INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
Click Here to Download the Insta Test PDF
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsTechnology and Innovation Report 2023 was released by
Correct
Solution: B
Technology and Innovation Report 2023 was recently released by UNCTAD.
- It highlights the opportunities that green innovation – goods and services with smaller carbon footprints offer developing countries to spur economic growth and enhance technological capacities.
The Technology and Innovation Report 2023 highlights the opportunities that green innovation – goods and services with smaller carbon footprints – offer developing countries to spur economic growth and enhance technological capacities.
The report analyses the market size of 17 green and frontier technologies, such as artificial intelligence, the Internet of Things and electric vehicles, and their potential to create jobs.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Technology and Innovation Report 2023 was recently released by UNCTAD.
- It highlights the opportunities that green innovation – goods and services with smaller carbon footprints offer developing countries to spur economic growth and enhance technological capacities.
The Technology and Innovation Report 2023 highlights the opportunities that green innovation – goods and services with smaller carbon footprints – offer developing countries to spur economic growth and enhance technological capacities.
The report analyses the market size of 17 green and frontier technologies, such as artificial intelligence, the Internet of Things and electric vehicles, and their potential to create jobs.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding 4-metre International Liquid Mirror Telescope (ILMT)
- It is located at Devasthal Observatory campus of ARIES.
- The telescope was designed and built by the NASA in collaboration with ISRO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Asia’s largest 4-metre International Liquid Mirror Telescope at Devasthal in Uttarakhand.
Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) announced that the world-class 4-metre International Liquid Mirror Telescope (ILMT) is now ready to explore the deep celestial sky. It achieved its first light in the 2nd week of May 2022. The telescope is located at an altitude of 2450 metre at the Devasthal Observatory campus of ARIES, an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Govt. of India in Nainital district, Uttarakhand.
The telescope was designed and built by the Advanced Mechanical and Optical Systems (AMOS) Corporation and the Centre Spatial de Liège in Belgium.
ILMT employs a 4-metre-diameter rotating mirror made up of a thin layer of liquid mercury, to collect and focus light.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Asia’s largest 4-metre International Liquid Mirror Telescope at Devasthal in Uttarakhand.
Aryabhatta Research Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES) announced that the world-class 4-metre International Liquid Mirror Telescope (ILMT) is now ready to explore the deep celestial sky. It achieved its first light in the 2nd week of May 2022. The telescope is located at an altitude of 2450 metre at the Devasthal Observatory campus of ARIES, an autonomous institute under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Govt. of India in Nainital district, Uttarakhand.
The telescope was designed and built by the Advanced Mechanical and Optical Systems (AMOS) Corporation and the Centre Spatial de Liège in Belgium.
ILMT employs a 4-metre-diameter rotating mirror made up of a thin layer of liquid mercury, to collect and focus light.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF)
- It was launched by India on the sidelines of ASEAN summit.
- All southeast Asian countries are part of IPEF.
- The IPEF is designed to be flexible, meaning that IPEF partners are not required to join all four pillars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) was launched by United States (US) President Biden in Tokyo on May 23, 2022. The IPEF has four pillars: Trade; supply chains; clean energy, decarbonisation and infrastructure; tax and anti-corruption.
In May 2022, the United States launched the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) with Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Fiji India, Indonesia, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam. Except Cambodia, Laos and Myanmar, other Southeast Asian nations are a part of the IPEF.
The 14 IPEF partners represent 40 percent of global GDP and 28 percent of global goods and services trade.
The launch began discussions of future negotiations on the following pillars: (1) Trade; (2) Supply Chains; (3) Clean Energy, Decarbonization, and Infrastructure; and (4) Tax and Anti-Corruption. The IPEF is designed to be flexible, meaning that IPEF partners are not required to join all four pillars.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) was launched by United States (US) President Biden in Tokyo on May 23, 2022. The IPEF has four pillars: Trade; supply chains; clean energy, decarbonisation and infrastructure; tax and anti-corruption.
In May 2022, the United States launched the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) with Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Fiji India, Indonesia, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam. Except Cambodia, Laos and Myanmar, other Southeast Asian nations are a part of the IPEF.
The 14 IPEF partners represent 40 percent of global GDP and 28 percent of global goods and services trade.
The launch began discussions of future negotiations on the following pillars: (1) Trade; (2) Supply Chains; (3) Clean Energy, Decarbonization, and Infrastructure; and (4) Tax and Anti-Corruption. The IPEF is designed to be flexible, meaning that IPEF partners are not required to join all four pillars.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding City Finance Rankings 2022
- It was launched by National Housing Bank.
- The urban local bodies will be evaluated on 15 indicators across three key parameters: resource mobilization, expenditure performance and fiscal governance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry on March 20 launched the ‘City Finance Rankings 2022’ under which urban local bodies in the country will be evaluated on the basis of their financial health.
The urban local bodies, which take part in the rankings, will be evaluated on 15 indicators across three key parameters — resource mobilisation, expenditure performance and fiscal governance.
The rankings have been launched with the objective of evaluating, recognising and rewarding municipal bodies across the country on the basis of the quality of their current financial health and improvement over time in financial performance. The effort also aims to identify areas in the financial performance of the cities where they can make further improvements. This will enable them to deliver quality infrastructure and services and hence a good quality of life to citizens.
The cities will be ranked on the basis of their scores under four population categories — above 40 lakh, 10 lakh-40 lakh, one lakh to 10 lakh and below one lakh. Awards would be given to the top three cities in each category.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry on March 20 launched the ‘City Finance Rankings 2022’ under which urban local bodies in the country will be evaluated on the basis of their financial health.
The urban local bodies, which take part in the rankings, will be evaluated on 15 indicators across three key parameters — resource mobilisation, expenditure performance and fiscal governance.
The rankings have been launched with the objective of evaluating, recognising and rewarding municipal bodies across the country on the basis of the quality of their current financial health and improvement over time in financial performance. The effort also aims to identify areas in the financial performance of the cities where they can make further improvements. This will enable them to deliver quality infrastructure and services and hence a good quality of life to citizens.
The cities will be ranked on the basis of their scores under four population categories — above 40 lakh, 10 lakh-40 lakh, one lakh to 10 lakh and below one lakh. Awards would be given to the top three cities in each category.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding c-VEDA
- It is jointly funded by the Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) and the Newton Grant from the Medical Research Council (MRC), United Kingdom.
- It aims to investigate if environmental and genetic risk factors in industrialised countries and emerging societies shape brain function and behaviour in distinct ways.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Consortium on Vulnerability to Externalizing Disorders and Addictions (c-VEDA) is jointly funded by the Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) and the Newton Grant from the Medical Research Council (MRC), United Kingdom. Principal Investigators for this study are Professor Gunter Schumann, King’s College London (KCL; London, UK) and Dr Vivek Benegal, National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS; Bangalore, India). Project coordinators are Ms Yuning Zhang (London) and Ms Nilakshi Vaidya (India). The India-UK project is an international collaboration between Prof Gunter Schumann at King’s College London and Prof Vivek Benegal of the National Institute for Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS), Bangalore and our Indian partners from Bangalore, Mysore, Calcutta, Chandigarh and Manupur. Our aim is to investigate if environmental and genetic risk factors in industrialised countries and emerging societies shape brain function and behaviour in distinct ways, thus leading to different risk constellations and neurobehavioural trajectories for substance misuse and externalising disorders.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Consortium on Vulnerability to Externalizing Disorders and Addictions (c-VEDA) is jointly funded by the Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) and the Newton Grant from the Medical Research Council (MRC), United Kingdom. Principal Investigators for this study are Professor Gunter Schumann, King’s College London (KCL; London, UK) and Dr Vivek Benegal, National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS; Bangalore, India). Project coordinators are Ms Yuning Zhang (London) and Ms Nilakshi Vaidya (India). The India-UK project is an international collaboration between Prof Gunter Schumann at King’s College London and Prof Vivek Benegal of the National Institute for Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS), Bangalore and our Indian partners from Bangalore, Mysore, Calcutta, Chandigarh and Manupur. Our aim is to investigate if environmental and genetic risk factors in industrialised countries and emerging societies shape brain function and behaviour in distinct ways, thus leading to different risk constellations and neurobehavioural trajectories for substance misuse and externalising disorders.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Keibul Lamjao National Park
- It is the last natural habitat of the brow-antlered deer (Sangai) the dancing deer.
- It is located in the state of Meghalaya.
- The park is located in the Loktak lake, which has a unique ecosystem called ‘Phumdi’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Keibul Lamjao National Park
The park is located in the south western part of the Loktak lake. This is the last natural habitat of the brow-antlered deer (Sangai) the dancing deer of Manipur. Keibul Lamjao National Park is the only floating park in the world.
The Loktak Lake has a unique ecosystem called ‘Phumdi’ (a Manipuri word meaning floating mats of soil and vegetation). The largest area of the Phumdi in the Loktak lake is in the Keibul Lamjao National Park, which is home to Manipur brow-antlered deer (Rucervus eldi eldi) also popularly known as the Sangai. The habitat exclusively consists of floating meadows and an elevated strip of hard ground that dissects the park into northern and southern zones. For effective in-situ conservation of Sangai, Forest Department of Manipur in collaboration with Wildlife Institute of India has developed a plan to reintroduce Sangai in the adjoining area having similar habitat.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Keibul Lamjao National Park
The park is located in the south western part of the Loktak lake. This is the last natural habitat of the brow-antlered deer (Sangai) the dancing deer of Manipur. Keibul Lamjao National Park is the only floating park in the world.
The Loktak Lake has a unique ecosystem called ‘Phumdi’ (a Manipuri word meaning floating mats of soil and vegetation). The largest area of the Phumdi in the Loktak lake is in the Keibul Lamjao National Park, which is home to Manipur brow-antlered deer (Rucervus eldi eldi) also popularly known as the Sangai. The habitat exclusively consists of floating meadows and an elevated strip of hard ground that dissects the park into northern and southern zones. For effective in-situ conservation of Sangai, Forest Department of Manipur in collaboration with Wildlife Institute of India has developed a plan to reintroduce Sangai in the adjoining area having similar habitat.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Additional Tier 1 Bonds (AT1 Bonds)
- AT1 bonds are unsecured capital instruments banks issue to raise their core equity base.
- The World Bank introduced them after the global financial crisis in 2008, and they conform to the Basel III norms.
- These bonds have a maximum maturity period of five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
AT1 Bonds, also called Additional Tier 1 Bonds, are capital instruments banks issue to raise their core equity base. These bonds are perpetual, meaning they have no maturity date. The investors are not paid back the principal amount. These bonds are primarily issued to acquire long-term capital.
AT1 bonds are unsecured capital instruments banks issue to raise their core equity base.
The Basel accord introduced them after the global financial crisis in 2008, and they conform to the Basel III norms.
These bonds are perpetual, meaning they do not have a maturity period. However, they come with a call option after a minimum of 5 years.
AT1 bonds, as these instruments are popularly known, are a type of perpetual debt instrument that banks use to augment their core equity base and thus comply with Basel III norms. These bonds were introduced by the Basel accord after the global financial crisis to protect depositors.
Incorrect
Solution: A
AT1 Bonds, also called Additional Tier 1 Bonds, are capital instruments banks issue to raise their core equity base. These bonds are perpetual, meaning they have no maturity date. The investors are not paid back the principal amount. These bonds are primarily issued to acquire long-term capital.
AT1 bonds are unsecured capital instruments banks issue to raise their core equity base.
The Basel accord introduced them after the global financial crisis in 2008, and they conform to the Basel III norms.
These bonds are perpetual, meaning they do not have a maturity period. However, they come with a call option after a minimum of 5 years.
AT1 bonds, as these instruments are popularly known, are a type of perpetual debt instrument that banks use to augment their core equity base and thus comply with Basel III norms. These bonds were introduced by the Basel accord after the global financial crisis to protect depositors.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Virashaiva Tradition
- It was a new movement led by Basavanna, who was a minister in the court of a Kalachuri ruler.
- They encouraged certain practices disapproved in the Dharmashastras, such as post puberty marriage and the remarriage of widows.
- They do not perform any funerary rites such as cremation, and neither theybury their dead.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Virashaiva Tradition in Karnataka
The twelfth century witnessed the emergence of a new movement in Karnataka, led by a Brahmana named Basavanna (1106-68) who was a minister in the court of a Kalachuri ruler. His followers were known as Virashaivas (heroes of Shiva) or Lingayats (wearers of the linga). Lingayats continue to be an important community in the region to date. They worship Shiva in his manifestation as a linga, and men usually wear a small linga in a silver case on a loop strung over the left shoulder. Those who are revered include the jangama or wandering monks.
Lingayats believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to this world. Therefore they do not practise funerary rites such as cremation, prescribed in the Dharmashastras. Instead, they ceremonially bury their dead.
The Lingayats challenged the idea of caste and the “pollution” attributed to certain groups by Brahmanas. They also questioned the theory of rebirth. These won them followers amongst those who were marginalised within the Brahmanical social order. The Lingayats also encouraged certain practices disapproved in the Dharmashastras, such as post puberty marriage and the remarriage of widows.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Virashaiva Tradition in Karnataka
The twelfth century witnessed the emergence of a new movement in Karnataka, led by a Brahmana named Basavanna (1106-68) who was a minister in the court of a Kalachuri ruler. His followers were known as Virashaivas (heroes of Shiva) or Lingayats (wearers of the linga). Lingayats continue to be an important community in the region to date. They worship Shiva in his manifestation as a linga, and men usually wear a small linga in a silver case on a loop strung over the left shoulder. Those who are revered include the jangama or wandering monks.
Lingayats believe that on death the devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to this world. Therefore they do not practise funerary rites such as cremation, prescribed in the Dharmashastras. Instead, they ceremonially bury their dead.
The Lingayats challenged the idea of caste and the “pollution” attributed to certain groups by Brahmanas. They also questioned the theory of rebirth. These won them followers amongst those who were marginalised within the Brahmanical social order. The Lingayats also encouraged certain practices disapproved in the Dharmashastras, such as post puberty marriage and the remarriage of widows.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsAshtadhyayi a Sanskrit grammer work was written by
Correct
Solution: A
There was a good deal of grammatical activity during the Mauryan period. In Sanskrit grammar, Panini (5th century BC) had already written the Ashtadhyayi. Between Panini and Patanjali (2nd century BC), there appeared a number of commentators (Varttikakaras) on Panini’s aphorisms. Vyadi, a descendent of Panini on his mother’s side, produced the monumental work Samgraha in 1,00,000 verses. To Vyadi is also ascribed the Paribhashas or the rules for interpreting Panini’s sutras, as well as a lexicon, named Utpalini. Another versatile figure of the Nanda-Maurya epoch was Katyayana alias Vararuchi, the famous commentator of Panini’s sutras. In his Vajasaneyi Pratisakhya, he subjected about 1,500 sutras of Panini to critical observations.
Incorrect
Solution: A
There was a good deal of grammatical activity during the Mauryan period. In Sanskrit grammar, Panini (5th century BC) had already written the Ashtadhyayi. Between Panini and Patanjali (2nd century BC), there appeared a number of commentators (Varttikakaras) on Panini’s aphorisms. Vyadi, a descendent of Panini on his mother’s side, produced the monumental work Samgraha in 1,00,000 verses. To Vyadi is also ascribed the Paribhashas or the rules for interpreting Panini’s sutras, as well as a lexicon, named Utpalini. Another versatile figure of the Nanda-Maurya epoch was Katyayana alias Vararuchi, the famous commentator of Panini’s sutras. In his Vajasaneyi Pratisakhya, he subjected about 1,500 sutras of Panini to critical observations.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsmatch the literary works with their authors
- Saundarananda: Bhasa
- Raghuvamsha: Kalidasa
- Svapnavasavadatta: Asvaghosha
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
Asvaghosha, the most outstanding Buddhist writer in Sanskrit, adorned the court of Kanishka. He wrote, apart from the Buddhacharita, another epic named Saundarananda.
After Asvaghosha, the most celebrated Indian poet is Kalidasa. His Kumarasambhava is an epic in seventeen cantos, of which only the first eight are believed to be genuine. Its theme is the marriage of Lord Siva and Uma and the birth of Karttikeya. The Raghuvamsha, another epic of Kalidasa, has nineteen cantos based on the history of kings of the Ikshvakus.
The most outstanding early Sanskrit dramatist is Bhasa, whose thirteen dramas have now been discovered.
- His plays are taken from the two great epics and various popular tales. The plays based on the Ramayana are Pratima and Abhisheka, while Madhyamavyayoga, Dutaghatotkacha, and Karnabhara are based on the But it is Svapnavasavadatta which is undoubtedly the best of Bhasa’s dramas.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Asvaghosha, the most outstanding Buddhist writer in Sanskrit, adorned the court of Kanishka. He wrote, apart from the Buddhacharita, another epic named Saundarananda.
After Asvaghosha, the most celebrated Indian poet is Kalidasa. His Kumarasambhava is an epic in seventeen cantos, of which only the first eight are believed to be genuine. Its theme is the marriage of Lord Siva and Uma and the birth of Karttikeya. The Raghuvamsha, another epic of Kalidasa, has nineteen cantos based on the history of kings of the Ikshvakus.
The most outstanding early Sanskrit dramatist is Bhasa, whose thirteen dramas have now been discovered.
- His plays are taken from the two great epics and various popular tales. The plays based on the Ramayana are Pratima and Abhisheka, while Madhyamavyayoga, Dutaghatotkacha, and Karnabhara are based on the But it is Svapnavasavadatta which is undoubtedly the best of Bhasa’s dramas.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ramman
- The festival is organized by villagers, and each caste and occupational group has a distinct role.
- Ramman is a multiform cultural event that reflects the environmental, spiritual and cultural concept of the community
- One of the ritual event involves recitation of a version of the epic of Rama and various legends.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
UNESCO – Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, India
Inscribed in 2009 on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity
Every year in late April, the twin villages of Saloor-Dungra in the state of Uttarakhand (northern India) are marked by Ramman, a religious festival in honour of the tutelary god, Bhumiyal Devta, a local divinity whose temple houses most of the festivities. This event is made up of highly complex rituals: the recitation of a version of the epic of Rama and various legends, and the performance of songs and masked dances. The festival is organized by villagers, and each caste and occupational group has a distinct role.
The family that hosts Bhumiyal Devta during the year must adhere to a strict daily routine. Combining theatre, music, historical reconstructions, and traditional oral and written tales, the Ramman is a multiform cultural event that reflects the environmental, spiritual and cultural concept of the community, recounting its founding myths and strengthening its sense of self-worth. In order to ensure that it remains viable, the community’s priorities are to promote its transmission and to obtain its recognition beyond the geographical area in which it is practised.
Incorrect
Solution: D
UNESCO – Ramman, religious festival and ritual theatre of the Garhwal Himalayas, India
Inscribed in 2009 on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity
Every year in late April, the twin villages of Saloor-Dungra in the state of Uttarakhand (northern India) are marked by Ramman, a religious festival in honour of the tutelary god, Bhumiyal Devta, a local divinity whose temple houses most of the festivities. This event is made up of highly complex rituals: the recitation of a version of the epic of Rama and various legends, and the performance of songs and masked dances. The festival is organized by villagers, and each caste and occupational group has a distinct role.
The family that hosts Bhumiyal Devta during the year must adhere to a strict daily routine. Combining theatre, music, historical reconstructions, and traditional oral and written tales, the Ramman is a multiform cultural event that reflects the environmental, spiritual and cultural concept of the community, recounting its founding myths and strengthening its sense of self-worth. In order to ensure that it remains viable, the community’s priorities are to promote its transmission and to obtain its recognition beyond the geographical area in which it is practised.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Chola Temples
- The Brihadisvara temple at Gangaikondacholapuram was built for Siva by Rajendra I.
- The Airavatesvara temple at Tanjavur was built by the Chola king Rajaraja II.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Great Living Chola Temples
The Great Living Chola Temples were built by kings of the Chola Empire, which stretched over all of south India and the neighbouring islands. The site includes three great 11th- and 12th-century Temples: the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur, the Brihadisvara Temple at Gangaikondacholisvaram and the Airavatesvara Temple at Darasuram. The Temple of Gangaikondacholisvaram, built by Rajendra I, was completed in 1035. Its 53-m vimana (sanctum tower) has recessed corners and a graceful upward curving movement, contrasting with the straight and severe tower at Thanjavur. The Airavatesvara temple complex, built by Rajaraja II, at Darasuram features a 24-m vimana and a stone image of Shiva. The temples testify to the brilliant achievements of the Chola in architecture, sculpture, painting and bronze casting.
The Brihadisvara temple at Gangaikondacholapuram in the Perambalur district was built for Siva by Rajendra I (1012-1044 CE).
The Airavatesvara temple at Tanjavur was built by the Chola king Rajaraja II (1143-1173 CE.): it is much smaller in size as compared to the Brihadisvara temple at Tanjavur and Gangaikondacholapuram.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Great Living Chola Temples
The Great Living Chola Temples were built by kings of the Chola Empire, which stretched over all of south India and the neighbouring islands. The site includes three great 11th- and 12th-century Temples: the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur, the Brihadisvara Temple at Gangaikondacholisvaram and the Airavatesvara Temple at Darasuram. The Temple of Gangaikondacholisvaram, built by Rajendra I, was completed in 1035. Its 53-m vimana (sanctum tower) has recessed corners and a graceful upward curving movement, contrasting with the straight and severe tower at Thanjavur. The Airavatesvara temple complex, built by Rajaraja II, at Darasuram features a 24-m vimana and a stone image of Shiva. The temples testify to the brilliant achievements of the Chola in architecture, sculpture, painting and bronze casting.
The Brihadisvara temple at Gangaikondacholapuram in the Perambalur district was built for Siva by Rajendra I (1012-1044 CE).
The Airavatesvara temple at Tanjavur was built by the Chola king Rajaraja II (1143-1173 CE.): it is much smaller in size as compared to the Brihadisvara temple at Tanjavur and Gangaikondacholapuram.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Mountain Railways have been named as UNESCO World Heritage Site?
- Darjeeling Himalayan Railway
- Nilgiri Mountain Railway
- Kalka–Shimla Railway
- Kangra Valley Railway
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
Darjeeling Himalayan Railway, the Nilgiri Mountain Railway, and the Kalka–Shimla Railway, are collectively designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site under the name “Mountain Railways of India”. Two more, namely the Matheran Hill Railway and the Kangra Valley Railway, are on the tentative list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
Mountain Railways of India
This site includes three railways.
- The Darjeeling Himalayan Railway was the first, and is still the most outstanding, example of a hill passenger railway. Opened in 1881, its design applies bold and ingenious engineering solutions to the problem of establishing an effective rail link across a mountainous terrain of great beauty.
- The construction of the Nilgiri Mountain Railway, a 46-km long metre-gauge single-track railway in Tamil Nadu State was first proposed in 1854, but due to the difficulty of the mountainous location the work only started in 1891 and was completed in 1908. This railway, scaling an elevation of 326 m to 2,203 m, represented the latest technology of the time.
- The Kalka Shimla Railway, a 96-km long, single track working rail link built in the mid-19th century to provide a service to the highland town of Shimla is emblematic of the technical and material efforts to disenclave mountain populations through the railway. All three railways are still fully operational.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Darjeeling Himalayan Railway, the Nilgiri Mountain Railway, and the Kalka–Shimla Railway, are collectively designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site under the name “Mountain Railways of India”. Two more, namely the Matheran Hill Railway and the Kangra Valley Railway, are on the tentative list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
Mountain Railways of India
This site includes three railways.
- The Darjeeling Himalayan Railway was the first, and is still the most outstanding, example of a hill passenger railway. Opened in 1881, its design applies bold and ingenious engineering solutions to the problem of establishing an effective rail link across a mountainous terrain of great beauty.
- The construction of the Nilgiri Mountain Railway, a 46-km long metre-gauge single-track railway in Tamil Nadu State was first proposed in 1854, but due to the difficulty of the mountainous location the work only started in 1891 and was completed in 1908. This railway, scaling an elevation of 326 m to 2,203 m, represented the latest technology of the time.
- The Kalka Shimla Railway, a 96-km long, single track working rail link built in the mid-19th century to provide a service to the highland town of Shimla is emblematic of the technical and material efforts to disenclave mountain populations through the railway. All three railways are still fully operational.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the criteria laid down to determine the eligibility of languages to be considered for classification as a Classical Language?
- High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 500–1500 years;
- A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
- The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
- The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there should not be any discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The following criteria were laid down to determine the eligibility of languages to be considered for classification as a “Classical Language”.
- High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500–2000 years;
- A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
- The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
- The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The following criteria were laid down to determine the eligibility of languages to be considered for classification as a “Classical Language”.
- High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500–2000 years;
- A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
- The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
- The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Nathpanthi
- They adhere to the teachings of Gorakhnath and Matsyendranath and worship Adinath, a form of Shiva.
- They use the technique of Hatha Yoga to transform one’s body into a state of awakened self’s identity with absolute reality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Nathpanthi: Also known as Siddha Siddhanta, they adhere to the teachings of Gorakhnath and Matsyendranath and worship Adinath, a form of Shiva. They use the technique of Hatha Yoga to transform one’s body into a state of awakened self’s identity with absolute reality. The monks never stay in the same place for long and are floating group of wanderers. They wear loin cloths and dhotis and also cover themselves with ashes, tie up their hair in dreadlocks, and when they stop walking, they keep a sacred fire called dhuni.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Nathpanthi: Also known as Siddha Siddhanta, they adhere to the teachings of Gorakhnath and Matsyendranath and worship Adinath, a form of Shiva. They use the technique of Hatha Yoga to transform one’s body into a state of awakened self’s identity with absolute reality. The monks never stay in the same place for long and are floating group of wanderers. They wear loin cloths and dhotis and also cover themselves with ashes, tie up their hair in dreadlocks, and when they stop walking, they keep a sacred fire called dhuni.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are considered as three-jewels or Triratnas under Jaina Philosophy?
- Right belief
- Right meditation
- Right knowledge
- Right conduct
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Jaina Teachings and Philosophy
They believe that through three-jewel (fold) path of:
- Right belief (samyakdarshana),
- Right knowledge (samyakjnana) and
- Right conduct (samyakcharita),
one can get rid of the bad karma and also pull themselves out of the cycle of rebirth and achieve salvation.
Jains need to follow these five constraints in life:
- Ahimsa (non-violence);
- Satya (truthfulness);
- Asteya (not stealing);
- Aparigraha (non-acquisition) and
- Brahmacharya (chaste living).
The fifth tenet was propounded by Mahavira.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Jaina Teachings and Philosophy
They believe that through three-jewel (fold) path of:
- Right belief (samyakdarshana),
- Right knowledge (samyakjnana) and
- Right conduct (samyakcharita),
one can get rid of the bad karma and also pull themselves out of the cycle of rebirth and achieve salvation.
Jains need to follow these five constraints in life:
- Ahimsa (non-violence);
- Satya (truthfulness);
- Asteya (not stealing);
- Aparigraha (non-acquisition) and
- Brahmacharya (chaste living).
The fifth tenet was propounded by Mahavira.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Vajrayana Buddhism
- Vajrayana is based on Hinayana Buddhist philosophy.
- This school believes in Tantra’s, Mantra’s and Yantra’s superiority due to being a faster vehicle to liberation containing many skillful methods of tantric ritual.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Vajrayana Buddhism (Tantric Buddhism)
Scholars contemplate that Vajrayana school developed as a result of royal courts sponsoring both Buddhism and Shaivism, i.e., they say, it was influenced by Hinduism.
The main deity is Tara (a lady) It involved combining Brahmanical (Veda based) rituals with Buddhist philosophies.
Vajrayana is based on Mahayana Buddhist philosophy. This school believes in Tantra’s, Mantras and Yantras superiority due to being a faster vehicle to liberation containing many skillful methods of tantric ritual.
According to this school, the mantra is an easy path to achieve Buddhahood without the difficulties as compared to striving for six perfections or Paramitas under Mahayana. 5.7 % of the world Buddhist population follows it. Other countries following it include Tibet, Bhutan, Mongolia, Kalmykia, etc.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Vajrayana Buddhism (Tantric Buddhism)
Scholars contemplate that Vajrayana school developed as a result of royal courts sponsoring both Buddhism and Shaivism, i.e., they say, it was influenced by Hinduism.
The main deity is Tara (a lady) It involved combining Brahmanical (Veda based) rituals with Buddhist philosophies.
Vajrayana is based on Mahayana Buddhist philosophy. This school believes in Tantra’s, Mantras and Yantras superiority due to being a faster vehicle to liberation containing many skillful methods of tantric ritual.
According to this school, the mantra is an easy path to achieve Buddhahood without the difficulties as compared to striving for six perfections or Paramitas under Mahayana. 5.7 % of the world Buddhist population follows it. Other countries following it include Tibet, Bhutan, Mongolia, Kalmykia, etc.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sangam Literature
- Tolkappiyam is a work on Tamil grammar and it does not provide any information on the political and socioeconomic conditions of the Sangam period.
- Manimegalai was written by Elango Adigal, provides valuable information on the Sangam polity and society.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Sangam Literature
The corpus of Sangam literature includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and the two epics – Silappathigaram and Manimegalai. Tolkappiyam authored by Tolkappiyar is the earliest of the Tamil literature. It is a work on Tamil grammar but it provides information on the political and socioeconomic conditions of the Sangam period.
Silappathigaram written by Elango Adigal and Manimegalai by Sittalai Sattanar also provides valuable information on the Sangam polity and society.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Sangam Literature
The corpus of Sangam literature includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and the two epics – Silappathigaram and Manimegalai. Tolkappiyam authored by Tolkappiyar is the earliest of the Tamil literature. It is a work on Tamil grammar but it provides information on the political and socioeconomic conditions of the Sangam period.
Silappathigaram written by Elango Adigal and Manimegalai by Sittalai Sattanar also provides valuable information on the Sangam polity and society.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Mimamsa
- Mimamsa literally means the art of reasoning and interpretation.
- According to the Mimamsa school, the Vedas contain the eternal truth.
- In order to attain salvation, the Mimamsa school strongly recommended the performance of Vedic sacrifices.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Mimamsa
Mimamsa literally means the art of reasoning and interpretation. However, reasoning was used to provide justifications for various Vedic rituals, and the attainment of salvation was made dependent on their performance. According to the Mimamsa school, the Vedas contain the eternal truth. The principal object of this philosophy was to acquire heaven and salvation. A person will enjoy the bliss of heaven so long as his accumulated acts of virtue last. When his accumulated virtues are exhausted, he will return to earth, but if he attains salvation he will be completely free from the cycle of birth and death in the world.
In order to attain salvation, the Mimamsa school strongly recommended the performance of Vedic sacrifices, which needed the services of priests and legitimized the social distance between the various varnas. Through the propagation of the Mimamsa philosophy, the brahmanas sought to maintain their ritual authority and preserve the social hierarchy based on Brahmanism.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Mimamsa
Mimamsa literally means the art of reasoning and interpretation. However, reasoning was used to provide justifications for various Vedic rituals, and the attainment of salvation was made dependent on their performance. According to the Mimamsa school, the Vedas contain the eternal truth. The principal object of this philosophy was to acquire heaven and salvation. A person will enjoy the bliss of heaven so long as his accumulated acts of virtue last. When his accumulated virtues are exhausted, he will return to earth, but if he attains salvation he will be completely free from the cycle of birth and death in the world.
In order to attain salvation, the Mimamsa school strongly recommended the performance of Vedic sacrifices, which needed the services of priests and legitimized the social distance between the various varnas. Through the propagation of the Mimamsa philosophy, the brahmanas sought to maintain their ritual authority and preserve the social hierarchy based on Brahmanism.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Lokayata
- Charvaka was the main expounder of this philosophy.
- It underlined the importance of intimate contact between the world (loka), and the other world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Charvaka was the main expounder of the materialistic philosophy which came to be known as the Lokayata, which means the ideas derived from the common people. It underlined the importance of intimate contact with the world (loka), and showed a lack of belief in the other world. Many teachings are attributed to Charvaka. He was opposed to the quest for spiritual salvation. He denied the existence of any divine or supernatural agency. He accepted the existence/reality of only those things that could be experienced by human senses and organs. This implied a clear lack of faith in the existence of brahma and god. According to Charvaka, the brahmanas manufactured rituals in order to acquire gifts (dakshina). To discredit Charvaka, his opponents highlight only one of his teachings. According to it, a person should enjoy himself as long as he lives; he should borrow to eat well (that is, take ghee). However, Charvaka’s real contribution lies in his materialistic outlook. He denies the operation of divine and supernatural agencies and makes man the centre of all activities.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Charvaka was the main expounder of the materialistic philosophy which came to be known as the Lokayata, which means the ideas derived from the common people. It underlined the importance of intimate contact with the world (loka), and showed a lack of belief in the other world. Many teachings are attributed to Charvaka. He was opposed to the quest for spiritual salvation. He denied the existence of any divine or supernatural agency. He accepted the existence/reality of only those things that could be experienced by human senses and organs. This implied a clear lack of faith in the existence of brahma and god. According to Charvaka, the brahmanas manufactured rituals in order to acquire gifts (dakshina). To discredit Charvaka, his opponents highlight only one of his teachings. According to it, a person should enjoy himself as long as he lives; he should borrow to eat well (that is, take ghee). However, Charvaka’s real contribution lies in his materialistic outlook. He denies the operation of divine and supernatural agencies and makes man the centre of all activities.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsThe ozone layer comprises the greater part of the stratosphere between altitudes of 10 km and 50 km. Which of the following is a scale for measuring the thickness of stratospheric ozone layer ?
Correct
Solution: A
The Dobson unit (DU) is the scale used for measuring the thickness of the stratospheric ozone layer. The unit is named after Gordon Miller Bourne Dobson, a British physicist who developed the Dobson spectrophotometer in the 1920s, which was the first instrument designed specifically to measure atmospheric ozone.
One Dobson unit represents the thickness of the ozone layer if it were compressed to a uniform layer at standard temperature (0°C) and pressure (1 atmosphere). A value of 1 DU corresponds to a layer of ozone gas that is 0.01 millimeters (10 micrometers) thick. In practice, the total ozone column is usually expressed in Dobson units, where typical values range from 100 DU (in the polar regions) to over 400 DU (in the tropics).
Incorrect
Solution: A
The Dobson unit (DU) is the scale used for measuring the thickness of the stratospheric ozone layer. The unit is named after Gordon Miller Bourne Dobson, a British physicist who developed the Dobson spectrophotometer in the 1920s, which was the first instrument designed specifically to measure atmospheric ozone.
One Dobson unit represents the thickness of the ozone layer if it were compressed to a uniform layer at standard temperature (0°C) and pressure (1 atmosphere). A value of 1 DU corresponds to a layer of ozone gas that is 0.01 millimeters (10 micrometers) thick. In practice, the total ozone column is usually expressed in Dobson units, where typical values range from 100 DU (in the polar regions) to over 400 DU (in the tropics).
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements :
- The basic structure doctrine is defined in the Constitution.
- There are certain basic features of the Constitution which cannot be altered in exercise of the power to amend under Article 368.
- The Parliament can amend all provisions of the Constitution and judicial
review shall not apply to such amendments.
- The basic features of the Constitution have been listed by the Supreme
Court, exhaustively in the Golak Nath case law.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true in the context of the Basic Structure Doctrine ?
Correct
Solution: C
The Basic Structure Doctrine is a fundamental principle of the Indian Constitution, which states that there are certain basic features of the Constitution that cannot be altered or destroyed by the Parliament through amendments under Article 368. This doctrine was not explicitly defined in the Constitution but was evolved through various landmark judgments by the Supreme Court of India.
Although the Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter or destroy its basic features. Judicial review does apply to such amendments, and the Supreme Court can declare them unconstitutional if they violate the basic structure.
The basic features of the Constitution have not been exhaustively listed by the Supreme Court in any single case. The Golak Nath case (1967) is significant because it held that fundamental rights cannot be amended, but it was the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) that first introduced the Basic Structure Doctrine.
The Court has identified various basic features in several judgments over time, including the supremacy of the Constitution, the rule of law, the separation of powers, and the principle of federalism, among others. The Court has deliberately refrained from providing an exhaustive list, allowing for flexibility and adaptability in the interpretation of the Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Basic Structure Doctrine is a fundamental principle of the Indian Constitution, which states that there are certain basic features of the Constitution that cannot be altered or destroyed by the Parliament through amendments under Article 368. This doctrine was not explicitly defined in the Constitution but was evolved through various landmark judgments by the Supreme Court of India.
Although the Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter or destroy its basic features. Judicial review does apply to such amendments, and the Supreme Court can declare them unconstitutional if they violate the basic structure.
The basic features of the Constitution have not been exhaustively listed by the Supreme Court in any single case. The Golak Nath case (1967) is significant because it held that fundamental rights cannot be amended, but it was the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) that first introduced the Basic Structure Doctrine.
The Court has identified various basic features in several judgments over time, including the supremacy of the Constitution, the rule of law, the separation of powers, and the principle of federalism, among others. The Court has deliberately refrained from providing an exhaustive list, allowing for flexibility and adaptability in the interpretation of the Constitution.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsThe National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 to
- Review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women.
- Recommend remedial legislative measures.
- Facilitate redressal of grievances.
- To take direct action against perpetrators of crimes against women.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
Correct
Solution: C
The National Commission for Women (NCW) was established as a statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. Its primary objective is to promote and protect the interests of women in India.
The NCW reviews the constitutional and legal safeguards for women, ensuring that they are effectively implemented and recommending amendments to better protect women’s rights.
The Commission recommends remedial legislative measures for the effective implementation of women’s rights and to address any gaps or shortcomings in existing laws.
The NCW facilitates the redressal of grievances related to women by addressing complaints and conducting investigations into specific cases of violation of women’s rights.
The NCW does not have the power to take direct action against perpetrators of crimes against women. Its role is to recommend measures, facilitate redressal, and advise the government on policy matters. The enforcement of laws and taking direct action against criminals is the responsibility of law enforcement agencies and the judiciary.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The National Commission for Women (NCW) was established as a statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. Its primary objective is to promote and protect the interests of women in India.
The NCW reviews the constitutional and legal safeguards for women, ensuring that they are effectively implemented and recommending amendments to better protect women’s rights.
The Commission recommends remedial legislative measures for the effective implementation of women’s rights and to address any gaps or shortcomings in existing laws.
The NCW facilitates the redressal of grievances related to women by addressing complaints and conducting investigations into specific cases of violation of women’s rights.
The NCW does not have the power to take direct action against perpetrators of crimes against women. Its role is to recommend measures, facilitate redressal, and advise the government on policy matters. The enforcement of laws and taking direct action against criminals is the responsibility of law enforcement agencies and the judiciary.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsA State in India has the following characteristics :
- Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
- Its central part produces cotton.
- Cultivation of cash crop is predominant over food crop.
Select the correct state.
Correct
Solution: B
Gujarat is a state located in the western part of India, with a diverse geography and climate.
The northern region of Gujarat, including the Kutch district, is characterized by arid and semi-arid conditions. The area receives low rainfall and has a harsh climate, with extreme temperatures in both summer and winter.
The central region of Gujarat, particularly the Saurashtra and the middle Gujarat regions, is known for its cotton production. Gujarat is one of the leading cotton-producing states in India.
The state has a significant focus on cash crop cultivation, including cotton, groundnuts, and tobacco. Although food crops like wheat, rice, and pulses are also grown, the emphasis on cash crops is higher.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Gujarat is a state located in the western part of India, with a diverse geography and climate.
The northern region of Gujarat, including the Kutch district, is characterized by arid and semi-arid conditions. The area receives low rainfall and has a harsh climate, with extreme temperatures in both summer and winter.
The central region of Gujarat, particularly the Saurashtra and the middle Gujarat regions, is known for its cotton production. Gujarat is one of the leading cotton-producing states in India.
The state has a significant focus on cash crop cultivation, including cotton, groundnuts, and tobacco. Although food crops like wheat, rice, and pulses are also grown, the emphasis on cash crops is higher.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsCheerapunjee and Mawsynram villages receives high rainfall due to
Correct
Solution: D
Cherrapunji and Mawsynram are villages located in the Indian state of Meghalaya, and they are known for receiving some of the highest annual rainfall in the world. The primary reason for this high rainfall is the rain-bearing winds getting locked in the Khasi Hills.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Cherrapunji and Mawsynram are villages located in the Indian state of Meghalaya, and they are known for receiving some of the highest annual rainfall in the world. The primary reason for this high rainfall is the rain-bearing winds getting locked in the Khasi Hills.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsRs.2500 is divided into two parts such that if one part to be charged at 5% per annum simple interest and the other at 6% per annum. If the annual income from interest alone is Rs.140. How much amount was lent at 5% per annum interest?
Correct
Solution: D
Simple interest = Principal * Time * Rate of Interest /100
Let Rs x was given at 5 % interest, then
Total income from interest = x*1*5/100 + (2500-x) * 1 * 6/100 = 140
Or 5x/100 + (15000 – 6x)/100 = 140
Or 15000 – x = 14000
Or x= 1000
Incorrect
Solution: D
Simple interest = Principal * Time * Rate of Interest /100
Let Rs x was given at 5 % interest, then
Total income from interest = x*1*5/100 + (2500-x) * 1 * 6/100 = 140
Or 5x/100 + (15000 – 6x)/100 = 140
Or 15000 – x = 14000
Or x= 1000
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsRamya deposited Rs 8000 at simple interest which amounted to Rs 9200 after 3 years . Had the interest been 2% more, how much total amount she would have got including principal amount?
Correct
Solution: C
Amount = simple interest + principal
9200 = simple interest + 8000
simple interest = 9200-8000 = Rs 1200
If r % be the rate of interest ,
Then from, simple interest = ((principal * rate% * time)/100)
1200 = ((8000 * r * 3)/100)
r = 5%
If 2% more interest that is 7% interest
simple interest = ((8000 * 7 * 3)/100)
= Rs 1680
Thus, amount she will get is Rs 8000 + Rs 1680 = Rs 9680Incorrect
Solution: C
Amount = simple interest + principal
9200 = simple interest + 8000
simple interest = 9200-8000 = Rs 1200
If r % be the rate of interest ,
Then from, simple interest = ((principal * rate% * time)/100)
1200 = ((8000 * r * 3)/100)
r = 5%
If 2% more interest that is 7% interest
simple interest = ((8000 * 7 * 3)/100)
= Rs 1680
Thus, amount she will get is Rs 8000 + Rs 1680 = Rs 9680 -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsIn compound interest Rs.1000 fetches Rs.31 more than the simple interest that the same amount fetches in 3 years with the same rate of interest. What is the rate of interest?
Correct
ANSWER A) 10%
Solution:
Explanation:
Since difference between the amounts is Rs.31, we can write,
– = 31
– =
Substituting values for P and R,
– =
Solving for R,
R = 10%
Incorrect
ANSWER A) 10%
Solution:
Explanation:
Since difference between the amounts is Rs.31, we can write,
– = 31
– =
Substituting values for P and R,
– =
Solving for R,
R = 10%
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsIndia’s massive civil engineering project, the National River Linking Project (NRLP), will not only reduce inflow of the northern rivers, but also significantly reduce the sediments deposited by the rivers in deltas, a study shows. Fertile deltas will be under threat, with coastal erosion expected to threaten the land and livelihoods of local economies that support 160 million people.
Which of the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be drawn from the above passage?
Correct
Ans. B
There needs to be a deeper understanding of pros and cons of NRLP is the most balanced and rational answer as A is not being implied by the passage and C is a very general statement which is not the focus area of the passage. Hence B
Incorrect
Ans. B
There needs to be a deeper understanding of pros and cons of NRLP is the most balanced and rational answer as A is not being implied by the passage and C is a very general statement which is not the focus area of the passage. Hence B
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsAs the rains abate in Kerala and parts of Kodagu district in Karnataka, the loss of lives and the devastation of infrastructure and crops is apparent. However, as rebuilding is planned, what is often ignored is the soil that has been washed away. While roads and houses will be rebuilt, and crop losses compensated partially through insurance, the gradual loss of soil productivity can have a lasting impact on the local economy.
Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct
Ans. B.
The passage seeks to explain the lesser understood impact of flood on soil and how it causes immense loss. B is the most accurate inference.
Incorrect
Ans. B.
The passage seeks to explain the lesser understood impact of flood on soil and how it causes immense loss. B is the most accurate inference.
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