seed Traceability, Authentication and Holistic Inventory) portal and mobile app were launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
About Description Objective Designed to curb the sale of spurious seeds and ensure that quality seeds reach farmers Working Quality assurance, seed source identification (traced through a QR code system), Seed Certification, Seed Licensing, Seed Catalogue, Dealer Farmer Sales, Farmer Registration and direct subsidies to registered farmers’ bank accounts Process Seeds with valid certification can only be sold by valid licensed dealers to centrally registered farmers who will receive a subsidy through DBT directly into their bank accounts Developer National Informatics Centre in collaboration with the Ministry on the theme of ‘Uttam Beej – Samriddh Kisan’ Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/21/sathi-portal-and-mobile-app/
Incorrect
Ans: (d )
Explanation:
- Context: The Sathi (Seed Traceability, Authentication and Holistic Inventory) portal and mobile app were launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
About Description Objective Designed to curb the sale of spurious seeds and ensure that quality seeds reach farmers Working Quality assurance, seed source identification (traced through a QR code system), Seed Certification, Seed Licensing, Seed Catalogue, Dealer Farmer Sales, Farmer Registration and direct subsidies to registered farmers’ bank accounts Process Seeds with valid certification can only be sold by valid licensed dealers to centrally registered farmers who will receive a subsidy through DBT directly into their bank accounts Developer National Informatics Centre in collaboration with the Ministry on the theme of ‘Uttam Beej – Samriddh Kisan’ Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/21/sathi-portal-and-mobile-app/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsRecently, ‘MAHARISHI’ initiative was in news, is associated with
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Context: MACS 2023 unanimously agreed to launch a Millet Initiative – MAHARISHI which was proposed by India for research in the field of millets
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/21/maharishi/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Context: MACS 2023 unanimously agreed to launch a Millet Initiative – MAHARISHI which was proposed by India for research in the field of millets
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/21/maharishi/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWith reference to fourth state of matter, consider the following statements:
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- Plasma is referred to as the fourth state of matter, along with solid, liquid, and gas.
- The sun is made of hydrogen-plasma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Plasma is often referred to as the fourth state of matter, along with solid, liquid, and gas. It is a type of gas that is made up of electrically charged particles, such as ions and free electrons. Plasma can be found in many places, including flames, lightning, and the sun.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/21/emic-plasma-wave/
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Plasma is often referred to as the fourth state of matter, along with solid, liquid, and gas. It is a type of gas that is made up of electrically charged particles, such as ions and free electrons. Plasma can be found in many places, including flames, lightning, and the sun.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/21/emic-plasma-wave/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsRegarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
Correct
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Definition of Money Bill
- (1) For the purposes of this Chapter, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely
- (a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
- (b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India;
- (c) the custody of the consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund;
- (d) the appropriation of moneys out of the consolidated Fund of India (not Contingency Fund of India). So, C is incorrect.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2018
Incorrect
Ans: (c )
Explanation:
- Definition of Money Bill
- (1) For the purposes of this Chapter, a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely
- (a) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax;
- (b) the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India;
- (c) the custody of the consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund;
- (d) the appropriation of moneys out of the consolidated Fund of India (not Contingency Fund of India). So, C is incorrect.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2018
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’ which of the following statements is/are correct?
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- GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Pats in 2015.
- Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
- India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially presented and at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010, through the paper “Climate-Smart Agriculture: Policies, Practices and Financing for Food Security, Adaptation and Mitigation”. In 2014 an alliance was set up with this issue as its focal point: the GASCA (Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture).
- GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). Its vision is to improve food security, nutrition and resilience in the face of climate change. GACSA aims to catalyse and help create transformational partnerships to encourage actions that reflect an integrated approach to the three pillars of CSA.
- Statement 2 is correct because membership in the Alliance does not create any binding obligations and each member individually determines the nature of its participation.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because India is just a signatory.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2018
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect because the concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially presented and at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010, through the paper “Climate-Smart Agriculture: Policies, Practices and Financing for Food Security, Adaptation and Mitigation”. In 2014 an alliance was set up with this issue as its focal point: the GASCA (Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture).
- GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). Its vision is to improve food security, nutrition and resilience in the face of climate change. GACSA aims to catalyse and help create transformational partnerships to encourage actions that reflect an integrated approach to the three pillars of CSA.
- Statement 2 is correct because membership in the Alliance does not create any binding obligations and each member individually determines the nature of its participation.
- Statement 3 is incorrect because India is just a signatory.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2018
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- Speaker of the legislative assembly shall vacate his/her office of he/she ceases to be a member of the assembly
- Whenever the legislative assembly is dissolved the speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Usually, the speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following cases:
- If he ceases to be a member of the assembly
- If he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker and;
- If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the Speaker holds office from the date of her election till immediately before the first meeting of the Legislative assembly after the dissolution of the one to which she was elected. She is eligible for re-election. On the dissolution of the Legislative assembly, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, she does not vacate her office.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2018
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Usually, the speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following cases:
- If he ceases to be a member of the assembly
- If he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker and;
- If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice
- Statement 2 is incorrect because the Speaker holds office from the date of her election till immediately before the first meeting of the Legislative assembly after the dissolution of the one to which she was elected. She is eligible for re-election. On the dissolution of the Legislative assembly, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House, she does not vacate her office.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2018
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the governor of a state in any court during his term of office
- Emoluments and allowances of the governor of a state shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
Correct
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Article 361. Protection of President and Governors
- No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office,
- Article 158: Conditions of Governor Office
- The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office
Refer: UPSC CSE 2018
Incorrect
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- Article 361. Protection of President and Governors
- No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office,
- Article 158: Conditions of Governor Office
- The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office
Refer: UPSC CSE 2018
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