INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Lalit Kala Akademi
- It is the National Academy of Art.
- It is an autonomous body, which is fully funded by the Ministry of Culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Lalit Kala Akademi, the National Academy of Art, was set up in 1954. Lalit Kala Akademi is the government’s apex cultural body in the field of visual arts in India. It is an autonomous body, which is fully funded by the Ministry of Culture. The Akademi is an institution that has rendered service to the nation in the arts sphere long before the world woke up to the global impact of Indian art. It has established, preserved and documented a permanent collection that reflects the vitality, complexity and unfolding patterns of modern and contemporary art in India. All through the year it presents exhibitions and educational programmes of unparalleled significance; sustains a library, art collection, archives, conservation laboratory; and supports scholars and publications of pre-eminent intellectual merit all over the country.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Lalit Kala Akademi, the National Academy of Art, was set up in 1954. Lalit Kala Akademi is the government’s apex cultural body in the field of visual arts in India. It is an autonomous body, which is fully funded by the Ministry of Culture. The Akademi is an institution that has rendered service to the nation in the arts sphere long before the world woke up to the global impact of Indian art. It has established, preserved and documented a permanent collection that reflects the vitality, complexity and unfolding patterns of modern and contemporary art in India. All through the year it presents exhibitions and educational programmes of unparalleled significance; sustains a library, art collection, archives, conservation laboratory; and supports scholars and publications of pre-eminent intellectual merit all over the country.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsChronologically Arrange the following temple architecture from earliest to latest
- Ladkhan temple of Aihole
- Kailasanath temple at Kanchipuram
- Brahmesvara temple
- Sun temple at Konark
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
- The Ladkhan temple of Aihole belongs to about 5th century A.D.
- The Kailasanath temple at Kanchipuram was built by Raja Simha shortly after the Shore temple in the 8th century A.D., and compared to the latter, is larger in dimensions and more majestic in appearance.
- The Brahmesvara temple is a panchyatana temple securely dated by an inscription, to about 1060 A.D. This is a temple in which the central shrine is surrounded by four small shrines in the four corners of the compound.
- The grandest achievement of the artistic and architectural genius of Orissa is the Sun temple at Konark which was constructed by the eastern Ganga ruler Narasimha Varmana, about 1250 A.D.
Incorrect
Solution: D
- The Ladkhan temple of Aihole belongs to about 5th century A.D.
- The Kailasanath temple at Kanchipuram was built by Raja Simha shortly after the Shore temple in the 8th century A.D., and compared to the latter, is larger in dimensions and more majestic in appearance.
- The Brahmesvara temple is a panchyatana temple securely dated by an inscription, to about 1060 A.D. This is a temple in which the central shrine is surrounded by four small shrines in the four corners of the compound.
- The grandest achievement of the artistic and architectural genius of Orissa is the Sun temple at Konark which was constructed by the eastern Ganga ruler Narasimha Varmana, about 1250 A.D.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWho among the following were associated with the construction of Qutub Minar?
- Qutub-ud-din
- IItutmish
- Feroz Shah Tughlaq
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Qutub Minar of Mehrauli was built around 1199 by Qutub-ud-din and finally completed by his son-in-law and successor IItutmish (1210-35). In one sense this tower was raised in adjunct to the mosque to allow the mulah to call the faithful to prayer: it could also be a tower of victory, not unlike some erected by Hindu rulers. Originally the minar had four storeys, the uppermost of which was damaged by lightning in 1373. Feroz Shah Tughlaq (1351- 88) rebuilt its two storeys. With its projecting balconies, carved with decorated elements on the underside, inscriptional surface carving and variegated fluting, this 72.5 m. high minar with 399 steps, is the highest stone tower in India.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Qutub Minar of Mehrauli was built around 1199 by Qutub-ud-din and finally completed by his son-in-law and successor IItutmish (1210-35). In one sense this tower was raised in adjunct to the mosque to allow the mulah to call the faithful to prayer: it could also be a tower of victory, not unlike some erected by Hindu rulers. Originally the minar had four storeys, the uppermost of which was damaged by lightning in 1373. Feroz Shah Tughlaq (1351- 88) rebuilt its two storeys. With its projecting balconies, carved with decorated elements on the underside, inscriptional surface carving and variegated fluting, this 72.5 m. high minar with 399 steps, is the highest stone tower in India.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gol Gumbad of Bijapur
- The Gol Gumbad of Bijapur is the mausoleum of Mahmud Gawan.
- It is the largest dome cubicle in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Gol Gumbad of Bijapur is the mausoleum of Muhammad Adil Shah (1627-57). It is the largest dome cubicle in the world covering a total interior surface of over 1600 sq. metres. Architecturally it is a simple construction, its underground vaults consisting of a square grave chamber and a large single square chamber above ground. The large hemispherical dome surmounting it and then seven storeyed octagonal towers on its corners lend it a unique appearance. Each of its walls on the outside is divided into three recessed arches, the central one panelled, with a running bracket – supported Chhajja at the cornice. A 3.4 m. wide gallery rests on its interior at the level of the drum. It is known as the whispering gallery, as even a whisper here reverberates as an echo under the dome. The large dome is hemispherical but is covered with a row of petals at the base.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Gol Gumbad of Bijapur is the mausoleum of Muhammad Adil Shah (1627-57). It is the largest dome cubicle in the world covering a total interior surface of over 1600 sq. metres. Architecturally it is a simple construction, its underground vaults consisting of a square grave chamber and a large single square chamber above ground. The large hemispherical dome surmounting it and then seven storeyed octagonal towers on its corners lend it a unique appearance. Each of its walls on the outside is divided into three recessed arches, the central one panelled, with a running bracket – supported Chhajja at the cornice. A 3.4 m. wide gallery rests on its interior at the level of the drum. It is known as the whispering gallery, as even a whisper here reverberates as an echo under the dome. The large dome is hemispherical but is covered with a row of petals at the base.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following animals have been depicted on Pashupati Seal?
- Rhino
- Bull
- Elephant
- Lion
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Pashupati Seal
seal shows a seated figure of a Yogi, probably Shiva Pashupati, surrounded by four animals – a rhino, a buffalo, an elephant and a tiger. There are two deer shown under the throne. Pashupati means the lord of animals. This seal may throw light on the religion of the Harappan age.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Pashupati Seal
seal shows a seated figure of a Yogi, probably Shiva Pashupati, surrounded by four animals – a rhino, a buffalo, an elephant and a tiger. There are two deer shown under the throne. Pashupati means the lord of animals. This seal may throw light on the religion of the Harappan age.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Amaravati School of Art
- They used bluish grey sandstone.
- It was patronized by the Satavahanas.
- Buddha is depicted both in human as well as in animal form.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Amaravati School of Sculpture
- A Buddhist relic, having features belonging to Amaravati school of Art was unearthed by a group of Indologists on the banks of River Gundlakamma in Andhra Pradesh.
- This form of art originated in the area of Amaravati, AP.
- It was patronized by the Satavahanas and later by the Ikshavaku
- Prominent places where this style developed are Amravati, Nagarjunikonda, Goli, Ghantasala and Vengi.
Features of this form of sculpture:
-
- The material used in Amaravati art is ‘White marble’
- Sculptures were carved in a naturalistic manner. Ex: ‘taming of an elephant by the Buddha’.
- Reflects narratives theme based on life of Buddha and Jataka stories
- Buddha is depicted both in human as well as in animal form
- Both religious and secular images were present in this style.
- The Amaravati style is more elegant and sophisticated.
- The sculptured panels of Amaravati are characterised by delicacy of forms and linear grace.
- Numerous scenes of dance and music adorn these reliefs displaying the joy of life.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Amaravati School of Sculpture
- A Buddhist relic, having features belonging to Amaravati school of Art was unearthed by a group of Indologists on the banks of River Gundlakamma in Andhra Pradesh.
- This form of art originated in the area of Amaravati, AP.
- It was patronized by the Satavahanas and later by the Ikshavaku
- Prominent places where this style developed are Amravati, Nagarjunikonda, Goli, Ghantasala and Vengi.
Features of this form of sculpture:
-
- The material used in Amaravati art is ‘White marble’
- Sculptures were carved in a naturalistic manner. Ex: ‘taming of an elephant by the Buddha’.
- Reflects narratives theme based on life of Buddha and Jataka stories
- Buddha is depicted both in human as well as in animal form
- Both religious and secular images were present in this style.
- The Amaravati style is more elegant and sophisticated.
- The sculptured panels of Amaravati are characterised by delicacy of forms and linear grace.
- Numerous scenes of dance and music adorn these reliefs displaying the joy of life.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following sculptures are credited to the patronage of Pallava rulers?
- Mahishasuramardini in relief
- Girigovardhana panel
- Arjuna’s penance
- Trivikrama Vishnu
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
An artistic movement of great importance flourished under the aegis of the Pallava rulers of Kanchi and they are credited with having built the seven monolithic pagodas, the rathas, in Mahabalipuram. Some of the outstanding sculptures that are credited to their patronage are the Mahishasuramardini in relief, Girigovardhana panel, Arjuna’s penance or the Descent of the Ganga, Trivikrama Vishnu, Gajalakshmi and Anatasayanam. In the annals of Indian art there is perhaps no better example of the representation of the Elephant than that in the Arjuna’s penance scene. The celestial world, the temporal world as well as the animal world has been shown with masterly skill.
Incorrect
Solution: D
An artistic movement of great importance flourished under the aegis of the Pallava rulers of Kanchi and they are credited with having built the seven monolithic pagodas, the rathas, in Mahabalipuram. Some of the outstanding sculptures that are credited to their patronage are the Mahishasuramardini in relief, Girigovardhana panel, Arjuna’s penance or the Descent of the Ganga, Trivikrama Vishnu, Gajalakshmi and Anatasayanam. In the annals of Indian art there is perhaps no better example of the representation of the Elephant than that in the Arjuna’s penance scene. The celestial world, the temporal world as well as the animal world has been shown with masterly skill.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Emblem
- The abacus and the animal part of the Sarnath pillar forms the official national emblem of India.
- The animals on the Sarnath pillar depict different life events of Buddha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
National Emblem
The abacus and the animal part of the Sarnath pillar forms the official national emblem of India. In the abacus of the Sarnath pillar, four animals are shown representing four directions – a galloping horse (west), a bull (east), an elephant (south) and a lion (north).
The animals seem to follow each other turning the wheel of existence till eternity.
The Elephant depicts the dream of Queen Maya, a white elephant entering her womb. The Bull depicts the zodiac sign of Taurus, the month in which Buddha was born. The Horse represents the horse Kanthaka, which Buddha is said to have used for going away from princely life. The Lion shows the attainment of enlightenment.
Incorrect
Solution: C
National Emblem
The abacus and the animal part of the Sarnath pillar forms the official national emblem of India. In the abacus of the Sarnath pillar, four animals are shown representing four directions – a galloping horse (west), a bull (east), an elephant (south) and a lion (north).
The animals seem to follow each other turning the wheel of existence till eternity.
The Elephant depicts the dream of Queen Maya, a white elephant entering her womb. The Bull depicts the zodiac sign of Taurus, the month in which Buddha was born. The Horse represents the horse Kanthaka, which Buddha is said to have used for going away from princely life. The Lion shows the attainment of enlightenment.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ashokan pillars
- The shaft of Ashokan pillars were made up of various pieces of sandstone cemented together.
- The Ashokan pillars were independently erected by royal diction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Ashokan pillars
- The shaft of the Ashokan pillars were monolithic, i.e. they were inscribed from a single piece of stone, mainly chunar sandstones.
- The Ashokan pillars were independently erected by royal diction.
Achaemenian Pillars
- The shaft of Achaemenian pillars were made up of various pieces of sandstone cemented together.
- The Achaemenian pillars were generally attached to state buildings.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Ashokan pillars
- The shaft of the Ashokan pillars were monolithic, i.e. they were inscribed from a single piece of stone, mainly chunar sandstones.
- The Ashokan pillars were independently erected by royal diction.
Achaemenian Pillars
- The shaft of Achaemenian pillars were made up of various pieces of sandstone cemented together.
- The Achaemenian pillars were generally attached to state buildings.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ajanta caves
- The Ajanta caves were inscribed by the Buddhist monks, under the patronage of the Maurya Kings.
- The figures in these caves were done using fresco painting.
- Reference of the Ajanta caves can be found in the travel accounts of Chinese Buddhist travellers Fa Hien and Hieun Tsang.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Ajanta caves were inscribed by the Buddhist monks, under the patronage of the Vakataka kings – Harishena being a prominent one. The figures in these caves were done using fresco painting and demonstrate considerable naturalism. The colours were obtained from local vegetation and minerals. The outlines of the paintings were done in red colour and then the inside was painted. One of the striking features is the absence of blue colour in the paintings. Cave No. 16 is one of the most elegant specimens of cave architecture.
The paintings are generally themed around Buddhism – the life of Buddha and Jataka stories. Of the 29 caves, 5 were developed during the Hinayana phase while the remaining 24 were developed during the Mahayana phase of Buddhism. Reference of the Ajanta caves can be found in the travel accounts of Chinese Buddhist travellers Fa Hien and Hieun Tsang.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Ajanta caves were inscribed by the Buddhist monks, under the patronage of the Vakataka kings – Harishena being a prominent one. The figures in these caves were done using fresco painting and demonstrate considerable naturalism. The colours were obtained from local vegetation and minerals. The outlines of the paintings were done in red colour and then the inside was painted. One of the striking features is the absence of blue colour in the paintings. Cave No. 16 is one of the most elegant specimens of cave architecture.
The paintings are generally themed around Buddhism – the life of Buddha and Jataka stories. Of the 29 caves, 5 were developed during the Hinayana phase while the remaining 24 were developed during the Mahayana phase of Buddhism. Reference of the Ajanta caves can be found in the travel accounts of Chinese Buddhist travellers Fa Hien and Hieun Tsang.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsPrayag-Prashasti has the inscription of
Correct
Solution: D
Prayag-Prashasti:
Prayag-Prashasti is the name given to the Allahabad Pillar. “Prayag” means a meeting place for something or someone. Prayag is an ancient name of Allahabad as it is the meeting place or ‘Sangam’ of rivers Ganga, Yamuna and the mythical Saraswati. Prashasti means “in praise of someone” and is a eulogy. The Allahabad Prasasti was originally engraved on the Ashokan Pillar in Kausambhi near Allahabad. Later it was removed to the Allahabad fort. . It is an Ashokan Stambh but has 4 different inscriptions i.e.
- The usual Ashokan inscriptions in Brahmi script as in all pillars.
- The Queen’s edict regaling the charitable deeds of Ashoka’s wife Kaurwaki.
- Samudragupta’s (335AD – 375 AD) inscriptions written by Harisena in Sanskrit language and Brahmi script. It mentions about the conquests of Samudragupta and boundaries of the Gupta Empire.
- Jahangir’s inscriptions in Persian.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Prayag-Prashasti:
Prayag-Prashasti is the name given to the Allahabad Pillar. “Prayag” means a meeting place for something or someone. Prayag is an ancient name of Allahabad as it is the meeting place or ‘Sangam’ of rivers Ganga, Yamuna and the mythical Saraswati. Prashasti means “in praise of someone” and is a eulogy. The Allahabad Prasasti was originally engraved on the Ashokan Pillar in Kausambhi near Allahabad. Later it was removed to the Allahabad fort. . It is an Ashokan Stambh but has 4 different inscriptions i.e.
- The usual Ashokan inscriptions in Brahmi script as in all pillars.
- The Queen’s edict regaling the charitable deeds of Ashoka’s wife Kaurwaki.
- Samudragupta’s (335AD – 375 AD) inscriptions written by Harisena in Sanskrit language and Brahmi script. It mentions about the conquests of Samudragupta and boundaries of the Gupta Empire.
- Jahangir’s inscriptions in Persian.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Odisha School of architecture
- Both interior and exterior walls were lavishly decorated with intricate carvings.
- There was no use of pillars in the porch.
- The shikharas in the Odisha school were known as rekhadeuls.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Odisha School:
In different parts of the Kalinga empire, a distinct style of temple architecture developed. Some of its features are:
- The exterior walls were lavishly decorated with intricate carvings, but interior walls were plain.
- There was no use of pillars in the porch.
- Iron girders were used instead to support the roof.
- The shikharas in the Odisha school were known as rekhadeuls.
- They were almost vertical roofs which suddenly curved inwards sharply.
- The mandap was known as jagmohan in this region.
- The ground plan of the main temple was square.
- Temples were surrounded by a boundary wall as in Dravidian style of temple architecture.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Odisha School:
In different parts of the Kalinga empire, a distinct style of temple architecture developed. Some of its features are:
- The exterior walls were lavishly decorated with intricate carvings, but interior walls were plain.
- There was no use of pillars in the porch.
- Iron girders were used instead to support the roof.
- The shikharas in the Odisha school were known as rekhadeuls.
- They were almost vertical roofs which suddenly curved inwards sharply.
- The mandap was known as jagmohan in this region.
- The ground plan of the main temple was square.
- Temples were surrounded by a boundary wall as in Dravidian style of temple architecture.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bagh cave paintings
- These paintings depict religious themes in the light of contemporary lifestyle of people.
- It is similar to Ellora caves in terms of their design, execution and decoration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Bagh cave paintings
Representing an extension to the Ajanta school, Bagh caves in Madhya Pradesh with their exquisite work rank quite close to the actual Ajanta caves in terms of their design, execution and decoration. The main difference is that the figures are more tightly modeled, have stronger outline, and are more earthly and human. Cave no. 4, known as Rang Mahal, has beautiful murals on the walls depicting Buddhist and Jataka tales, just like those in Ajanta. Although scanty and decayed now, these paintings depict religious themes in the light of contemporary lifestyle of people, thus are more secular in nature.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Bagh cave paintings
Representing an extension to the Ajanta school, Bagh caves in Madhya Pradesh with their exquisite work rank quite close to the actual Ajanta caves in terms of their design, execution and decoration. The main difference is that the figures are more tightly modeled, have stronger outline, and are more earthly and human. Cave no. 4, known as Rang Mahal, has beautiful murals on the walls depicting Buddhist and Jataka tales, just like those in Ajanta. Although scanty and decayed now, these paintings depict religious themes in the light of contemporary lifestyle of people, thus are more secular in nature.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsMatch the following handicrafts with their Regions
- Pochampalli: Tamil Nadu
- Patola: Gujarat
- Baluchari: Uttar Pradesh
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
Pochampalli
- Andhra Pradesh
- Silk and cotton saree with intricate motifs and geometric ikat style of dyeing. Air India airlines crew wears this saree.
Patola
- Patan, Gujarat
- Rich handloom sarees
Baluchari
- Murshidabad, West Bengal
- Depicts ancient stories on its border and pallu. Silk threads are extensively used.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Pochampalli
- Andhra Pradesh
- Silk and cotton saree with intricate motifs and geometric ikat style of dyeing. Air India airlines crew wears this saree.
Patola
- Patan, Gujarat
- Rich handloom sarees
Baluchari
- Murshidabad, West Bengal
- Depicts ancient stories on its border and pallu. Silk threads are extensively used.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Global carbon emission
- Overall, India ranks third among the top 10 contributors to warming.
- LULUCF sector accounted for about 70 per cent of the total warming from N2O emissions between 1851-2021.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
According to a new study, India is responsible for 0.08 degrees Celsius of warming from the 1850s through 2021.
India-specific findings:
- Overall, India ranks fifth among the top 10 contributors to warming.
- India’s emissions of greenhouse gases (GHGs) – CO2, CH4 and nitrous oxide (N2O) from 1851-2021 have resulted in 0.04°C, 0.03°C and 0.006°C of global warming over pre-industrial levels, respectively.
Causes of warming:
- Fossil fuel remains the biggest culprit.
- The LULUCF sector accounted for 38 per cent of the total warming from CH4 emissions and 72 per cent from N2O emissions between 1851-2021.
- The contribution of India, China and Brazil towards warming due to CH4 and N2O increased by 110%, 56% and 55%, respectively, compared to CO2-related warming alone.
Incorrect
Solution: B
According to a new study, India is responsible for 0.08 degrees Celsius of warming from the 1850s through 2021.
India-specific findings:
- Overall, India ranks fifth among the top 10 contributors to warming.
- India’s emissions of greenhouse gases (GHGs) – CO2, CH4 and nitrous oxide (N2O) from 1851-2021 have resulted in 0.04°C, 0.03°C and 0.006°C of global warming over pre-industrial levels, respectively.
Causes of warming:
- Fossil fuel remains the biggest culprit.
- The LULUCF sector accounted for 38 per cent of the total warming from CH4 emissions and 72 per cent from N2O emissions between 1851-2021.
- The contribution of India, China and Brazil towards warming due to CH4 and N2O increased by 110%, 56% and 55%, respectively, compared to CO2-related warming alone.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Institute of Eminence (IoE)
- The Institute of Eminence (IoE) is a recognition scheme under All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE).
- Under this scheme, the central government authorities will give INR 1000 crore to selected public institutions every year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Institute of Eminence (IoE) is a recognition scheme under University Grants Commission (UGC) that helps empower higher educational institutions. The HRD Ministry of India grants the Institution of Eminence status to multiple universities.
- Institutions that acquire the IoE status get full autonomy over their educational structure and courses. Moreover, the central government authorities will give INR 1000 crore to public institutions every year.
The IoE Scheme:
About
- The UB 2016-17 announced 10 public and 10 private HEIs are to be recognised to emerge as world-class institutions.
- As a result, UGC launched the IoE scheme in 2017 to –
- Provide for high-quality teaching and research → excellence, and innovations.
- Engage in areas of specialisation.
- Enable HEIs to emerge as top 100 institutions in the world over time (top 500 by 2027).
Benefits
- Greater autonomy:
- Administrative and academic: Free to decide fee, flexible course duration and structure, exemption from approvals for collaborations with foreign institutions.
- Financial: The selected public institutions will get Rs 1,000 crore each from the Ministry of Education.
- However, no financial assistance to the private institutions.
Criteria for the selection/revocation of status
- The institutions should be among the top 50 in the NIRF in their category, and top 500 in internationally recognised rankings.
- Public institutes eligible to apply are central universities, govt-owned and controlled deemed to be universities, institutions of national importance (IITs, NITs), and state univs.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Institute of Eminence (IoE) is a recognition scheme under University Grants Commission (UGC) that helps empower higher educational institutions. The HRD Ministry of India grants the Institution of Eminence status to multiple universities.
- Institutions that acquire the IoE status get full autonomy over their educational structure and courses. Moreover, the central government authorities will give INR 1000 crore to public institutions every year.
The IoE Scheme:
About
- The UB 2016-17 announced 10 public and 10 private HEIs are to be recognised to emerge as world-class institutions.
- As a result, UGC launched the IoE scheme in 2017 to –
- Provide for high-quality teaching and research → excellence, and innovations.
- Engage in areas of specialisation.
- Enable HEIs to emerge as top 100 institutions in the world over time (top 500 by 2027).
Benefits
- Greater autonomy:
- Administrative and academic: Free to decide fee, flexible course duration and structure, exemption from approvals for collaborations with foreign institutions.
- Financial: The selected public institutions will get Rs 1,000 crore each from the Ministry of Education.
- However, no financial assistance to the private institutions.
Criteria for the selection/revocation of status
- The institutions should be among the top 50 in the NIRF in their category, and top 500 in internationally recognised rankings.
- Public institutes eligible to apply are central universities, govt-owned and controlled deemed to be universities, institutions of national importance (IITs, NITs), and state univs.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS)
- Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) shall be the regulator for the trading activities under the Indian carbon market.
- Indian Carbon Market Governing Board has been setup with the secretary for the Ministry of Environment & Forests as its ex-officio chairman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
What is Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS)?
The ‘CCTS’ means the scheme for the reduction or removal of greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions notified by the central government
Background of CCTS:
The parliament passed the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022. One of the provisions of this amendment included empowering the central government to “specify carbon trading scheme”, in consultation with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
Features of CCTS:
- ‘Accredited carbon verifier’: It is an agency accredited by the BEE to carry out validation or verification activities in respect of the CCTS.
- Setting up of the Indian Carbon Market Governing Board (ICMGB): for oversight, making rules for the Indian carbon market, guidelines regarding the sale of carbon credit certificates to outside India and other regulatory functions
- the secretary for the ministry of environment, forest and climate change as its chairperson for direct oversight of its administrative and regulatory functioning of the market.
- The ICMGB shall meet at least once in a quarter of every year
- The Bureau of Energy Efficiency shall be the administrator for the Indian carbon market and shall also work as the secretariat for the ICMGB.
- The Grid Controller of India Ltd shall be the registry for the Indian Carbon Market.
- Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) shall be the regulator for the trading activities under the Indian carbon market
Incorrect
Solution: B
What is Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS)?
The ‘CCTS’ means the scheme for the reduction or removal of greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions notified by the central government
Background of CCTS:
The parliament passed the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Bill, 2022. One of the provisions of this amendment included empowering the central government to “specify carbon trading scheme”, in consultation with the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
Features of CCTS:
- ‘Accredited carbon verifier’: It is an agency accredited by the BEE to carry out validation or verification activities in respect of the CCTS.
- Setting up of the Indian Carbon Market Governing Board (ICMGB): for oversight, making rules for the Indian carbon market, guidelines regarding the sale of carbon credit certificates to outside India and other regulatory functions
- the secretary for the ministry of environment, forest and climate change as its chairperson for direct oversight of its administrative and regulatory functioning of the market.
- The ICMGB shall meet at least once in a quarter of every year
- The Bureau of Energy Efficiency shall be the administrator for the Indian carbon market and shall also work as the secretariat for the ICMGB.
- The Grid Controller of India Ltd shall be the registry for the Indian Carbon Market.
- Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) shall be the regulator for the trading activities under the Indian carbon market
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sarus crane
- It is the world’s tallest flying bird.
- It has been classified as Least Concern under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Sarus crane
The Sarus crane:
- It is a large non-migratory crane found in parts of the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, and Australia.
- Standing at 152-156 centimetres, it is the world’s tallest flying bird classified as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List and is a CITES Appendix II
- In India, it is usually found in wetlands and is the state bird of UP.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Sarus crane
The Sarus crane:
- It is a large non-migratory crane found in parts of the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, and Australia.
- Standing at 152-156 centimetres, it is the world’s tallest flying bird classified as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List and is a CITES Appendix II
- In India, it is usually found in wetlands and is the state bird of UP.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA)
- “Disturbed areas” can be declared by both Governor and Central government.
- At present, AFSPA is applicable in the state of Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
- Under AFSPA, Armed forces can use force, arrest without a warrant and search without a warrant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The Centre has decided to decrease the jurisdiction of “disturbed areas” declared under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA) in Nagaland, Assam and Manipur from April 1st.
About AFSPA Description Definition Areas declared as “disturbed’’ under Section 3 of AFSPA due to a “dangerous” or “disturbed” situation. What are “Disturbed areas”? When a part or whole state/UT is in such a condition that the use of armed forces in aid of civil power is necessary. Who can declare a “disturbed area”? It can be declared by the Governor of state or administrator of Union Territory or by the Central government. Purpose It grants special powers to armed forces to maintain public order in “disturbed areas. Powers Armed forces can use force, arrest without a warrant, search without a warrant, and shoot to kill AFSPA completely withdrawn in Meghalaya (2018), Tripura (2015) and Mizoram (1980s) AFSPA in effect Nagaland (8 out of 9 districts), Assam (8 districts), Manipur (except a few areas), the whole of Jammu and Kashmir and parts of Arunachal Pradesh Need for AFSPA in North-east Protection of members of armed forces; To handle involvement of proxy groups; dissuade advancement of terrorist activities; To handle insurgency and militancy-affected areas Incorrect
Solution: C
The Centre has decided to decrease the jurisdiction of “disturbed areas” declared under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (AFSPA) in Nagaland, Assam and Manipur from April 1st.
About AFSPA Description Definition Areas declared as “disturbed’’ under Section 3 of AFSPA due to a “dangerous” or “disturbed” situation. What are “Disturbed areas”? When a part or whole state/UT is in such a condition that the use of armed forces in aid of civil power is necessary. Who can declare a “disturbed area”? It can be declared by the Governor of state or administrator of Union Territory or by the Central government. Purpose It grants special powers to armed forces to maintain public order in “disturbed areas. Powers Armed forces can use force, arrest without a warrant, search without a warrant, and shoot to kill AFSPA completely withdrawn in Meghalaya (2018), Tripura (2015) and Mizoram (1980s) AFSPA in effect Nagaland (8 out of 9 districts), Assam (8 districts), Manipur (except a few areas), the whole of Jammu and Kashmir and parts of Arunachal Pradesh Need for AFSPA in North-east Protection of members of armed forces; To handle involvement of proxy groups; dissuade advancement of terrorist activities; To handle insurgency and militancy-affected areas -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Rabies
- Rabies is one of the neglected tropical diseases (NTD).
- Rabies is a vaccine-preventable, bacterial disease affecting the central nervous system.
- Once clinical symptoms appear, rabies is virtually 100% fatal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Rabies is a vaccine-preventable, zoonotic, viral disease affecting the central nervous system. Once clinical symptoms appear, rabies is virtually 100% fatal. In up to 99% of cases, domestic dogs are responsible for rabies virus transmission to humans. Yet, rabies can affect both domestic and wild animals. It spreads to people and animals via saliva, usually through bites, scratches or direct contact with mucosa (e.g. eyes, mouth or open wounds). Children between the age of 5 and 14 years are frequent victims.
Rabies is one of the neglected tropical diseases (NTD) that predominantly affects already marginalized, poor and vulnerable populations.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Rabies is a vaccine-preventable, zoonotic, viral disease affecting the central nervous system. Once clinical symptoms appear, rabies is virtually 100% fatal. In up to 99% of cases, domestic dogs are responsible for rabies virus transmission to humans. Yet, rabies can affect both domestic and wild animals. It spreads to people and animals via saliva, usually through bites, scratches or direct contact with mucosa (e.g. eyes, mouth or open wounds). Children between the age of 5 and 14 years are frequent victims.
Rabies is one of the neglected tropical diseases (NTD) that predominantly affects already marginalized, poor and vulnerable populations.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsMuscle fatigue occurs due to the accumulation of which of the following ?
Correct
Solution: C
During physical activities, especially intense or prolonged ones, our muscles demand more energy than they can obtain from aerobic respiration alone. To meet the increased energy demand, muscles also rely on anaerobic respiration, which is the process of breaking down glucose without oxygen. This produces energy faster but is less efficient.
Anaerobic respiration results in the production of pyruvic acid, which is then converted into lactic acid under anaerobic conditions. The accumulation of lactic acid in the muscles leads to a decrease in pH levels, which impairs muscle contractions and enzyme activities. This ultimately contributes to muscle fatigue and the sensation of muscle soreness.
Incorrect
Solution: C
During physical activities, especially intense or prolonged ones, our muscles demand more energy than they can obtain from aerobic respiration alone. To meet the increased energy demand, muscles also rely on anaerobic respiration, which is the process of breaking down glucose without oxygen. This produces energy faster but is less efficient.
Anaerobic respiration results in the production of pyruvic acid, which is then converted into lactic acid under anaerobic conditions. The accumulation of lactic acid in the muscles leads to a decrease in pH levels, which impairs muscle contractions and enzyme activities. This ultimately contributes to muscle fatigue and the sensation of muscle soreness.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following the pairs which is incorrectly matched regarding their status as per IUCN.
Correct
Solution: B
The Nilgiri Tahr is a mountain goat found in the southern part of the Western Ghats in India. Habitat loss, poaching, and other human-induced factors have led to a decline in their population, making them Endangered
The Kashmir Red Stag, also known as the Hangul, is classified as Critically Endangered, not just Threatened, according to the IUCN Red List.
The Pygmy Hog is the world’s smallest and rarest wild pig species. It is native to the grasslands of the foothills of the Himalayas in India, Nepal, and Bhutan. Habitat loss, degradation, and fragmentation, along with the spread of invasive plant species, are the primary reasons for their Critically Endangered status.
The Bramble Cay Melomys was a small rodent that lived on Bramble Cay, a tiny coral island in the Torres Strait, between Australia and Papua New Guinea. It was declared extinct in 2016, making it the first mammal species to go extinct as a direct result of human-induced climate change. Rising sea levels and increased storm surges led to habitat loss and ultimately the extinction of the species.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Nilgiri Tahr is a mountain goat found in the southern part of the Western Ghats in India. Habitat loss, poaching, and other human-induced factors have led to a decline in their population, making them Endangered
The Kashmir Red Stag, also known as the Hangul, is classified as Critically Endangered, not just Threatened, according to the IUCN Red List.
The Pygmy Hog is the world’s smallest and rarest wild pig species. It is native to the grasslands of the foothills of the Himalayas in India, Nepal, and Bhutan. Habitat loss, degradation, and fragmentation, along with the spread of invasive plant species, are the primary reasons for their Critically Endangered status.
The Bramble Cay Melomys was a small rodent that lived on Bramble Cay, a tiny coral island in the Torres Strait, between Australia and Papua New Guinea. It was declared extinct in 2016, making it the first mammal species to go extinct as a direct result of human-induced climate change. Rising sea levels and increased storm surges led to habitat loss and ultimately the extinction of the species.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsWith reference to ‘graphene’, which following statements is/are correct ?
- Graphene conducts electricity faster at room temperature than any other known material.
- Graphene is a crystalline allotrope of carbon with two-dimensional properties.
- It is a bad conductor of heat.
Select the code for the correct answer using the codes given below :
Correct
Solution: A
Graphene is an excellent conductor of electricity due to its unique atomic structure: a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. The electrons in graphene can move freely and rapidly with minimal resistance, making it an exceptional conductor of electricity at room temperature.
Graphene is a two-dimensional, crystalline allotrope of carbon. It is a single layer of carbon atoms bonded together in a hexagonal lattice, and it is the basic structural element of other carbon allotropes like graphite, carbon nanotubes, and fullerenes.
Graphene is, in fact, an excellent conductor of heat. Its thermal conductivity is among the highest of any known material, which makes it suitable for various applications, such as thermal management in electronic devices and other heat transfer applications.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Graphene is an excellent conductor of electricity due to its unique atomic structure: a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. The electrons in graphene can move freely and rapidly with minimal resistance, making it an exceptional conductor of electricity at room temperature.
Graphene is a two-dimensional, crystalline allotrope of carbon. It is a single layer of carbon atoms bonded together in a hexagonal lattice, and it is the basic structural element of other carbon allotropes like graphite, carbon nanotubes, and fullerenes.
Graphene is, in fact, an excellent conductor of heat. Its thermal conductivity is among the highest of any known material, which makes it suitable for various applications, such as thermal management in electronic devices and other heat transfer applications.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsAccording to the ‘‘Bureau of Indian Standards’’ the permissible ‘‘pH value’’ in drinking water should be in the range of
Correct
Solution: C
According to the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the permissible pH value for drinking water should be in the range of 6.5 to 8.5. The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral, values below 7 being acidic, and values above 7 being alkaline (basic). The BIS sets the acceptable range for drinking water to ensure that it is safe for human consumption.
Water with a pH value below 6.5 is acidic and can corrode plumbing materials, potentially leaching harmful metals such as lead and copper into the water supply. Acidic water may also have an unpleasant taste. On the other hand, water with a pH value above 8.5 is alkaline and can cause scale buildup in pipes, leading to reduced water flow and potential clogging. Alkaline water may also have a bitter taste.
By maintaining a pH value between 6.5 and 8.5, the water is considered safe to drink and less likely to cause problems with plumbing materials or have an unpleasant taste.
Incorrect
Solution: C
According to the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), the permissible pH value for drinking water should be in the range of 6.5 to 8.5. The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with 7 being neutral, values below 7 being acidic, and values above 7 being alkaline (basic). The BIS sets the acceptable range for drinking water to ensure that it is safe for human consumption.
Water with a pH value below 6.5 is acidic and can corrode plumbing materials, potentially leaching harmful metals such as lead and copper into the water supply. Acidic water may also have an unpleasant taste. On the other hand, water with a pH value above 8.5 is alkaline and can cause scale buildup in pipes, leading to reduced water flow and potential clogging. Alkaline water may also have a bitter taste.
By maintaining a pH value between 6.5 and 8.5, the water is considered safe to drink and less likely to cause problems with plumbing materials or have an unpleasant taste.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements :
- Pyrolusite is an ore of manganese.
- Galena is an ore of lead.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Correct
Solution: C
Pyrolusite is a black or dark grey mineral consisting mainly of manganese dioxide (MnO2). It is one of the most important ores of manganese, which is used in the production of steel, batteries, and various chemicals.
Galena is a lead sulfide mineral (PbS) and is the most important ore of lead. It is often found with silver, as the two elements frequently occur together in nature. Galena is mined for its lead content, and the silver is often extracted as a by-product.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Pyrolusite is a black or dark grey mineral consisting mainly of manganese dioxide (MnO2). It is one of the most important ores of manganese, which is used in the production of steel, batteries, and various chemicals.
Galena is a lead sulfide mineral (PbS) and is the most important ore of lead. It is often found with silver, as the two elements frequently occur together in nature. Galena is mined for its lead content, and the silver is often extracted as a by-product.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsThe Bangalore office of Infosys has 1200 executives. Out of these, 880 subscribe to the Time magazine and 650 subscribe to the Economist. Each executive may subscribe to either the Time or the Economist or both. If an executive is picked at random, find the probability that
He has subscribed to the Time magazine.
Correct
Correct Answer: A) 11/15
Explanation:
Total executives = 1200
Subscribed for Time magazine = 880
Subscribed for Economy = 650
No. of executives subscribed for both = (880 + 650) – 1200 = 330
Required probability = 880/1200 = 11/15Incorrect
Correct Answer: A) 11/15
Explanation:
Total executives = 1200
Subscribed for Time magazine = 880
Subscribed for Economy = 650
No. of executives subscribed for both = (880 + 650) – 1200 = 330
Required probability = 880/1200 = 11/15 -
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThe Bangalore office of Infosys has 1200 executives. Out of these, 880 subscribe to the Time magazine and 650 subscribe to the Economist. Each executive may subscribe to either the Time or the Economist or both. If an executive is picked at random, find the probability that
He has subscribed to the Economist.
Correct
Correct Answer: C) 13/24
Explanation:
Total executives = 1200
Subscribed for Time magazine = 880
Subscribed for Economy = 650
No. of executives subscribed for both = (880 + 650) – 1200 = 330
required probability=650/1200=13/24Incorrect
Correct Answer: C) 13/24
Explanation:
Total executives = 1200
Subscribed for Time magazine = 880
Subscribed for Economy = 650
No. of executives subscribed for both = (880 + 650) – 1200 = 330
required probability=650/1200=13/24 -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsThe Bangalore office of Infosys has 1200 executives. Out of these, 880 subscribe to the Time magazine and 650 subscribe to the Economist. Each executive may subscribe to either the Time or the Economist or both. If an executive is picked at random, find the probability that
He has subscribed to both magazines.
Correct
Correct Answer: B) 11/40
Explanation:
Total executives = 1200
Subscribed for Time magazine = 880
Subscribed for Economy = 650
No. of executives subscribed for both = (880 + 650) – 1200 = 330
Required probability=330/1200=11/40Incorrect
Correct Answer: B) 11/40
Explanation:
Total executives = 1200
Subscribed for Time magazine = 880
Subscribed for Economy = 650
No. of executives subscribed for both = (880 + 650) – 1200 = 330
Required probability=330/1200=11/40 -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsInSight won’t be looking for life on Mars. It will study its insides — what it’s made of, how that material is layered and how much heat seeps out of it. This is important because Earth and Mars used to be similar — warm, wet and shrouded in thick atmospheres — before they took different paths 3-4 billion years ago. Mars stopped changing, while Earth continued to evolve.
Based on your understanding of the passage, which of the following is true about InSight
-
- InSight will not be able to tell us why life on Mars is not possible
- InSight will help in comparison of Earth and Mars and explain their different evolutionary journey
Correct
Ans. B.
Statement I is wrong as the mission will not be explicitly helpful in finding life on Mars but will help us in understanding why life on Mars is not possible. Hence B.
Incorrect
Ans. B.
Statement I is wrong as the mission will not be explicitly helpful in finding life on Mars but will help us in understanding why life on Mars is not possible. Hence B.
-
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsSince Malcolm Gladwell’s book, Outliers, popularized the concept, many now believe that to become world-class in a skill, they must complete 10,000 hours of deliberate practice in order to beat the competition, going as deep as possible into one field. Modern polymaths like Elon Musk, Steve Jobs go against the grain of this popular advice, building atypical combinations of skills and knowledge across fields and then integrating them to create breakthrough ideas and even brand new fields and industries where there is little competition.
Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?
Correct
Ans. C.
A is wrong as the passage is talking about polymaths which cant be generalized for specialists as well. B is wrong as being a polymath was useful even in earlier years as is evident by the examples. C is correct based on the reading of the passage.
Incorrect
Ans. C.
A is wrong as the passage is talking about polymaths which cant be generalized for specialists as well. B is wrong as being a polymath was useful even in earlier years as is evident by the examples. C is correct based on the reading of the passage.
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