DAY – 21 (InstaTest-21): Insta 75 Days Revision Plan-2023: Topic – ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY, Subject-wise Test 14, 15 &26 (Revisioin) , Textbook-wise Test 15, 16, 17 (revision ) and October 2022 CA

Solution: D

National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)

Goal of NCAP is to meet the prescribed annual average ambient air quality standards at all locations in the country in a stipulated timeframe. NCAP targets to achieve reduction in Particulate Matter (PM10) levels up to 40% or achievement of national standards (60 microgram/cubic meter) by 2025-26 in targeted 131 cities of 24 States, taking 2017 as the base year for the comparison of concentration.

A non-attainment city is one whose air did not meet the national ambient air quality standards of 2011 to 2015. The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched for such cities, seeking to bring a 20-30 per cent reduction in pollution levels from PM2.5 and PM10 particles by 2024, using 2017 pollution levels as a base. The goal is non-binding.

“PRANA” – Portal for Regulation of Air-pollution in non-Attainment cities, is a portal for monitoring of implementation of National Clean Air Programme (NCAP). It will support tracking of physical as well as financial status of city air action plan implementation and disseminate information on air quality management efforts under NCAP to public.

Solution: A

Good and bad ozone

In the stratosphere (the layer that is about 15 – 50 kms above the earth’s surface), where ozone exists naturally, it prevents the sun’s ultraviolet rays from reaching the earth and thereby protects life.

In the atmospheric layer closest to the earth’s surface, due to pollution by vehicles, nitrogen oxides and Hydrocarbons levels increase. In the presence of sunlight, these chemicals form ozone.  This ozone can cause health problems like coughing, throat irritation, aggravation of asthma, bronchitis etc. It can also damage crops. While ozone in the stratosphere benefits life on Earth by blocking ultraviolet radiation from the Sun, ozone in the lower atmosphere can trigger health problems.

What is ozone depletion?

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the primary Ozone depleting chemicals. They are used as refrigerants in refrigerators, air conditioners etc. They contain Chlorine.

The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol is an international agreement to gradually reduce the consumption and production of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).

HFCs do not contain chlorine, so they do not cause ozone depletion, and therefore have been replacing CFCs under the Protocol. However, HFCs are powerful greenhouse gases that contribute to climate change, so this amendment adds HFCs to the list of chemicals that countries promise to phase down.

Solution: A

India had signed the Convention on Biological Diversity at Rio de Janeiro providing a framework and foundation for sustainable development and preservation of its biodiversity with a lot of focus on natural resources. Following this ten years later the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was enacted.

The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is a legally binding multilateral environmental agreement that has 194 contracting Parties (Countries) as its members with three objectives – conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of the diversity and ensuring fair and equitable sharing of benefits of such use. It has entered into force on 29th December 1993.

The Biodiversity Act – 2002 primarily addresses issues of conservation, sustainable use of biological resources in the country, issue related to access to genetic resources and associated knowledge and fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from utilization of biological resources to the country and its people.

Section 37 of the Act involves the declaration of Biodiversity Heritage Sites with regard to which the state government is required to notify about the areas of biodiversity heritage in the Official Gazette under this Act. It proceeds to protect the area rich with biodiversity in its natural surroundings.

There is no requirement under the legislation for seeking permission for carrying out research, if it is carried out in India by Indians, as well as under collaborative research projects that have been drawn within the overall policy guidelines formulated by the Central Government vide notification S.O.1911(E) of Government of India.

Solution: A

The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund, supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank. It promotes reducing greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, including efforts to reduce deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.

The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society, and Indigenous Peoples focused on reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, forest carbon stock conservation, the sustainable management of forests, and the enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries, activities commonly referred to as REDD+.

• The FCPF supports REDD+ efforts through its Readiness and Carbon Funds.
• Secretariat and Trustee: The World Bank is the permanent trustee.

The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) and the BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) focus on sustainable forest and land use. These funds guide readiness and implementation of reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+), including testing purchase of REDD+ credits and incentivizing the development and implementation of sustainable land use activities.

Solution: D

The Ramsar Convention is the intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.

The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975.

The Convention works very closely with six global non-governmental organizations (NGOs) which, in Resolution VII.3 (1999), were confirmed in the formal status of International Organization Partners of the Convention. Birdlife International, IUCN – International Union for Conservation of Nature, Wetlands International and WWF have all been associated with the Convention since its beginnings.

In Resolution IX.16 (2005), the Parties endorsed the addition of the International Water Management Institute (IWMI) as the fifth International Organization Partner of the Convention, and in Resolution XII.3 (2015) they approved the status for the Wildfowl & Wetlands Trust (WWT).

Solution: B

Biopile

Biopiles, also known as biocells, bioheaps, biomounds, and compost piles, are used to reduce concentrations of petroleum constituents in excavated soils through the use of biodegradation.

Biopile-mediated bioremediation involves above-ground piling of excavated polluted soil, followed by nutrient amendment, and sometimes aeration to enhance bioremediation by basically increasing microbial activities. The components of this technique are: aeration, irrigation, nutrient and leachate collection systems, and a treatment bed. The use of this particular ex situ technique is increasingly being considered due to its constructive features including cost effectiveness, which enables effective biodegradation on the condition that nutrient, temperature and aeration are adequately controlled.

Solution: D

The EDGE of Exis­tence pro­gramme is a con­ser­va­tion pro­gramme of the Zoo­log­i­cal Soci­ety of Lon­don (launched in Jan­u­ary 2007), and is the only global con­ser­va­tion ini­tia­tive to focus specif­i­cally on threat­ened species that rep­re­sent a sig­nif­i­cant amount of unique evo­lu­tion­ary his­tory. Using a sci­en­tific frame­work to iden­tify the world’s most Evo­lu­tion­ar­ily Dis­tinct and Glob­ally Endan­gered (EDGE) species, the EDGE of Exis­tence pro­gramme high­lights and pro­tects some of the weird­est and most won­der­ful species on the planet. EDGE species have few close rel­a­tives on the tree of life and are often extremely unusual in the way they look, live and behave, as well as in their genetic make-​up. They rep­re­sent a unique and irre­place­able part of the world’s nat­ural her­itage, yet an alarm­ing pro­por­tion are cur­rently slid­ing silently towards extinc­tion unnoticed.

Evolutionarily Distinct and Globally Endangered (EDGE) species are animal species which have a high ‘EDGE score’, a metric combining endangered conservation status with the genetic distinctiveness of the particular taxon. Distinctive species have few closely related species, and EDGE species are often the only surviving member of their genus or even higher taxonomic rank. The extinction of such species would therefore represent a disproportionate loss of unique evolutionary history and biodiversity.

Some EDGE species, such as elephants and pandas, are well-known and already receive considerable conservation attention, but many others, such as the vaquita (the world’s rarest cetacean) the bumblebee bat (arguably the world’s smallest mammal) and the egg-laying long-beaked echidnas, are highly threatened yet remain poorly understood, and are frequently overlooked by existing conservation frameworks.

Solution: C

Habitat and niche are two terms used in ecology to describe living species and their environment.

A habitat is a physical place where an organism is found or living, but niche describes how that particular organism links to its physical and biological environment.

Difference Between Habitat and Niche

Definition

Habitat is the place or part of an ecosystem, occupied by a particular organism.

Niche is role of an organism within its environment or ecosystem.

Nature

Habitat is a physical place.

Niche is a function or activity.

Features

Habitat reflects the living place of an organism.

Niche reflects it biotic and abiotic association with the environment in terms of its diet, reproduction, and other activities.

Solution: C

Where is fly ash used? Currently, fly ash are used annually in a variety of engineering applications. Typical highway engineering applications include: portland cement concrete (PCC), soil and road base stabilization, flowable fills, grouts, structural fill and asphalt filler.

It’s commonly used as structural fill for road construction and fly ash can be used to make bricks, ceramic tiles, plaster, Portland cement, and ready-mix cement.

Other building materials that may contain fly ash include hot mix asphalt, grout fill, wallboard, concrete pipes, and concrete bricks.

What makes fly ash useful? Fly ash is most commonly used as a pozzolan in PCC applications. Pozzolans are siliceous or siliceous and aluminous materials, which in a finely divided form and in the presence of water, react with calcium hydroxide at ordinary temperatures to produce cementitious compounds.

The unique spherical shape and particle size distribution of fly ash make it a good mineral filler in hot mix asphalt (HMA) applications and improves the fluidity of flowable fill and grout. The consistency and abundance of fly ash in many areas present unique opportunities for use in structural fills and other highway applications.

Solution: C

Phosphorus Cycle

Phosphorus plays a central role in aquatic ecosystems and water quality. Unlike carbon and nitrogen, which come primarily from the atmosphere, phosphorus occurs in large amounts as a mineral in phosphate rocks and enters the cycle from erosion and mining activities. This is the nutrient considered to be the main cause of excessive growth of rooted and free-floating microscopic plants in lakes.

The main storage for phosphorus is in the earth’s crust. On land phosphorus is usually found in the form of phosphates. By the process of weathering and erosion phosphates enter rivers and streams that transport them to the ocean.

In the ocean once the phosphorus accumulates on continental shelves in the form of insoluble deposits. After millions of years, the crustal plates rise from the sea floor and expose the phosphates on land. After more time, weathering will release them from rock and the cycle’s geochemical phase begins again.

Solution: D

Kuno National Park is a national park and Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh, India. It derives its name from Kuno River. It was established in 1981 as a wildlife sanctuary with an initial area of 344.686 km2 (133.084 sq mi) in the Sheopur and Morena districts. In 2018, it was given the status of a national park. It is a part of the Khathiar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion.

Kuno National Park of Madhya Pradesh is one the most unique destination for all wildlife lovers and enthusiasts. As soon as one ventures inside this park they experience the exclusive forest of Kardhai, Khair and Salai and one can see wildlife by the dozens foraging across vast meadows. Some grasslands here are bigger than most at Kanha or Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve.

It is widely believed that Kardhai tree, which is found in abundance here, turns green even with just presence of humidity in atmosphere, even before the arrival of first monsoon showers. In many ways it represents the true spirit of Kuno’s – its never say die attitude and the ability to survive and ultimately grow despite many challenges this forest has overcome.

Solution: B

Bamboos, the most diverse group of plants in the grass family belong to the sub-family Bambusoidae of the family Poaceae (Gramineae). Bamboos are fast growing perennial plants and are found in the tropical, sub-tropical and mild temperate regions of the world. Geographical distribution of Bamboo largely depends on climatic factors such as precipitation, temperature, altitude and soil conditions. Large tracts of natural bamboo forest are found in tropical Asian countries between 15° and 25° North latitudes. In India, bamboo is found naturally almost throughout the country except in Kashmir region.

The North- eastern States and West Bengal account for more than 50% of the bamboo resources of the country. Other bamboo rich areas of the country are the Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and the Western Ghats. Although, bamboo is found in almost every state of the country, its distribution and concentration vary primarily due to the climatic and edaphic conditions. Bambusa and Dendrocalamus are species of tropical conditions, whereas Arundinaria and its associates occur in the temperate region and are common at high altitudes in the Western and Eastern Himalayas.

The total bamboo bearing area of the country has been estimated to be 15.0 million ha. Madhya Pradesh has maximum bamboo bearing area of 1.84 m ha followed by Arunachal Pradesh (1.57 million ha), Maharashtra (1.35 million ha) and Odisha (1.12 million ha). As compared to the estimates of ISFR 2019, the total bamboo bearing area in the country has decreased by 1.06 million ha.

Solution: A

As per the CPCB report released in 2020, India generated around 10 million tonnes of electronic waste in 2019-20.

As per the ASSOCHAM’s study, computer equipment solely amounts to around 70 per cent of the overall e-waste generated, only telecommunication product 12 per cent, electrical item 8 per cent and medical item 7 per cent, while the remaining are from households.

Present condition of e-waste generation in India

• As per the World Economic Forum 2018 report, our country ranks at 177 amongst 180 nations globally.
• This was credited to the below-par performance at the environment health policy implementation and deaths happening owing to air pollution.
• Additionally, India is ranked fifth globally as one of the prominent e-waste producing nations, only after China, the United States, Japan and Germany.

Solution: A

The country has nine hornbill species, of which four are found in the Western Ghats. These are the Indian grey hornbill (endemic to India), the Malabar grey hornbill (endemic to the Western Ghats), Malabar pied hornbill (endemic to India and Sri Lanka) and the widely distributed but endangered great hornbill. The Narcondam hornbill are found only on the island of Narcondam in the Andaman Sea.

In an effort to conserve the last of the birds, the government of Arunachal Pradesh declared the Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival (PPHF), the state’s only conservation festival, as a ‘state festival’. Another festival that borrows the name of the bird is the Hornbill Festival in the adjoining state of Nagaland.

Solution: B

Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the Government of India under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, to combat organized wildlife crime in the country.

Under Section 38 (Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, it is mandated to collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities and to disseminate the same to State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to apprehend the criminals; to establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank; co-ordinate actions by various agencies in connection with the enforcement of the provisions of the Act; assist foreign authorities and international organization concerned to facilitate co-ordination and universal action for wildlife crime control; capacity building of the wildlife crime enforcement agencies for scientific and professional investigation into wildlife crimes and assist State Governments to ensure success in prosecutions related to wildlife crimes; and advise the Government of India on issues relating to wildlife crimes having national and international ramifications, relevant policy and laws. It also assists and advises the Customs authorities in inspection of the consignments of flora & fauna as per the provisions of Wild Life Protection Act, CITES and EXIM Policy governing such an item.

The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. Established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 (No. 59 of 1960), the Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian.

Solution: C

Solution: A

WALLABY, or the Widefield ASKAP L-band Legacy All-sky Blind survey, is a radio telescope in Western Australia that is helping astronomers build a three-dimensional map of the night sky, mapping galaxies as far as a billion light years away.

Radio astronomy involves tracking the signals from radio waves and helps detect and trace stellar objects that cannot be traced by light. 

  What will it do?

• Provide pictures of where galaxies are actually located in relation to one another in three-dimensional space.
• It will be able to tell apart galaxies that appear clustered together but are actually millions of light years apart.

Solution: A

About the Gelbots:

• A 3D-printed device
• Move without requiring an extra power source.
• Feels like a Fruit gum rather than hard metallic surfaces of robots.
• Extremely promising materials for soft robotics.
• They rely on the principle that gels that swell or shrink in response to temperature can be used to create smart structures. 
• Cheap and easy to mass produce

Uses:

• To deliver targeted medicines.
• Deployed as marine robots, patrolling and monitoring the ocean’s surface.
• Minimally invasive technology for biomedical diagnosis and treatment.

Solution: B

The 129th birth anniversary of Satyendra Nath Bose – a Mathematician and physicist from India best known for his work with Albert Einstein to develop what we now know as the Bose-Einstein statistics, was celebrated on January 1.

His legacy and stellar achievements:

• Satyendra Nath Bose (1 January 1894 – 4 February 1974) was a Bengali mathematician and physicist specialising in theoretical physics.
• He is best known for his work on quantum mechanics in the early 1920s, in developing the foundation for Bose-Einstein statistics and the theory of the Bose condensate.
• A Fellow of the Royal Society, he was awarded India’s second-highest civilian award, the Padma Vibhushan (in 1954) by the Government of India.
• The class of particles that obey Bose statistics, bosons, was named after Bose by Paul Dirac.

Solution: D

Solution: D

Dr. B R Ambedkar:

• He was born on 14 April 1891 in Mhow, Central Province (now Madhya Pradesh).
• He founded the Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha (1923).
• Mahad Satyagraha: He led the Mahad Satyagraha in March 1927 to challenge the regressive customs of the Hindus.
• Round table conferences: He participated in all three round-table conferences.

Major contributions:

• Indian constitution: Main Architect of Indian Constitution
• Constitutional morality: Effective coordination between conflicting interests of different people and administrative cooperation.
• Social Reforms: devoted his life to remove untouchability.
• The temple entry movement launched by Dr. Ambedkar in 1930 at Kalaram temple, Nasik.
• In 1936: founded the Independent Labour Party.
• In 1990: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, was bestowed with Bharat Ratna.

Few important works of Dr. Ambedkar:

• Mook Nayak (weekly) 1920
• Janta (weekly) 1930
• The Annihilation of Caste 1936
• The Untouchables 1948
• Buddha Or Karl Marx 1956

Solution: C

145 (3): The minimum number of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be five: Provided that, where the Court hearing an appeal under any of the provisions of this chapter other than Article 132 consists of less than five Judges and in the course of the hearing of the appeal the Court is satisfied that the appeal involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution the determination of which is necessary for the disposal of the appeal, such Court shall refer the question for opinion to a Court constituted as required by this clause for the purpose of deciding any case involving such a question and shall on receipt of the opinion dispose of the appeal in conformity with such opinion.

Solution: D

The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation has conducted the latest survey on All India Debt & Investment Survey during the period January – December, 2019 as a part of 77^th round of National Sample Survey (NSS). Prior to this the survey was carried out in NSS 26^th round (1971-72), 37^th round (1981-82), 48^th round (1992), 59^th round (2003) and 70^th round (2013).

The main objective of the survey on Debt & Investment was to collect basic quantitative information on the assets and liabilities of the households as on 30.6.2018. Besides, the survey gathered information on the amount of capital expenditure incurred by the households during the Agricultural Year 2018-19 (July-June), under different heads, like residential buildings, farm business and non-farm business.

The following indicators were generated from the survey of All India Debt & Investment:

• Average value of Assets (AVA): The average value of all the physical and financial assets owned per household as on 30.06.2018.
• Incidence of Indebtedness (IOI): The percentage of the indebted households as on 30.06.2018.
• Average amount of Debt (AOD): The average amount of cash dues as on 30.06.2018 per household.
• Average Fixed Capital Expenditure by the households during 01.07.2018 to 30.06.2019

• Incidence of Indebtedness was about 35% in Rural India (40.3% cultivator households, 28.2% non-cultivator households) compared to 22.4% in Urban India (27.5% self-employed households, 20.6% other households).
• In Rural India,17.8% households were indebted to institutional credit agencies only(21.2% cultivator households, 13.5% non-cultivator households) against 14.5% households in Urban India (18% self-employed households, 13.3% other households)
• Average amount of debt was Rs. 59,748 among rural households (Rs. 74,460 for cultivator households, Rs. 40,432 for non-cultivator households)
• Average amount of debt was Rs. 1,20,336 among urban households (Rs. 1,79,765 for self-employed households, Rs. 99,353 for other households)
• In Rural India, the share of outstanding cash debt from institutional credit agencies was 66% against 34% from non-institutional credit agencies. In Urban India, the share of outstanding cash debt from institutional credit agencies was 87% compared to 13% from non-institutional credit agencies.

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1753935

Solution: D

The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India. The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country. The Election Commission operates under the authority of Constitution per Article 324, and subsequently enacted Representation of the People Act. 

The election to the Legislative Council of a State in India is conducted and administered by the Election Commission of India (ECI), which is an independent constitutional authority responsible for conducting free and fair elections in the country.

Solution: C

The Changthangi or Changpa is a breed of cashmere goat native to the high plateaus of Ladakh in northern India. It is closely associated with the nomadic Changpa people of the Changthang plateau. It may also be known as the Ladakh Pashmina or Kashmiri.

These goats provide the wool for Kashmir’s famous pashmina shawls. Shawls made from Pashmina wool are considered very fine, and are exported worldwide.

The Changthangi goats have revitalised the poor economy of Changthang, Ladakh

Noori, the world’s first cloned Pashmina goat, was cloned at the Faculty of Veterinary Sciences and Animal Husbandry of the Sher-e-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences and Technology of Kashmir (SKUAST) in Shuhama,

Solution: b) Rs.2 cheaper

Explanation:

The average price of the blend of rice which contains three types of rice in unequal proportions is

=(36*8+42*4+48*3)/8+4+3

=(288+168+144)/15

= 600/15

= Rs.40

The average price of the blend of rice which contains three types of rice in equal proportions is

= Rs.42 (The average of 36, 42 and 48)

Therefore, the former blend of rice is Rs.2 cheaper than the latter.

Correct Option: D) None of these

According to the question,

20 × 30 + m × 35 + (m + 4) × 25 = 29.6 × (20 + m + m + 4)

600 + 35m + 25m + 100 = 29.6 × (24 + 2m)

700 + 60m = 710.4 + 59.2m

710.4 – 700 = 60m – 59.2m

10.4 = 0.8m

m = 13

Quantity of pasta that is bought at Rs 25 per kg = 13 + 4 = 17 kg

Hence, option D is correct.

Correct Option: B) 660

Let total no. of workers = x

Total salary = x × 95       ….. (i)

again, as per the question

Total salary = 15 × 525 + (x – 15) × 85         ….. (ii)

From (i) & (ii)

⇒ x × 95 = 15 × 525 + (x – 15) × 85

⇒ 95x – 85x = 7875 – 1275

⇒ 10x = 6600

⇒ x = 660

Hence, option B is correct.

Ans. A) The presence of plastics in drinking water must compel drastic action

The passage focuses on highlighting the issues caused by plastics and microplastics and its severe impact on all aspects of human life including health. The situation according to the passage has become graver due to the presence of microplastics in bottled water, which necessitates drastic action. The steps taken by WHO is one of the way forward. Many more such steps need to be taken. Hence A

Ans. C) both 1 and 2

The passage states that the situation is becoming difficult for the government to handle. Also, the passage does talk about the need for drastic steps, which is not being taken by the authorities. Hence C