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The following Quiz is based on the Hindu, PIB and other news sources. It is a current events based quiz. Solving these questions will help retain both concepts and facts relevant to UPSC IAS civil services exam.
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New Initiative: Revision Through MCQs (RTM) – Revision of Current Affairs Made Interesting
As revision is the key to success in this exam, we are starting a new initiative where you will revise current affairs effectively through MCQs (RTM) that are solely based on Insights Daily Current Affairs.
These questions will be different than our regular current affairs quiz. These questions are framed to TEST how well you have read and revised Insights Current Affairs on daily basis.
We will post nearly 10 MCQs every day which are based on previous day’s Insights current affairs. Tonight we will be posting RTM questions on the Insights current affairs of October 3, 2019.
The added advantage of this initiative is it will help you solve at least 20 MCQs daily (5 Static + 5 CA Quiz + 10 RTM) – thereby helping you improve your retention as well as elimination and guessing skills.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Governor’s legislative powers.
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- If a bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court, the Governor must reserve the bill for consideration of the President.
- If a bill sent by the Governor for the reconsideration of the State legislature is passed again without amendments, the Governor is under no constitutional obligation to give his assent to the bill.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- When a bill is sent to the governor after it is passed by state legislature, he can:
- (a) Give his assent to the bill, or
- (b) Withhold his assent to the bill, or
- (c) Return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the state legislature. However, if the bill is passed again by the state legislature with or without amendments, the governor has to give his assent to the bill, or
- (d) Reserve the bill for the consideration of the president. In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court.
- In Addition, the governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature:
- (i) Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the Constitution.
- (ii) Opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
- (iii) Against the larger interest of the country.
- (iv) Of grave national importance.
- (v) Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/governor-chief-minister-confrontation/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- When a bill is sent to the governor after it is passed by state legislature, he can:
- (a) Give his assent to the bill, or
- (b) Withhold his assent to the bill, or
- (c) Return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the state legislature. However, if the bill is passed again by the state legislature with or without amendments, the governor has to give his assent to the bill, or
- (d) Reserve the bill for the consideration of the president. In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court.
- In Addition, the governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature:
- (i) Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the Constitution.
- (ii) Opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
- (iii) Against the larger interest of the country.
- (iv) Of grave national importance.
- (v) Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/governor-chief-minister-confrontation/
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsThe Constitution lays down which of the following conditions for the governor’s office or selection to the Governor’s office?
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- The Governor should not belong to the state where is appointed.
- The Governor’s appointment must be made after consulting the chief Minister of the state.
- A serving Governor cannot be a member of either House of Parliament or a House of the state legislature.
Select the correct answer code:
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Article 157 and Article 158 of the Constitution of India specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor. They are as follows:
- A governor must:
- be a [citizen of India].
- be at least 35 years of age.
- not be a member of the either house of the parliament or house of the state legislature.
- not hold any office of profit.
- Additionally, two conventions have also developed over the years.
- First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed, so that he is free from the local politics.
- Second, while appointing the governor, the president is required to consult the chief minister of the state concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured.
- However, both the conventions have been violated in some of the cases.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/governor-chief-minister-confrontation/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Article 157 and Article 158 of the Constitution of India specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor. They are as follows:
- A governor must:
- be a [citizen of India].
- be at least 35 years of age.
- not be a member of the either house of the parliament or house of the state legislature.
- not hold any office of profit.
- Additionally, two conventions have also developed over the years.
- First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed, so that he is free from the local politics.
- Second, while appointing the governor, the president is required to consult the chief minister of the state concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured.
- However, both the conventions have been violated in some of the cases.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/governor-chief-minister-confrontation/
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the terms of the Office of the Governor.
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- The Governor can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the Chief Minister of the State.
- The Constitution does not lay down the grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The resignation letter is submitted to the President, and not the Chief Minister.
- A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President.
- The Supreme Court held that the pleasure of the President is not justifiable. The governor has no security of tenure and no fixed term of office. He may be removed by the President at any time without mentioning any grounds for his removal.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/governor-chief-minister-confrontation/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The resignation letter is submitted to the President, and not the Chief Minister.
- A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President.
- The Supreme Court held that the pleasure of the President is not justifiable. The governor has no security of tenure and no fixed term of office. He may be removed by the President at any time without mentioning any grounds for his removal.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/governor-chief-minister-confrontation/
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following best describes the purpose of an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)?
Correct
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- An EIA is a process used to identify, predict, evaluate, and communicate the potential environmental effects of a proposed project or development to decision-makers and stakeholders. The purpose of an EIA is to ensure that potential environmental impacts are identified and addressed during the decision-making process, with the aim of minimizing or avoiding negative impacts and enhancing positive ones. Therefore, option A is the correct answer as it best describes the purpose of an EIA. Option B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the goal of environmental protection, and option D is incorrect as EIA does not provide funding for environmental conservation efforts but instead assesses the potential impacts of a project or development on the environment.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/over-100-changes-in-environment-impact-assessment-eia/
Incorrect
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- An EIA is a process used to identify, predict, evaluate, and communicate the potential environmental effects of a proposed project or development to decision-makers and stakeholders. The purpose of an EIA is to ensure that potential environmental impacts are identified and addressed during the decision-making process, with the aim of minimizing or avoiding negative impacts and enhancing positive ones. Therefore, option A is the correct answer as it best describes the purpose of an EIA. Option B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the goal of environmental protection, and option D is incorrect as EIA does not provide funding for environmental conservation efforts but instead assesses the potential impacts of a project or development on the environment.
Refer: https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/over-100-changes-in-environment-impact-assessment-eia/
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements about Guru Tegh Bahadur:
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- He was the tenth Sikh guru who stood up against forcible conversions by the Mughals.
- He set up his headquarters in present-day Anandpur Sahib in 1665.
- He helped Raja Ram Singh to broker a truce with the Ahom king.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About Guru Tegh Bahadur:
- Born in Amritsar on April 21, 1621 to Mata Nanki and Guru Hargobind, the sixth Sikh guru.
- He was the ninth Sikh guru who stood up against forcible conversions by the Mughals.
- He set up his headquarters in present-day Anandpur Sahib in 1665.
- He helped Raja Ram Singh to broker a truce with the Ahom king. Gurdwara Dhubri Sahib on the banks of the Brahmaputra commemorates this peace accord.
- Aurangzeb ordered the public execution of the Guru on November 11, 1675 after he declined to embrace Islam.
Refer: Facts for Prelims (FFP): https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-april-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation: About Guru Tegh Bahadur:
- Born in Amritsar on April 21, 1621 to Mata Nanki and Guru Hargobind, the sixth Sikh guru.
- He was the ninth Sikh guru who stood up against forcible conversions by the Mughals.
- He set up his headquarters in present-day Anandpur Sahib in 1665.
- He helped Raja Ram Singh to broker a truce with the Ahom king. Gurdwara Dhubri Sahib on the banks of the Brahmaputra commemorates this peace accord.
- Aurangzeb ordered the public execution of the Guru on November 11, 1675 after he declined to embrace Islam.
Refer: Facts for Prelims (FFP): https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-april-2023/
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
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- Mahatma Phule started the celebration of Shivaji Jayanti which was then taken forward by Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
- He formed the Satyashodhak Samaj along with his followers to fight for basic rights for people belonging to the lower castes.
- He was given the title of ‘Mahatma’ by another social activist Baba Amte.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Mahatma Jyotirao Phule was the first one to commence the event of Shivaji Jayanti in 1870 after he found the grave of Shivaji Maharaj in Raigad (1869), about 100 miles from Pune. The celebrations were later carried forward by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1894
- Key contributions to the society:
- Along with his wife Savitribai Phule, worked for the uplift of women and children in the marginalised communities.
- In 1848, he started his first school for girls at Bhide Wada in Pune.
- In 1873, he formed the Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Truth Seekers) along with his followers to fight for basic rights for people belonging to the lower castes.
- They also fought to stop infanticide and promote widow remarriage.
- To end the stigma of social untouchability, he opened his house to people of the lower caste and allowed them to use his water-well.
- The couple set up ‘Balyata Pratibandak Gruha’, a childcare centre for the protection of pregnant widows and rape victims.
- Title “Mahatma”:
- In 1888, he was given the title of ‘Mahatma’ (‘great soul’) by another social activist Vithalrao Krishnaji Vandekar.
- His famous works:
- Tritiya Ratna (1855), Gulamgiri (1873), Shetkarayacha Aasud, or Cultivator’s Whipcord (1881), Satyashodhak Samajokt Mangalashtakasah Sarva Puja-vidhi (1887).
Refer: Facts for Prelims (FFP): https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-april-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Mahatma Jyotirao Phule was the first one to commence the event of Shivaji Jayanti in 1870 after he found the grave of Shivaji Maharaj in Raigad (1869), about 100 miles from Pune. The celebrations were later carried forward by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1894
- Key contributions to the society:
- Along with his wife Savitribai Phule, worked for the uplift of women and children in the marginalised communities.
- In 1848, he started his first school for girls at Bhide Wada in Pune.
- In 1873, he formed the Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Truth Seekers) along with his followers to fight for basic rights for people belonging to the lower castes.
- They also fought to stop infanticide and promote widow remarriage.
- To end the stigma of social untouchability, he opened his house to people of the lower caste and allowed them to use his water-well.
- The couple set up ‘Balyata Pratibandak Gruha’, a childcare centre for the protection of pregnant widows and rape victims.
- Title “Mahatma”:
- In 1888, he was given the title of ‘Mahatma’ (‘great soul’) by another social activist Vithalrao Krishnaji Vandekar.
- His famous works:
- Tritiya Ratna (1855), Gulamgiri (1873), Shetkarayacha Aasud, or Cultivator’s Whipcord (1881), Satyashodhak Samajokt Mangalashtakasah Sarva Puja-vidhi (1887).
Refer: Facts for Prelims (FFP): https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-april-2023/
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCumbum Valley located in
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Context: The Cumbum grapes recently earned the Geographical Indication tag or GI tag.
- About the grapes:
- Cumbum Panneer Thratchai, also known as Cumbum grapes, is a variety of grapes grown in the Cumbum Valley located at the Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu, India.
Refer: Facts for Prelims (FFP): https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-april-2023/
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Context: The Cumbum grapes recently earned the Geographical Indication tag or GI tag.
- About the grapes:
- Cumbum Panneer Thratchai, also known as Cumbum grapes, is a variety of grapes grown in the Cumbum Valley located at the Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu, India.
Refer: Facts for Prelims (FFP): https://www.insightsonindia.com/2023/04/12/mission-2023-insights-daily-current-affairs-pib-summary-12-april-2023/
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhat was the main reason for the split in the Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Indian National Congress was also split into two different groups called Moderates and Radicals because Moderates wanted to go against the British peacefully but Radicals wanted to go against the British violently, but the aim of both was to expel or suppress the British Empire from India.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2016
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Indian National Congress was also split into two different groups called Moderates and Radicals because Moderates wanted to go against the British peacefully but Radicals wanted to go against the British violently, but the aim of both was to expel or suppress the British Empire from India.
Refer: UPSC CSE 2016
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsThe Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
Correct
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- If Rajya Sabha approves a resolution with special majority and declares that a subject is of national interest, the Parliament can make a law on the particular subject in the state list (7th Schedule).
Refer: UPSC CSE 2016
Incorrect
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- If Rajya Sabha approves a resolution with special majority and declares that a subject is of national interest, the Parliament can make a law on the particular subject in the state list (7th Schedule).
Refer: UPSC CSE 2016
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
-
- The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
- The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: The first report of the Club of Rome was the famous “The limits to growth” thesis brought out in 1972.
- While the report did talk about the need of reducing our consumption habits and sustainable development, it is hard to conclude that the SDGs were first proposed by them.
- This is because SDGs are a comprehensive set of goals that include not only environmental conservation, but also reducing poverty, ensuring education, curbing malnutrition and hunger etc. So, we believe 1 should be wrong.
- Statement 2: It is officially known as “Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development”
- http://donellameadows.org/archives/the-club-of-rome-and-sustainable-development/
Refer: UPSC CSE 2016
FINANCIAL EMERGENCY
Grounds of Declaration
Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
Parliamentary Approval and Duration
A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
Once approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This implies two things:
- there is no maximum period prescribed for its operation; and
- repeated parliamentary approval is not required for its continuation.
A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting.
Effects of Financial Emergency
The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of (a) all or any class of persons serving the Union; and (b) the judges of the Supreme Court and the high court.
Incorrect
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: The first report of the Club of Rome was the famous “The limits to growth” thesis brought out in 1972.
- While the report did talk about the need of reducing our consumption habits and sustainable development, it is hard to conclude that the SDGs were first proposed by them.
- This is because SDGs are a comprehensive set of goals that include not only environmental conservation, but also reducing poverty, ensuring education, curbing malnutrition and hunger etc. So, we believe 1 should be wrong.
- Statement 2: It is officially known as “Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development”
- http://donellameadows.org/archives/the-club-of-rome-and-sustainable-development/
Refer: UPSC CSE 2016
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