INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsArrange the following events in chronological order from earliest to latest
- Foundation of the Indo-Greek empire by Demetrius
- Alexander’s Invasion of India
- Asoka’s conquest of Kalinga
- Establishment of the Nanda dynasty
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
- Mahapadma Nanda conquered the Shishunaga dynasty in Magadha and established the Nanda dynasty. It lasted from 345 BC to 321 BC
- 327- 325BC: Alexander’s Invasion of India
- 260BC: Asoka’s conquest of Kalinga
- 182BC: Foundation of the Indo-Greek empire by Demetrius
Incorrect
Solution: A
- Mahapadma Nanda conquered the Shishunaga dynasty in Magadha and established the Nanda dynasty. It lasted from 345 BC to 321 BC
- 327- 325BC: Alexander’s Invasion of India
- 260BC: Asoka’s conquest of Kalinga
- 182BC: Foundation of the Indo-Greek empire by Demetrius
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the sites of Old Stone Age in India?
- Soan valley
- Siwalik hills
- Bhimbetka
- Kurnool
- Attirampakkam
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
The Old Stone Age sites are widely found in various parts of
the Indian subcontinent. These sites are generally located near water
sources. Several rock shelters and caves used by the Paleolithic
people are scattered across the subcontinent. They also lived rarely
in huts made of leaves. Some of the famous sites of Old Stone Age
in India are:
- The Soan valley and Potwar Plateau on the northwest India.
- The Siwalik hills on the north India.
- Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh.
- Adamgarh hill in Narmada valley.
- Kurnool in Andhra Pradesh and
- Attirampakkam near Chennai.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Old Stone Age sites are widely found in various parts of
the Indian subcontinent. These sites are generally located near water
sources. Several rock shelters and caves used by the Paleolithic
people are scattered across the subcontinent. They also lived rarely
in huts made of leaves. Some of the famous sites of Old Stone Age
in India are:
- The Soan valley and Potwar Plateau on the northwest India.
- The Siwalik hills on the north India.
- Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh.
- Adamgarh hill in Narmada valley.
- Kurnool in Andhra Pradesh and
- Attirampakkam near Chennai.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsMatch the following sites with their first excavator/Discoverer
- Harappa: Sir Mortimer Wheeler
- Mohenjodaro: Rai Bahadur Daya Ram Sahni
- Ganweriwala: Sir Aurel Stein
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
The Harappa site was first briefly excavated by Sir Alexander
Cunningham in 1872-73, two decades after brick robbers carried off the
visible remains of the city. He found an Indus seal of unknown origin. The
first extensive excavations at Harappa were started by Rai Bahadur Daya Ram Sahni in 1920.
Mohenjodaro was discovered in 1922 by R. D. Banerji, an officer of the
Archaeological Survey of India, two years after major excavations had
begun at Harappa.
Ganweriwala is in Punjab (in present-day Pakistan) near the Indian border. It was first discovered by Sir Aurel Stein and surveyed by Dr. M. R. Mughal in the 1970s.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Harappa site was first briefly excavated by Sir Alexander
Cunningham in 1872-73, two decades after brick robbers carried off the
visible remains of the city. He found an Indus seal of unknown origin. The
first extensive excavations at Harappa were started by Rai Bahadur Daya Ram Sahni in 1920.
Mohenjodaro was discovered in 1922 by R. D. Banerji, an officer of the
Archaeological Survey of India, two years after major excavations had
begun at Harappa.
Ganweriwala is in Punjab (in present-day Pakistan) near the Indian border. It was first discovered by Sir Aurel Stein and surveyed by Dr. M. R. Mughal in the 1970s.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Harappan script
- Most inscriptions are short, the longest containing about 26 signs.
- It is apparent that the script was written from left to right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
An enigmatic script of IVC
Harappan seals usually have a line of writing, probably containing the name and title of the owner. Scholars have also suggested that the motif (generally an animal) conveyed a meaning to those who could not read.
Most inscriptions are short, the longest containing about 26 signs. Although the script remains undeciphered to date, it was evidently not alphabetical (where each sign stands for a vowel or a consonant) as it has just too many signs – somewhere between 375 and 400. It is apparent that the script was written from right to left as some seals show a wider spacing on the right and cramping on the left, as if the engraver began working from the right and then ran out of space.
Incorrect
Solution: A
An enigmatic script of IVC
Harappan seals usually have a line of writing, probably containing the name and title of the owner. Scholars have also suggested that the motif (generally an animal) conveyed a meaning to those who could not read.
Most inscriptions are short, the longest containing about 26 signs. Although the script remains undeciphered to date, it was evidently not alphabetical (where each sign stands for a vowel or a consonant) as it has just too many signs – somewhere between 375 and 400. It is apparent that the script was written from right to left as some seals show a wider spacing on the right and cramping on the left, as if the engraver began working from the right and then ran out of space.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding coins
- The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Indo-Greeks.
- The first gold coins were issued by the Kushanas.
- Coins were issued by tribal republics also, such as the Yaudheyas.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Punch-marked coins made of silver and copper (c. sixth century BCE onwards) were amongst the earliest to be minted and used. These have been recovered from excavations at a number of sites throughout the subcontinent.
The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Indo-Greeks, who established control over the north-western part of the subcontinent c. second century BCE.
The first gold coins were issued c. first century CE by the Kushanas. These were virtually identical in weight with those issued by contemporary Roman emperors and the Parthian rulers of Iran, and have been found from several sites in north India and Central Asia.
Coins were also issued by tribal republics such as that of the Yaudheyas of Punjab and Haryana (c. first century CE). Archaeologists have unearthed several thousand copper coins issued by the Yaudheyas, pointing to the latter’s interest and participation in economic exchanges.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Punch-marked coins made of silver and copper (c. sixth century BCE onwards) were amongst the earliest to be minted and used. These have been recovered from excavations at a number of sites throughout the subcontinent.
The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the Indo-Greeks, who established control over the north-western part of the subcontinent c. second century BCE.
The first gold coins were issued c. first century CE by the Kushanas. These were virtually identical in weight with those issued by contemporary Roman emperors and the Parthian rulers of Iran, and have been found from several sites in north India and Central Asia.
Coins were also issued by tribal republics such as that of the Yaudheyas of Punjab and Haryana (c. first century CE). Archaeologists have unearthed several thousand copper coins issued by the Yaudheyas, pointing to the latter’s interest and participation in economic exchanges.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 points“Mlechchhas” was term used to refer to
Correct
Solution: D
Shakas who came from Central Asia, were regarded as mlechchhas, barbarians or outsiders by the Brahmanas. However, one of the earliest inscriptions in Sanskrit describes how Rudradaman, the best-known Shaka ruler (c. second century CE), rebuilt Sudarshana lake. This suggests that powerful mlechchhas were familiar with Sanskritic traditions.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Shakas who came from Central Asia, were regarded as mlechchhas, barbarians or outsiders by the Brahmanas. However, one of the earliest inscriptions in Sanskrit describes how Rudradaman, the best-known Shaka ruler (c. second century CE), rebuilt Sudarshana lake. This suggests that powerful mlechchhas were familiar with Sanskritic traditions.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding
- The Sama Veda is set to tune for the purpose of chanting during sacrifice.
- The Yajur Veda is believed to be the work of non-Aryans; its contents throw light on the beliefs and practices of the non-Aryans.
- The Atharva Veda contains details of rituals and contains charms and spells in verse to ward off evils and diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Vedic Literature
The Sama Veda (the name is derived from saman, a song or melody) consists of 1810, or 1549 if one omits the repetitions, stanzas except 75, taken from the eighth and ninth mandalas of the Rig Veda and arranged according to the order in which they were chanted by the udgatri priests at the soma sacrifice. They were set to tune for the purpose of chanting in this sacrifice. It is called the book of chants, and the origins of Indian music are
traced to it.
The Yajur Veda (veda of yajus or formulae) consists of various mantras (hymns) for the purpose of recitation and rules to be observed at the time of sacrifice. It is primarily a guide for the use of the adhvaryu priest who performed the manual part of the ritual. The two royal ceremonies of rajasuya and vajapeya are mentioned for the first time in this veda. In contrast to the first two which are in verse entirely, this one is in both verse and prose. It is divided into two parts, Krishna Yajur Veda and Sukla Yajur Veda. The former (Black) is the older of the two, and contains not only the hymns but also prose commentaries. The latter (White) contain: only the hymns. The former consists of four samhitas (the Kathaka. Kapishthala- Katha. Maitrayan and Taittiriya Samhitas), but the latter has only the Vajasaneyi Samhita.
The Atharva Veda (veda of the atharvans or the knowledge of magic formulas) contains charms and spells in verse to ward off evils and diseases. It was closely connected with the warrior class and two of its hymns are dedicated to the war drum. Believed to be the work of non-Aryans, its contents throw light on the beliefs and practices of the non-Aryans. It is divided into two parts: Paippalada and Saunaka.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Vedic Literature
The Sama Veda (the name is derived from saman, a song or melody) consists of 1810, or 1549 if one omits the repetitions, stanzas except 75, taken from the eighth and ninth mandalas of the Rig Veda and arranged according to the order in which they were chanted by the udgatri priests at the soma sacrifice. They were set to tune for the purpose of chanting in this sacrifice. It is called the book of chants, and the origins of Indian music are
traced to it.
The Yajur Veda (veda of yajus or formulae) consists of various mantras (hymns) for the purpose of recitation and rules to be observed at the time of sacrifice. It is primarily a guide for the use of the adhvaryu priest who performed the manual part of the ritual. The two royal ceremonies of rajasuya and vajapeya are mentioned for the first time in this veda. In contrast to the first two which are in verse entirely, this one is in both verse and prose. It is divided into two parts, Krishna Yajur Veda and Sukla Yajur Veda. The former (Black) is the older of the two, and contains not only the hymns but also prose commentaries. The latter (White) contain: only the hymns. The former consists of four samhitas (the Kathaka. Kapishthala- Katha. Maitrayan and Taittiriya Samhitas), but the latter has only the Vajasaneyi Samhita.
The Atharva Veda (veda of the atharvans or the knowledge of magic formulas) contains charms and spells in verse to ward off evils and diseases. It was closely connected with the warrior class and two of its hymns are dedicated to the war drum. Believed to be the work of non-Aryans, its contents throw light on the beliefs and practices of the non-Aryans. It is divided into two parts: Paippalada and Saunaka.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement regarding Mahajanapadas is incorrect?
Correct
Solution: C
The Buddhist literature Anguttara Nikaya gives a list of sixteen great kingdoms called ‘Sixteen Mahajanapadas’. They were Anga, Magadha, Kasi, Kosala, Vajji, Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala, Matsya, Surasena, Asmaka, Avanti, Gandhara and Kambhoja. The Jain texts also contain references to the existence of sixteen kingdoms. In course of time, the small and weak kingdoms either submitted to the stronger rulers or gradually got eliminated. Finally in the mid 6th century B.C., only four kingdoms – Vatsa, Avanti, Kosala and Magadha survived.
Vatsa
The Vatsa kingdom was situated on the banks of the river Yamuna. Its capital was Kausambi near modern Allahabad.
Kosala
Ayodhya was the capital of Kosala. King Prasenajit was its famous ruler. He was highly educated. His position was further strengthened by the matrimonial alliance with Magadha.
Avanti
The capital of Avanti was Ujjain. The most important ruler of this kingdom was Pradyota.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The Buddhist literature Anguttara Nikaya gives a list of sixteen great kingdoms called ‘Sixteen Mahajanapadas’. They were Anga, Magadha, Kasi, Kosala, Vajji, Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala, Matsya, Surasena, Asmaka, Avanti, Gandhara and Kambhoja. The Jain texts also contain references to the existence of sixteen kingdoms. In course of time, the small and weak kingdoms either submitted to the stronger rulers or gradually got eliminated. Finally in the mid 6th century B.C., only four kingdoms – Vatsa, Avanti, Kosala and Magadha survived.
Vatsa
The Vatsa kingdom was situated on the banks of the river Yamuna. Its capital was Kausambi near modern Allahabad.
Kosala
Ayodhya was the capital of Kosala. King Prasenajit was its famous ruler. He was highly educated. His position was further strengthened by the matrimonial alliance with Magadha.
Avanti
The capital of Avanti was Ujjain. The most important ruler of this kingdom was Pradyota.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements
- Bimbisara was a contemporary of both Vardhamana Mahavira and Gautama Buddha.
- Ajatasatru is said to have met Gautama Buddha and this scene is depicted in the sculptures of Barhut.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: c
Bimbisara (546 – 494 B.C.)
Bimbisara belonged to the Haryanka dynasty. He consolidated his position by matrimonial alliances.
Bimbisara was a contemporary of both Vardhamana Mahavira and Gautama Buddha. However, both religions claim him as their supporter and devotee. He seems to have made numerous gifts to the Buddhist Sangha.
Ajatasatru (494 – 462 B.C.)
The reign of Ajatasatru was remarkable for his military conquests. He fought against Kosala and Vaisali. Buddhists and Jains both claim that Ajatasatru was a follower of their religion. But it is generally believed that in the beginning he was a follower of Jainism and subsequently embraced Buddhism. He is said to have met Gautama Buddha. This scene is also depicted in the sculptures of Barhut.
He was also instrumental in convening the First Buddhist Council at Rajagriha soon after the death of the Buddha.
Incorrect
Solution: c
Bimbisara (546 – 494 B.C.)
Bimbisara belonged to the Haryanka dynasty. He consolidated his position by matrimonial alliances.
Bimbisara was a contemporary of both Vardhamana Mahavira and Gautama Buddha. However, both religions claim him as their supporter and devotee. He seems to have made numerous gifts to the Buddhist Sangha.
Ajatasatru (494 – 462 B.C.)
The reign of Ajatasatru was remarkable for his military conquests. He fought against Kosala and Vaisali. Buddhists and Jains both claim that Ajatasatru was a follower of their religion. But it is generally believed that in the beginning he was a follower of Jainism and subsequently embraced Buddhism. He is said to have met Gautama Buddha. This scene is also depicted in the sculptures of Barhut.
He was also instrumental in convening the First Buddhist Council at Rajagriha soon after the death of the Buddha.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Arthasastra
- This book in Sanskrit was written by Kautilya, a contemporary of Chandragupta Maurya.
- The manuscript of Arthasastra was first discovered by R. Shama Sastri.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Kautilya’s Arthasastra
This book in Sanskrit was written by Kautilya, a contemporary of Chandragupta Maurya. Kautilya was also called ‘Indian Machiavelli’. The manuscript of Arthasastra was first discovered by R. Shama Sastri in 1904. The Arthasastra contains 15 books and 180 chapters but it can be divided into three parts: the first deals with the king and his council and the departments of government; the second with civil and criminal law; and the third with diplomacy and war. It is the most important literary source for history of the Mauryas.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Kautilya’s Arthasastra
This book in Sanskrit was written by Kautilya, a contemporary of Chandragupta Maurya. Kautilya was also called ‘Indian Machiavelli’. The manuscript of Arthasastra was first discovered by R. Shama Sastri in 1904. The Arthasastra contains 15 books and 180 chapters but it can be divided into three parts: the first deals with the king and his council and the departments of government; the second with civil and criminal law; and the third with diplomacy and war. It is the most important literary source for history of the Mauryas.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following languages were used in Asokan inscriptions?
- Prakrit language
- Greek language
- Aramaic language
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Asokan inscriptions are in (a) the Prakrit language (which varies according to zonal requirements) and the Brahmi script, (b) North-Western Prakrit and the Kharoshti script, (c) the Greek language and script, and (d) the Aramaic language and script.
The Edicts are classified according to the surfaces on which they have been inscribed—rocks, pillars, and caves. These different surfaces, however, were suited to different purposes, and therefore the locations and the contents of the kinds of Edicts follow a certain pattern.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Asokan inscriptions are in (a) the Prakrit language (which varies according to zonal requirements) and the Brahmi script, (b) North-Western Prakrit and the Kharoshti script, (c) the Greek language and script, and (d) the Aramaic language and script.
The Edicts are classified according to the surfaces on which they have been inscribed—rocks, pillars, and caves. These different surfaces, however, were suited to different purposes, and therefore the locations and the contents of the kinds of Edicts follow a certain pattern.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Satavahanas
- Nasik and Nanaghad inscriptions throw light on the reign of Gautamiputra Satakarni.
- The founder of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka.
- Hala became famous for his book Gathasaptasati, which was written in Prakrit language.
- The greatest port of the Satavahanas was Kalyani on the west Deccan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Satavahanas
In the Deccan, the Satavahanas established their independent rule after the decline of the Mauryas. Their rule lasted for about 450 years. They were also known as the Andhras. The Puranas and inscriptions remain important sources for the history of Satavahanas. Among the inscriptions, the Nasik and Nanaghad inscriptions throw much light on the reign of Gautamiputra Satakarni. The coins issued by the Satavahanas are also helpful in knowing the economic conditions of that period.
The founder of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka. He was succeeded by Krishna, who extended the kingdom up to Nasik in the west. The third king was Sri Satakarni. He conquered western Malwa and Berar. He also performed asvamedha sacrifices. The seventeenth king of the Satavahana dynasty was Hala. He reigned for a period of five years. Hala became famous for his book Gathasaptasati, also called Sattasai. It contains 700 verses in Prakrit language.
The greatest port of the Satavahanas was Kalyani on the west Deccan. Gandakasela and Ganjam on the east coast were the other important seaports.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Satavahanas
In the Deccan, the Satavahanas established their independent rule after the decline of the Mauryas. Their rule lasted for about 450 years. They were also known as the Andhras. The Puranas and inscriptions remain important sources for the history of Satavahanas. Among the inscriptions, the Nasik and Nanaghad inscriptions throw much light on the reign of Gautamiputra Satakarni. The coins issued by the Satavahanas are also helpful in knowing the economic conditions of that period.
The founder of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka. He was succeeded by Krishna, who extended the kingdom up to Nasik in the west. The third king was Sri Satakarni. He conquered western Malwa and Berar. He also performed asvamedha sacrifices. The seventeenth king of the Satavahana dynasty was Hala. He reigned for a period of five years. Hala became famous for his book Gathasaptasati, also called Sattasai. It contains 700 verses in Prakrit language.
The greatest port of the Satavahanas was Kalyani on the west Deccan. Gandakasela and Ganjam on the east coast were the other important seaports.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Cheras
- The Cheras ruled over parts of modern Kerala.
- Perumkadungo and llamakadungo were royal poets.
- The poems of the Sangam attest to the anxiety of all Sangam’ rulers to connect themselves with the events of the Ramayana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Cheras
The Cheras ruled over parts of modern Kerala. Their capital was Vanji or Karur. It is only for the Chera line of rulers that we can construct something like a continuous genealogy and this shows the existence of two lines of rulers.
An inscription on the Amattamalai hill, Pugalur, assignable to the first century of the Christian era, refers to three generations of Chera rulers— lrumporai, his son Perumkadungo and his son llamakadungo. Two royal poets of the Chera line—Perumkadungo and llamakadungo—are found in the Sangam works. Perumkadungo and llamakadungo were kings of Chera Kingdom and not poets.
The Perumkadungo and llamakadungo of the inscription are identified with the royal poets of the same names in Sangam works. The poems of the Sangam attest to the anxiety of all Sangam’ rulers to connect themselves with the events of the Mahabharata war. The first Chera monarch we hear of, Udiyanjeral (AD 130), is said to have fed sumptuously both the armies of Kurukshetra.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Cheras
The Cheras ruled over parts of modern Kerala. Their capital was Vanji or Karur. It is only for the Chera line of rulers that we can construct something like a continuous genealogy and this shows the existence of two lines of rulers.
An inscription on the Amattamalai hill, Pugalur, assignable to the first century of the Christian era, refers to three generations of Chera rulers— lrumporai, his son Perumkadungo and his son llamakadungo. Two royal poets of the Chera line—Perumkadungo and llamakadungo—are found in the Sangam works. Perumkadungo and llamakadungo were kings of Chera Kingdom and not poets.
The Perumkadungo and llamakadungo of the inscription are identified with the royal poets of the same names in Sangam works. The poems of the Sangam attest to the anxiety of all Sangam’ rulers to connect themselves with the events of the Mahabharata war. The first Chera monarch we hear of, Udiyanjeral (AD 130), is said to have fed sumptuously both the armies of Kurukshetra.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Kanishka
- He was the founder of the Saka era which starts from 78 A.D.
- He convened the Second Buddhist Council to discuss matters relating to Buddhist theology and doctrine.
- The famous physician of ancient India Sushruta was patronized by him.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
Kushanas
The Kushanas were a branch of Yuchi tribe, whose original home was central Asia. They first came to Bactria displacing the Sakas. Then they gradually moved to the Kabul valley and seized the Gandhara region. The founder of the Kushana dynasty was Kujula Kadphises or Kadphises I.
Kanishka (78 – 120 A.D.)
Kanishka was the most important ruler of the Kushana dynasty. He was the founder of the Saka era which starts from 78 A.D. He was not only a great conqueror but also a patron of religion and art.
He patronised Buddhist scholars like Vasumitra, Asvagosha and Nagarjuna. He also convened the Fourth Buddhist Council to discuss matters relating to Buddhist theology and doctrine. It was held at the Kundalavana monastery near Srinagar in Kashmir under the presidentship of Vasumitra.
The famous physician of ancient India Charaka was also patronized by him.
Incorrect
Solution: A
Kushanas
The Kushanas were a branch of Yuchi tribe, whose original home was central Asia. They first came to Bactria displacing the Sakas. Then they gradually moved to the Kabul valley and seized the Gandhara region. The founder of the Kushana dynasty was Kujula Kadphises or Kadphises I.
Kanishka (78 – 120 A.D.)
Kanishka was the most important ruler of the Kushana dynasty. He was the founder of the Saka era which starts from 78 A.D. He was not only a great conqueror but also a patron of religion and art.
He patronised Buddhist scholars like Vasumitra, Asvagosha and Nagarjuna. He also convened the Fourth Buddhist Council to discuss matters relating to Buddhist theology and doctrine. It was held at the Kundalavana monastery near Srinagar in Kashmir under the presidentship of Vasumitra.
The famous physician of ancient India Charaka was also patronized by him.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Gupta dynasty
- The founder of the Gupta dynasty was Sri Gupta.
- Chandragupta II is considered to be the founder of the Gupta era which starts with his accession in A.D. 320.
- The Allahabad Pillar inscription provides a detailed account of Samudragupta’s reign.
- The famous Chinese pilgrim, Fahien visited India during the reign of Chandragupta I.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Chandragupta I (320 – 330 A.D.)
The founder of the Gupta dynasty was Sri Gupta. He was succeeded by Ghatotkacha. These two were called Maharajas. Much information was not available about their rule. The next ruler was Chandragupta I and he was the first to be called Maharajadhiraja (the great king of kings). This title indicates his extensive conquests. He strengthened his position by a matrimonial alliance with the Licchavis. He married Kumaradevi, a princess of that family. This added to the power and prestige of the Gupta family. The Meherauli Iron Pillar inscription mentions his extensive conquests. Chandragupta I is considered to be the founder of the Gupta era which starts with his accession in A.D. 320.
Samudragupta (330-380 A.D.)
Samudragupta was the greatest of the rulers of the Gupta dynasty. The Allahabad Pillar inscription provides a detailed account of his reign.
Fahien’s Visit
The famous Chinese pilgrim, Fahien visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Chandragupta I (320 – 330 A.D.)
The founder of the Gupta dynasty was Sri Gupta. He was succeeded by Ghatotkacha. These two were called Maharajas. Much information was not available about their rule. The next ruler was Chandragupta I and he was the first to be called Maharajadhiraja (the great king of kings). This title indicates his extensive conquests. He strengthened his position by a matrimonial alliance with the Licchavis. He married Kumaradevi, a princess of that family. This added to the power and prestige of the Gupta family. The Meherauli Iron Pillar inscription mentions his extensive conquests. Chandragupta I is considered to be the founder of the Gupta era which starts with his accession in A.D. 320.
Samudragupta (330-380 A.D.)
Samudragupta was the greatest of the rulers of the Gupta dynasty. The Allahabad Pillar inscription provides a detailed account of his reign.
Fahien’s Visit
The famous Chinese pilgrim, Fahien visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Nalanda
- The Nalanda Mahavihara site is in Bihar.
- It engaged in the organized transmission of knowledge over an uninterrupted period of 1800 years.
- Its history goes back to the days of Buddha and Mahavira in the 6th century BC, where both Buddha and Mahavira often stayed at Nalanda during the rainy season.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
NALANDA
The Nalanda Mahavihara site is in Bihar. It comprises the archaeological remains of a monastic and scholastic institution dating from the 3rd century BCE to the 13th century CE. It includes stupas, shrines, viharas (residential and educational buildings) and important art works in stucco, stone and metal. Nalanda stands out as the most ancient university of the Indian subcontinent. It engaged in the organized transmission of knowledge over an uninterrupted period of 800 years. The historical development of the site testifies to the development of Buddhism into a religion and the flourishing of monastic and educational traditions. Its history goes back to the days of Buddha and Mahavira in the 6th century BC. The town was home to Nalanda Mahavihara, a monastic university of international repute. Both Buddha and Mahavira often stayed at Nalanda during the rainy season. Buddhist scriptures reveal that they once stayed at Nalanda at the same time, but there is no record of them meeting one another.
Incorrect
Solution: C
NALANDA
The Nalanda Mahavihara site is in Bihar. It comprises the archaeological remains of a monastic and scholastic institution dating from the 3rd century BCE to the 13th century CE. It includes stupas, shrines, viharas (residential and educational buildings) and important art works in stucco, stone and metal. Nalanda stands out as the most ancient university of the Indian subcontinent. It engaged in the organized transmission of knowledge over an uninterrupted period of 800 years. The historical development of the site testifies to the development of Buddhism into a religion and the flourishing of monastic and educational traditions. Its history goes back to the days of Buddha and Mahavira in the 6th century BC. The town was home to Nalanda Mahavihara, a monastic university of international repute. Both Buddha and Mahavira often stayed at Nalanda during the rainy season. Buddhist scriptures reveal that they once stayed at Nalanda at the same time, but there is no record of them meeting one another.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding credit default swap (CDS)
- A credit default swap (CDS) is a type of derivative that transfers the credit exposure of fixed income products.
- In a credit default swap contract, the buyer pays an ongoing premium similar to the payments on an insurance policy. In exchange, the seller agrees to pay the security’s value and interest payments if a default occurs.
- Credit default swaps can be used for speculation, hedging, or as a form of arbitrage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
A credit default swap (CDS) is a financial derivative that allows an investor to swap or offset their credit risk with that of another investor. To swap the risk of default, the lender buys a CDS from another investor who agrees to reimburse them if the borrower defaults.
- A credit default swap (CDS) is a type of derivative that transfers the credit exposure of fixed income products.
- In a credit default swap contract, the buyer pays an ongoing premium similar to the payments on an insurance policy. In exchange, the seller agrees to pay the security’s value and interest payments if a default occurs.
- Credit default swaps can be used for speculation, hedging, or as a form of arbitrage.
- Credit default swaps played a role in both the 2008 Great Recession and the 2010 European Sovereign Debt Crisis.
Incorrect
Solution: D
A credit default swap (CDS) is a financial derivative that allows an investor to swap or offset their credit risk with that of another investor. To swap the risk of default, the lender buys a CDS from another investor who agrees to reimburse them if the borrower defaults.
- A credit default swap (CDS) is a type of derivative that transfers the credit exposure of fixed income products.
- In a credit default swap contract, the buyer pays an ongoing premium similar to the payments on an insurance policy. In exchange, the seller agrees to pay the security’s value and interest payments if a default occurs.
- Credit default swaps can be used for speculation, hedging, or as a form of arbitrage.
- Credit default swaps played a role in both the 2008 Great Recession and the 2010 European Sovereign Debt Crisis.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsYoung Professional visa scheme in an initiative of
Correct
Solution: A
India-UK young professional visa scheme
India and the UK have launched the Young Professionals Scheme, which allows Indian nationals aged 18-30 with a bachelor’s degree, £2,530 in savings and a clear criminal record to live and work in the UK for up to two years. A total of 3,000 visas will be issued annually to successful candidates under the scheme, and the visa application process is free of charge. The UK also has a similar programme for British nationals visiting India for two-year periods.
Incorrect
Solution: A
India-UK young professional visa scheme
India and the UK have launched the Young Professionals Scheme, which allows Indian nationals aged 18-30 with a bachelor’s degree, £2,530 in savings and a clear criminal record to live and work in the UK for up to two years. A total of 3,000 visas will be issued annually to successful candidates under the scheme, and the visa application process is free of charge. The UK also has a similar programme for British nationals visiting India for two-year periods.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsParshuram Kund Festival was organized in the state of
Correct
Solution: D
Parshuram Kund Festival
Context: The Prime Minister has shared glimpses of Parshuram Kund Festival in Arunachal Pradesh.
About Parshuram Kund:
A Hindu pilgrimage on the Brahmaputra plateau in the lower reaches of the Lohit River.
Religious importance: Dedicated to sage Parshuram
Government Initiatives:- The project “Development of Parasuram Kund, Lohit District Arunachal Pradesh” was approved by the Ministry of Tourism in January 2021.
- The project is sanctioned under the Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive’(PRASHAD) Scheme of Ministry of Tourism.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Parshuram Kund Festival
Context: The Prime Minister has shared glimpses of Parshuram Kund Festival in Arunachal Pradesh.
About Parshuram Kund:
A Hindu pilgrimage on the Brahmaputra plateau in the lower reaches of the Lohit River.
Religious importance: Dedicated to sage Parshuram
Government Initiatives:- The project “Development of Parasuram Kund, Lohit District Arunachal Pradesh” was approved by the Ministry of Tourism in January 2021.
- The project is sanctioned under the Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive’(PRASHAD) Scheme of Ministry of Tourism.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Environment Education, Awareness and Training (EEAT)
- It is a Centrally Sponsored scheme implemented by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- Its objective is to promote environmental awareness and mobilize students’ participation for environment conservation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Environment Education, Awareness and Training (EEAT) is a Central Sector scheme implemented by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change with the objective, inter alia, to promote environmental awareness and mobilize students’ participation for environment conservation. Grants-in-aid were sanctioned under this Scheme for two major programmes, namely, National Green Corps (NGC) Programme and National Nature Camping Programme (NNCP).
Under the NGC programme, more than 1 lakh Eco-clubs have been formed in schools and colleges to educate students and to spread awareness on environmental issues. A financial assistance of Rs 5,000/- per Eco-club used to be provided under this programme with a ceiling of 500 school Eco-clubs per district and 100 college Eco-clubs per State. Activities undertaken by Eco-clubs included plantation drives, cleanliness drives, celebration of important environmental days, awareness and capacity building on solid waste management through waste segregation, green pledges, etc.
Further, under NNCP, organization of field visits/ nature camps in different Protected Areas/ Nature Parks/ Tiger Reserves of the country for students were supported and activities like preparing checklist of flora and fauna spotted in the nature trail, bird watching, trekking, green pledges, group discussions, sharing of experiences, etc. were undertaken during these camps. These camps provided ‘nature experience’ to students and had huge potential to trigger their sensitivity towards nature and its conservation. A financial assistance not exceeding Rs. 2,000/- per student for a camp of 2 nights and 3 days used to be provided under this programme, with a ceiling of 20 camps per State/ Union Territory.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Environment Education, Awareness and Training (EEAT) is a Central Sector scheme implemented by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change with the objective, inter alia, to promote environmental awareness and mobilize students’ participation for environment conservation. Grants-in-aid were sanctioned under this Scheme for two major programmes, namely, National Green Corps (NGC) Programme and National Nature Camping Programme (NNCP).
Under the NGC programme, more than 1 lakh Eco-clubs have been formed in schools and colleges to educate students and to spread awareness on environmental issues. A financial assistance of Rs 5,000/- per Eco-club used to be provided under this programme with a ceiling of 500 school Eco-clubs per district and 100 college Eco-clubs per State. Activities undertaken by Eco-clubs included plantation drives, cleanliness drives, celebration of important environmental days, awareness and capacity building on solid waste management through waste segregation, green pledges, etc.
Further, under NNCP, organization of field visits/ nature camps in different Protected Areas/ Nature Parks/ Tiger Reserves of the country for students were supported and activities like preparing checklist of flora and fauna spotted in the nature trail, bird watching, trekking, green pledges, group discussions, sharing of experiences, etc. were undertaken during these camps. These camps provided ‘nature experience’ to students and had huge potential to trigger their sensitivity towards nature and its conservation. A financial assistance not exceeding Rs. 2,000/- per student for a camp of 2 nights and 3 days used to be provided under this programme, with a ceiling of 20 camps per State/ Union Territory.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsThe unemployment which is associated with the inadequacy of productive capacity to create enough jobs for all those able and willing to work refers to
Correct
Solution: C
The type of unemployment associated with the inadequacy of productive capacity to create enough jobs for all those able and willing to work is referred to as structural unemployment.
Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between the skills and qualifications of available workers and the requirements of available jobs in the economy. This can occur due to various reasons, such as changes in technology, shifts in consumer demand, or globalization. As a result, workers who lack the necessary skills or qualifications to fill available jobs remain unemployed.
Unlike cyclical unemployment, which is a result of fluctuations in the business cycle and tends to be temporary, structural unemployment can persist for long periods. Addressing structural unemployment requires policies that focus on improving education and training programs, increasing labor market flexibility, and encouraging economic growth and diversification.
Frictional unemployment, on the other hand, refers to the temporary unemployment that occurs as workers move between jobs or enter the labor force for the first time. It is usually short-term and is considered a natural part of the job search process.
Open unemployment is a term used in some countries to refer to the total number of unemployed people, including those who are actively seeking work and those who are not. It is not a specific type of unemployment but rather a measure of the overall unemployment rate in a given country or region.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The type of unemployment associated with the inadequacy of productive capacity to create enough jobs for all those able and willing to work is referred to as structural unemployment.
Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between the skills and qualifications of available workers and the requirements of available jobs in the economy. This can occur due to various reasons, such as changes in technology, shifts in consumer demand, or globalization. As a result, workers who lack the necessary skills or qualifications to fill available jobs remain unemployed.
Unlike cyclical unemployment, which is a result of fluctuations in the business cycle and tends to be temporary, structural unemployment can persist for long periods. Addressing structural unemployment requires policies that focus on improving education and training programs, increasing labor market flexibility, and encouraging economic growth and diversification.
Frictional unemployment, on the other hand, refers to the temporary unemployment that occurs as workers move between jobs or enter the labor force for the first time. It is usually short-term and is considered a natural part of the job search process.
Open unemployment is a term used in some countries to refer to the total number of unemployed people, including those who are actively seeking work and those who are not. It is not a specific type of unemployment but rather a measure of the overall unemployment rate in a given country or region.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsThe violation of the rights and immunities of the Members of Parliament or disrespect to them is punishable under the Act of Parliament. In this case, what motion is moved and under which rule ?
Correct
Solution: B
The violation of the rights and immunities of Members of Parliament (MPs) or disrespect to them is considered a breach of privilege, and a Privilege Motion can be moved in Parliament to address such an issue.
Under the Indian parliamentary system, privilege refers to the rights and immunities that are enjoyed by MPs and the two Houses of Parliament collectively, as well as to the power to punish those who breach these privileges. The Indian Constitution grants certain privileges to MPs, such as freedom of speech and immunity from arrest in civil cases during the session of Parliament.
Rule No. 222 in Chapter XX of the Lok Sabha Rule Book and Rule 187 in Chapter XVI of the Rajya Sabha Rule Book deal with the Privilege Motion. These rules provide for the procedure to be followed when a breach of privilege is alleged, including the manner in which the motion should be moved, debated, and voted upon. The motion must be supported by a detailed statement of the facts and arguments justifying the breach of privilege.
If the Speaker/Chairman finds the breach of privilege to be valid, they may refer the matter to the Privileges Committee of the House for further examination and report. The committee may then recommend appropriate action against the offender, which could include censure, admonition, or even imprisonment.
In contrast, Guillotine Motion, Censure and Cut Motion, and Call-Attention Motion are other types of motions that are moved for different purposes and under different rules in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha Rule Books. The Guillotine Motion relates to the closure of the debate on a particular section of a bill or the entire bill. Censure and Cut Motion is moved to express disapproval of the government’s policy or to reduce a specific amount of expenditure in the budget. The Call-Attention Motion is moved to draw the attention of the government to a matter of urgent public importance.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The violation of the rights and immunities of Members of Parliament (MPs) or disrespect to them is considered a breach of privilege, and a Privilege Motion can be moved in Parliament to address such an issue.
Under the Indian parliamentary system, privilege refers to the rights and immunities that are enjoyed by MPs and the two Houses of Parliament collectively, as well as to the power to punish those who breach these privileges. The Indian Constitution grants certain privileges to MPs, such as freedom of speech and immunity from arrest in civil cases during the session of Parliament.
Rule No. 222 in Chapter XX of the Lok Sabha Rule Book and Rule 187 in Chapter XVI of the Rajya Sabha Rule Book deal with the Privilege Motion. These rules provide for the procedure to be followed when a breach of privilege is alleged, including the manner in which the motion should be moved, debated, and voted upon. The motion must be supported by a detailed statement of the facts and arguments justifying the breach of privilege.
If the Speaker/Chairman finds the breach of privilege to be valid, they may refer the matter to the Privileges Committee of the House for further examination and report. The committee may then recommend appropriate action against the offender, which could include censure, admonition, or even imprisonment.
In contrast, Guillotine Motion, Censure and Cut Motion, and Call-Attention Motion are other types of motions that are moved for different purposes and under different rules in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha Rule Books. The Guillotine Motion relates to the closure of the debate on a particular section of a bill or the entire bill. Censure and Cut Motion is moved to express disapproval of the government’s policy or to reduce a specific amount of expenditure in the budget. The Call-Attention Motion is moved to draw the attention of the government to a matter of urgent public importance.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsThe payment method often used in international trade which offers the exporter the best assurance of being paid for the products sold internationally is
Correct
Solution: D
The payment method that often offers the exporter the best assurance of being paid for the products sold internationally is the “Letter of Credit”.
A Letter of Credit (LC) is a payment method commonly used in international trade transactions. It is a guarantee issued by a bank on behalf of the buyer (importer) to the seller (exporter) that payment will be made once certain conditions are met. The LC acts as a safeguard for both parties, ensuring that the exporter is paid and the importer receives the goods as agreed.
Under a Letter of Credit, the importer’s bank (issuing bank) undertakes to pay the exporter’s bank (advising bank) upon presentation of certain documents, such as a bill of lading, commercial invoice, and other relevant shipping documents. These documents serve as proof that the goods have been shipped as agreed and are in compliance with the terms of the LC.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The payment method that often offers the exporter the best assurance of being paid for the products sold internationally is the “Letter of Credit”.
A Letter of Credit (LC) is a payment method commonly used in international trade transactions. It is a guarantee issued by a bank on behalf of the buyer (importer) to the seller (exporter) that payment will be made once certain conditions are met. The LC acts as a safeguard for both parties, ensuring that the exporter is paid and the importer receives the goods as agreed.
Under a Letter of Credit, the importer’s bank (issuing bank) undertakes to pay the exporter’s bank (advising bank) upon presentation of certain documents, such as a bill of lading, commercial invoice, and other relevant shipping documents. These documents serve as proof that the goods have been shipped as agreed and are in compliance with the terms of the LC.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding SAFAR :
- It is a very advanced air quality and weather forecast system.
- It was developed indigenously by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune.
- It will not measure sun’s UV-Index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Correct
Solution: C
The SAFAR (System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting And Research) system was recently inaugurated in India. It is an advanced air quality and weather forecasting system developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune.
SAFAR is an advanced system that provides real-time air quality data, as well as weather forecast and research information. It is designed to provide location-specific air quality information for various cities in India and help in the formulation of effective air quality management plans.
SAFAR was developed indigenously by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune. The system is a result of collaborative efforts between IITM, Indian Meteorological Department (IMD), Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), and National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF).
The SAFAR system does measure the sun’s UV-Index, which is a measure of the intensity of ultraviolet radiation from the sun. The system provides information on various atmospheric parameters such as particulate matter (PM), nitrogen oxides (NOx), carbon monoxide (CO), and ozone (O3), in addition to weather-related parameters such as temperature, humidity, wind speed, and direction.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The SAFAR (System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting And Research) system was recently inaugurated in India. It is an advanced air quality and weather forecasting system developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune.
SAFAR is an advanced system that provides real-time air quality data, as well as weather forecast and research information. It is designed to provide location-specific air quality information for various cities in India and help in the formulation of effective air quality management plans.
SAFAR was developed indigenously by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune. The system is a result of collaborative efforts between IITM, Indian Meteorological Department (IMD), Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), and National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF).
The SAFAR system does measure the sun’s UV-Index, which is a measure of the intensity of ultraviolet radiation from the sun. The system provides information on various atmospheric parameters such as particulate matter (PM), nitrogen oxides (NOx), carbon monoxide (CO), and ozone (O3), in addition to weather-related parameters such as temperature, humidity, wind speed, and direction.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements :
- Population structure is analysed in terms of age and sex groupings.
- Cartographically the population structure is represented by population pyramids.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
Correct
Solution: C
Population structure is a term used in demography to describe the composition of a population in terms of age and sex groupings. The age and sex distribution of a population is an important factor in understanding the social, economic, and health characteristics of a population.
Population structure is commonly represented using population pyramids, which are graphical representations of the age and sex distribution of a population. Population pyramids are typically presented as bar charts, with each bar representing a different age group and the width of the bar representing the percentage of the population in that age group. The bars on either side of the pyramid represent males and females, respectively.
Population pyramids are useful in providing a visual representation of the age and sex distribution of a population, which can help in the analysis of demographic trends and patterns. For example, a population pyramid with a broad base and narrow top indicates a high birth rate and a relatively young population, while a pyramid with a narrow base and broad top indicates a low birth rate and an aging population
Incorrect
Solution: C
Population structure is a term used in demography to describe the composition of a population in terms of age and sex groupings. The age and sex distribution of a population is an important factor in understanding the social, economic, and health characteristics of a population.
Population structure is commonly represented using population pyramids, which are graphical representations of the age and sex distribution of a population. Population pyramids are typically presented as bar charts, with each bar representing a different age group and the width of the bar representing the percentage of the population in that age group. The bars on either side of the pyramid represent males and females, respectively.
Population pyramids are useful in providing a visual representation of the age and sex distribution of a population, which can help in the analysis of demographic trends and patterns. For example, a population pyramid with a broad base and narrow top indicates a high birth rate and a relatively young population, while a pyramid with a narrow base and broad top indicates a low birth rate and an aging population
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsThere are 3 inspectors who are solving the case. They have probability of solving the case 1/2, 1/3 and 1/4 respectively. What is the probability of the case getting solved?
Correct
Solution: d) 3/4
Explanation:
The case can be solved by only one officer or only two officers or all three officers.
The case will be unsolved only when all three officers fail to solve.
Probability of three officers failing is (1 – (1/2)), (1 – (1/3)) and (1 – (1/4)) respectively
i.e. 1/2, 2/3 and 3/4 respectively.
The probability of case remains unsolved = (1/2) × (2/3) × (3/4) = 1/4.
Thus, the probability of case getting solved = 1 – (1/4) = 3/4.
Incorrect
Solution: d) 3/4
Explanation:
The case can be solved by only one officer or only two officers or all three officers.
The case will be unsolved only when all three officers fail to solve.
Probability of three officers failing is (1 – (1/2)), (1 – (1/3)) and (1 – (1/4)) respectively
i.e. 1/2, 2/3 and 3/4 respectively.
The probability of case remains unsolved = (1/2) × (2/3) × (3/4) = 1/4.
Thus, the probability of case getting solved = 1 – (1/4) = 3/4.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsA box contains 10 white balls and 6 black balls. 2 balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that they are of the same colour?
Correct
Correct Answer: A) 1/2
Explanation:
10C2 = 10*9/2 = 45
6C2 = 6*5/2 = 15
16C2 = 16*15/2 = 120
P = 45+15/120 = 60/120 = ½Incorrect
Correct Answer: A) 1/2
Explanation:
10C2 = 10*9/2 = 45
6C2 = 6*5/2 = 15
16C2 = 16*15/2 = 120
P = 45+15/120 = 60/120 = ½ -
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsIn how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘DRASTIC’ be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?
Correct
Correct Answer: C) 1440
Explanation:
Total letters = D, R, A, S, T, I, C (7)
Total vowels = A, I (2)
∴ Required no. of ways = 6! × 2!
= 1440Incorrect
Correct Answer: C) 1440
Explanation:
Total letters = D, R, A, S, T, I, C (7)
Total vowels = A, I (2)
∴ Required no. of ways = 6! × 2!
= 1440 -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsThe Delhi High Court recently ruled against discrimination in health insurance by United India Insurance Company involving a person with a heart condition which was perceived to be a genetic disorder. The court held, “Discrimination in health insurance against individuals based on their genetic disposition or genetic heritage, in the absence of appropriate genetic testing and laying down of intelligible differentia, is unconstitutional.”
While the specific features of this case may depend on clauses in the original policy, this is a critical court decision around the broader question of discrimination on the basis of one’s genetic predisposition. As technology for genetic testing and tools to gather family history and compile them in databases become cheaper and more widespread, it becomes imperative that due social and ethical consideration be given to genetic discrimination as the implications are far-reaching and can affect everyone.
What is the most logical and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage?
Correct
Ans. B) There is a need to formulate clear guidelines on what constitutes genetic discrimination
A is wrong as the court case has shown that genetic discrimination has had reasonable restriction imposed on it. C is wrong as the passage focuses on the need for debate on usage of this tool. B is correct as the passage highlights that the issue is complicated and needs wider debate and formulation of guidelines to avoid controversy.
Incorrect
Ans. B) There is a need to formulate clear guidelines on what constitutes genetic discrimination
A is wrong as the court case has shown that genetic discrimination has had reasonable restriction imposed on it. C is wrong as the passage focuses on the need for debate on usage of this tool. B is correct as the passage highlights that the issue is complicated and needs wider debate and formulation of guidelines to avoid controversy.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following assumption(s) is/are correct based on your understanding of the passage?
- Genetic testing technology has progressed dramatically
- Genetic discrimination is uncalled for
Correct
Ans. A) 1 only
Statement A is correct as due to the progress in technology, its application is causing problems. Statement B is wrong as the passage does not take any moral stand. Moreover 2 is not an assumption but a view.
Incorrect
Ans. A) 1 only
Statement A is correct as due to the progress in technology, its application is causing problems. Statement B is wrong as the passage does not take any moral stand. Moreover 2 is not an assumption but a view.
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