DAY – 24 (InstaTest-24): Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2023: Topic – POLITY, Subject-wise Test 22,23 , Textbook-wise Test 10,12, 23 revision and October & November2022 CA (Revision)

Solution: B

Negative liberty is the absence of obstacles, barriers or constraints. One has negative liberty to the extent that actions are available to one in this negative sense. Positive liberty is the possibility of acting — or the fact of acting — in such a way as to take control of one’s life and realize one’s fundamental purposes. While negative liberty is usually attributed to individual agents, positive liberty is sometimes attributed to collectivities, or to individuals considered primarily as members of given collectivities.

The idea of distinguishing between a negative and a positive sense of the term ‘liberty’ goes back at least to Kant, and was examined and defended in depth by Isaiah Berlin in the 1950s and ’60s.

Solution: B

Fundamental rights are the rights of a country’s citizens that are stated in the constitution and enforced by the law. Human rights, on the other hand, are the safeguards that a human being seeks in order to live in dignity and equality. Legal rights, on the other hand, are the government’s protections for residents of a particular state. Fundamental rights only include certain rights that are fundamental to a normal existence. Human rights, on the opposite, include certain rights that are fundamental to real life and that are unconditional, i.e. that can not be excluded. Legal rights, on the other hand, are neither fundamental to a normal life nor to absolute life.

Legal rights apply to a collection of rights formulated within a government’s legal structure. They are granted to the people of that specific state as privileges.

• If violated, these rights will be dealt with by either of the ordinary courts that contradict the other two rights.

In general, an ordinary right imposes a corresponding obligation on another person (and, in some circumstances, the state), but a constitutional right is a right that a citizen has against the state. Fundamental rights are protected by the executive, legislature, and judiciary from invasion. Limitations upon all the governmental authorities are related to all human rights.

Solution: D

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:

1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).

The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle, which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).

The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject-matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A. The amended directive requires the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to cooperative societies. It requires the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies (Article 43B).

Solution: B

Protection of Interests of Minorities

Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of India having a distinct language, script or culture of its own, shall have the right to conserve the same. Further, no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, or language.

The first provision protects the right of a group while the second provision guarantees the right of a citizen as an individual irrespective of the community to which he belongs. Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. However, the Supreme Court held that the scope of this article is not necessarily restricted to minorities only, as it is commonly assumed to be. This is because of the use of words ‘section of citizens’ in the Article that include minorities as well as majority.

The Supreme Court also held that the right to conserve the language includes the right to agitate for the protection of the language. Hence, the political speeches or promises made for the conservation of the language of a section of the citizens does not amount to corrupt practice under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Solution: A

Article 2 empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the Union of India, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit’. Thus, Article 2 grants two powers to the Parliament: (a) the power to admit into the Union of India new states; and (b) the power to establish new states. The first refers to the admission of states which are already in existence, while the second refers to the establishment of states which were not in existence before.

Notably, Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India. Article 3, on the other hand, relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India. In other words, Article 3 deals with the internal re-adjustment inter se of the territories of the constituent states of the Union of India.

Moreover, the Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process.

Solution: B

The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:

1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
2. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
3. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
4. Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
5. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
6. After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
7. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
8. After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.

Solution: D

Distinction Between Articles 358 and 359

The differences between Articles 358 and 359 can be summarized as follows:

1. Article 358 is confined to Fundamental Rights under Article 19 only whereas Article 359 extends to all those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order.
2. Article 358 automatically suspends the fundamental rights under Article 19 as soon as the emergency is declared. On the other hand, Article 359 does not automatically suspend any Fundamental Right. It only empowers the president to suspend the enforcement of the specified Fundamental Rights.
3. Article 358 operates only in case of External Emergency (that is, when the emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression) and not in the case of Internal Emergency (i.e., when the Emergency is declared on the ground of armed rebellion). Article 359, on the other hand, operates in case of both External Emergency as well as Internal Emergency.
4. Article 358 suspends Fundamental Rights under Article 19 for the entire duration of Emergency while Article 359 suspends the enforcement of Fundamental Rights for a period specified by the president which may either be the entire duration of Emergency or a shorter period.
5. Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas Article 359 may extend to the entire country or a part of it.
6. Article 358 suspends Article 19 completely while Article 359 does not empower the suspension of the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21.
7. Article 358 enables the State to make any law or take any executive action inconsistent with Fundamental Rights under Article 19 while Article 359 enables the State to make any law or take any executive action inconsistent with those Fundamental Rights whose enforcement is suspended by the Presidential Order.

Solution: B

Under the Constitution of India, there shall always be a President of India (Article 52 of the Constitution). He holds the highest elective office in the country and is elected in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and the Presidential and vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952. The said Act is supplemented by the provisions of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, 1974, and the said Act under Rules form a complete Code regulating all aspects of conduct of elections to the Office of the President.

Who conducts the election to the Office of President of India?

Answer: Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the authority to conduct elections to the Office of President is vested in the Election Commission of India.

What electoral system/process is followed for the election to the office of the President?

Answer: As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote and the voting at such election shall be by secret ballot.

What are the Qualifications required by a candidate to contest the election to the Office of the President of India?

Answer: Under Article 58, a candidate should fulfill the following eligibility conditions to contest the election to the Office of President: –
1.    Must be a citizen of India,

2.  Must have completed 35 years of age,
3.  Must be eligible to be a member of the Lok Sabha,

4.    Should not be holding any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State or under any local or other authority subject to the control of any of the said Governments.
However, the candidate may be holding the office of President or Vice-President or Governor of any State or Ministers of the Union or any State and shall be eligible to contest election.

Solution: D

The veto power enjoyed by the executive in modern states can be classified into the following four types:

1. Absolute veto, that is, withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature.
2. Qualified veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority.
3. Suspensive veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority.
4. Pocket veto, that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature.

Of the above four, the President of India is vested with three– absolute veto, suspensive veto and pocket veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian President; it is possessed by the American President.

Solution: D

The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president. However, this does not imply that the president is free to appoint any one as the Prime Minister.

The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President. However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss him.

Solution: C

Article 75–Other Provisions as to Ministers

1. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
2. The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This provision was added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.
3. A member of either house of Parliament belonging to any political party who is disqualified on the ground of defection shall also be disqualified to be appointed as a minister. This provision was also added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.
4. The ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
5. The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
6. The President shall administer the oaths of office and secrecy to a minister.
7. A minister who is not a member of the Parliament (either house) for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a minister.
8. The salaries and allowances of ministers shall be determined by the Parliament.

Article 78–Duties of Prime Minister

It shall be the duty of the Prime Minister

1. To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation
2. To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the President may call for
3. If the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council

Solution: B

The following are the features of Cabinet Committees:

1. They are extra-constitutional in emergence. In other words, they are not mentioned in the Constitution. However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment.

2. They are of two types–standing and ad hoc. The former are of a permanent nature while the latter are of a temporary nature. The ad hoc committees are constituted from time to time to deal with special problems. They are disbanded after their task is completed.
3. They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition varies from time to time.
4. Their membership varies from three to eight. They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership.

Solution: C

The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parliament. Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951) provided that the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years.

Duration of Lok Sabha

Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha is not a continuing chamber. Its normal term is five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections, after which it automatically dissolves.

Solution: D

The Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951).

1. He must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency. This is same in the case of both, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha. The requirement that a candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha from a particular state should be an elector in that particular state was dispensed with in 2003. In 2006, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of this change.

2. He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe in any state or union territory, if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. However, a member of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a seat not reserved for them.

Solution: A

The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members (as soon as may be, after its first sitting). Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy. The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.

Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok Sabha. However, he has to vacate his office earlier in any of the following three cases:

1. if he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha;
2. if he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker; and
3. if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all then members of the Lok Sabha. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days’ advance notice.

When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration of the House, he cannot preside at the sitting of the House, though he may be present. However, he can speak and take part in the proceedings of the House at such a time and vote in the first instance, though not in the case of an equality of votes. It should be noted here that, whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate his office and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets.

Solution: B

Mudumalai Tiger Reserve is located in the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu state spread over 688.59 sq.km. at the tri-junction of three states, viz, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu and it plays an unique role by forming part of the Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, the first Biosphere Reserve in India, declared during 1986. It has a common boundary with Wyanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) on the West, Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka) on the North, and the Nilgiris North Division on the South and East and Gudalur Forest Division on the South West, together forming a large conservation landscape for flagship species such as Tiger and Asian Elephant. Reception Centre is located at Theppakadu. The name Mudumalai means ” the ancient hill range”. Indeed, it is as old as 65 million years when Western Ghats were formed.

Solution: D

One of the key components of the National Rural Health Mission is to provide every village in the country with a trained female community health activist ASHA or Accredited Social Health Activist. Selected from the village itself and accountable to it, the ASHA will be trained to work as an interface between the community and the public health system. Following are the key components of ASHA:

• ASHA must primarily be a woman resident of the village married/ widowed/ divorced, preferably in the age group of 25 to 45 years.
• She should be a literate woman with due preference in selection to those who are qualified up to 10 standard wherever they are interested and available in good numbers. This may be relaxed only if no suitable person with this qualification is available.
• ASHA will be chosen through a rigorous process of selection involving various community groups, self-help groups, Anganwadi Institutions, the Block Nodal officer, District Nodal officer, the village Health Committee and the Gram Sabha.
• Capacity building of ASHA is being seen as a continuous process. ASHA will have to undergo series of training episodes to acquire the necessary knowledge, skills and confidence for performing her spelled out roles.
• The ASHAs will receive performance-based incentives for promoting universal immunization, referral and escort services for Reproductive & Child Health (RCH) and other healthcare programmes, and construction of household toilets.
• Empowered with knowledge and a drug-kit to deliver first-contact healthcare, every ASHA is expected to be a fountainhead of community participation in public health programmes in her village.
• ASHA will provide information to the community on determinants of health such as nutrition, basic sanitation & hygienic practices, healthy living and working conditions, information on existing health services and the need for timely utilisation of health & family welfare services.
• She will counsel women on birth preparedness, importance of safe delivery, breast-feeding and complementary feeding, immunization, contraception and prevention of common infections including Reproductive Tract Infection/Sexually Transmitted Infections (RTIs/STIs) and care of the young child.

Solution: A

The poverty ratio in India has been measured from an exogenously determined poverty line quantified in terms of per capita consumption expenditure over a month and the class distribution of persons obtained from the large sample survey of consumer expenditure data of the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). Households with consumption expenditures below the poverty line are said to be “Below the Poverty Line (BPL)” and deemed poor. Consumption is measured in terms of a collection of goods and services known as reference Poverty Line Baskets (PLB).

Thus, estimation of poverty in India has been based on two critical components:

• Information on the consumption expenditures and its distribution across households is provided by the NSS consumption expenditure surveys;
• These expenditures by households are evaluated with reference to a given poverty line.

Data Collection Method for NSSO Expenditure Survey

 Uniform Resource Period (URP): Till 1993-94, the poverty line was based on URP data, which involved asking people about their consumption expenditure across a 30-day recall period, i.e, information was based on the recall of consumption expenditure in the previous 30 days.

 Mixed Reference Period (MRP): From 1999-2000 onwards, the NSSO switched to an MRP method which measures consumption of five low-frequency items (clothing, footwear, durables, education and institutional health expenditure) over the previous year, and all other items over the previous 30 days.

Solution: A

Know the Wangala Festival
Wangala Festival of Meghalaya is a most popular festival among the Garos of Meghalaya, India. Wangala Festival is a harvest festival held in honour of Saljong, the Sun-god of fertility. The celebration of the Wangala Festival marks the end of a period of toil, which brings good output of the fields. It also signifies the onset of winter.

The Ritual in the Wangala Festival

Also known as a 100 drums festival, Wangala Festival is the occasion when the tribals offer sacrifices to please their main deity Saljong – the Sun God. It is generally celebrated for two days and sometimes continues for even a week. The ceremony performed on first day is known as “Ragula” is performed inside the house of the chief. On the second day is known as “Kakkat”. People young and old dressed in their colourful costumes with feathered headgears dance to the tune of music played on long oval-shaped drums. This is the occasion to relax and for days the hills and valleys echoes with the extraordinary beat of drums. The popular dance forms are performed during the festival, itself has certain subtle variations, the main motif being a queue of two parallel lines – one of men and other of women clad in their festive fineries. Young and old join the festivities with equal enthusiasm. While the men beat the drums, the line moves forward in rhythmic accord. The ‘orchestra’ of men includes drums, gong and flutes, punctuated by the sonorous music of an primitive flute made of buffalo horn. There is a notable sense of tempo in the performers, young and old, and the energetic dance leaves a lasting impression upon the beholder.

Basically, the Wangala Festival is a way to preserve and promote the cultural identity of Garos in Meghalaya. This is one way to exhibit the culture and tradition of the region.

Solution: A

The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (In short, ‘The Act’) is a benevolent social legislation that lays down the rights of the consumers and provides there for promotion and protection of the rights of the consumers. The first and the only Act of its kind in India, it has enabled ordinary consumers to secure less expensive and often speedy redressal of their grievances.

The Act mandates establishment of Consumer Protection Councils at the Centre as well as in each State and District, with a view to promoting consumer awareness. The Central Council is headed by Minister In-charge of the Department of Consumer Affairs in the Central Government and the State Councils by the Minister In-charge of the Consumer Affairs.

The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986. Its head office is in New Delhi. The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Section 21 of Consumer Protection Act, 1986 posits that the National Commission shall have jurisdiction: – to entertain a complaint valued more than two crore and also have Appellate and Revisional jurisdiction from the orders of State Commissions or the District fora as the case may be.

Solution: D

The ISA is guided by its ‘Towards 1000’ strategy which aims to mobilise USD 1,000 billion of investments in solar energy solutions by 2030, while delivering energy access to 1,000 million people using clean energy solutions and resulting in installation of 1,000 GW of solar energy capacity. This would help mitigate global solar emissions to the tune of 1,000 million tonnes of CO2 every year.

For meeting these goals, the ISA takes a programmatic approach. Currently, the ISA has 9 comprehensive programmes, each focusing on a distinct application that could help scale deployment of solar energy solutions. Activities under the programmes focuses on 4 priority areas – Analytics & Advocacy, Capacity Building, Programmatic Support, and readiness and enabling activities, that help create a favourable environment for solar energy investments to take root in the country.

Solution: A

About NATGRID:

1. It is an ambitious counter terrorism programme.
2. It will utilise technologies like Big Data and analytics to study and analyse the huge amounts of data from various intelligence and enforcement agencies to help track suspected terrorists and prevent terrorist attacks.
3. It will connect, in different phases, data providing organisations and users besides developing a legal structure through which information can be accessed by the law enforcement agencies.
4. NATGRID is a post Mumbai 26/11 attack measure.

Who can access the data?

The database would be accessible to authorised persons from 11 agencies on a case-to-case basis, and only for professional investigations into suspected cases of terrorism.

NATGRID has also access to the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) database of the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB),

NATGRID is exempted from the Right to Information Act, 2005 under Section 24.

Section 24 in The Right To Information Act, 2005

24. Act not to apply to certain organizations.—

(1) Nothing contained in this Act shall apply to the intelligence and security organisations specified in the Second Schedule, being organisations established by the Central Government or any information furnished by such organisations to that Government: Provided that the information pertaining to the allegations of corruption and human rights violations shall not be excluded under this sub‑section: Provided further that in the case of information sought for is in respect of allegations of violation of human rights, the information shall only be provided after the approval of the Central Information Commission, and notwithstanding anything contained in Section 7, such information shall be provided within forty‑five days from the date of the receipt of request.

Solution: D

The International Police Organization, more commonly known as INTERPOL, is the world’s largest police organization with 195 member countries

Solution: A

The Logistics Performance Index is an interactive benchmarking tool created to help countries identify the challenges and opportunities they face in their performance on trade logistics and what they can do to improve their performance.  The LPI 2018 allows for comparisons across 160 countries.

It is being released biannually by World Bank

Solution: A

Chuar rebellion, also known as Jungle Mahal movement was a series of peasant movements between 1766 to 1816 by the tribal inhabitants of the countryside surrounding the Jungle Mahals settlements of Midnapore, Bankura and Manbhum against the rule of the East India Company (EIC).

The Rampa Rebellion of 1922, also known as the Manyam Rebellion, was a tribal uprising led by Alluri Sitarama Raju in Godavari Agency of Madras Presidency, British India. It began in August 1922 and lasted until the capture and killing of Raju in May 1924.

The Namdhari Movement was founded by Baba Ram Singh (1816-1885) in 1857 after becoming a disciple of Balak Singh of the Kuka movement in 1841. The movement was founded on a set of rituals modeled after Guru Gobind Singh’s founding of the Khalsa, with the requirement of wearing the five symbols but carrying a stick instead of a sword.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1863913

Ans. C) Both 1 and 2

1 is true as we in India have been condemned to live in apartments due to paucity of houses with courtyards. 2 is true as the focus of the passage is on explaining the benefits of indigenous architecture which is in line with the demands of Indian climatic conditions.

Ans. B)  To deal with extreme heat in India, it is prudent to take lessons from our architectural history

The passage talks about the advantages of India’s architectural style and the disadvantages of apartments that we occupy currently. Hence the natural corollary is B

1. Correct Answer : A) Rs.3000

 Answer Justification :

Justification:

Let the prices of 3 mobiles be Rs.’x’, Rs.’y’ and Rs.’z’ respectively.

Let the price of the cheapest mobile = Rs. x

The average price of the costliest mobiles = Rs. (y+z)/2

So,

(y+z)/2 = 2x

y+z = 4x …Eq1

The total of prices of 3 mobiles = 3 × Rs.5000 = Rs.15000

i.e. x + y + z =15000 …Eq2

On substituting Eq1 in Eq2, we get

x + 4x = 15000

5x = 15000

x = 3000

Hence, the price of the cheapest mobile = Rs.3000

Correct Answer : A) 51

 Answer Justification :

Justification:

All the prime numbers and composite numbers include all the natural numbers from 1 to 100 except 1 because 1 is neither composite number nor prime number.

Hence, we have to find out the average of numbers from 2 to 100.

The average of numbers from 2 to 100 = (sum of first number and last number)/2

• (2 + 100)/2

• 51

Answer Justification :

Justification:

In 1984, the average age of 100 employees = 50 + 2 = 52 years.

In 1984, the total of ages of 100 employees = 52 × 100 = 5200 years.

In 1984, when 20 employees retire at the age of 60, the total of ages of remaining 80 employees = 5200 – 20 × 60

• 5200 – 1200

• 4000 years

In 1984, the average age of remaining 80 employees = 4000/80 = 50 years

In 1987, the average age of remaining 80 employees = 50 + 3 = 53 years

In 1987, the total of ages of remaining 80 employees = 53 × 80 = 4240 years.

In 1987, the total of ages of 40 new employees = 38 × 40 = 1520 years.

In 1987, the total of ages of all 120 employees = 4240 + 1520 = 5760 years.

In 1987, the average age of all 120 employees = 5760/120 = 48 years.

In 1990, the average age of all 120 employees = 5760/120 = 48 + 3 = 51 years.