INSTA 75 Days REVISION PLAN 2023
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About Insta 75 days revision plan 2023
Read about InsightsIAS INSTA 75 Days Revision Plan for UPSC Civil Services Prelims – 2023 [ HERE ] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(GS) [HERE] :
DOWNLOAD THE INSTA 75 DAYS REVISION TIMETABLE(CSAT) [HERE] :
Download MITRA booklet (My Insta Tests Revision and Assessment) – It’s for to track your daily progress while following Insta 75 Days plan. [ CLICK HERE ] :
WATCH VINAY SIR’S SESSION ON HOW TO PREPARE FOR PRELIMS [HERE] :
Click Here to Download the Insta Test PDF
Wish you Good Luck! 🙂
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Livestock Census
- The livestock census is conducted across the country periodically since 1919.
- 20th Livestock Census has been designed to capture Breed-wise number of animals and poultry birds.
- For the first time, livestock data were collected online in 19th Livestock Census.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The Livestock Census is the main source of such data in the country. The livestock census is conducted across the country periodically since 1919. The census usually covers all domesticated animals and head counts of these animals are taken. So far, 19 Livestock Censuses were conducted in participation with State Governments and UT Administrations. The 20th Livestock Census was launched during the month of October, 2018. The enumeration was done in both rural and urban areas. Various species of animals (cattle, buffalo, mithun, yak, sheep, goat, pig, horse, pony, mule, donkey, camel, dog, rabbit and elephant)/poultry birds (fowl, duck and other poultry birds) possessed by the households, household enterprises/non-household enterprises were counted at that site. Another important feature of 20th Livestock Census is it has been designed to capture Breed-wise number of animals and poultry birds.
For the first time, livestock data were collected online in 20th Livestock Census. Advance technology has been adopted to collect data through tablet computers. The National Informatics Centre, Ministry of Electronics & IT has developed Android based mobile application for data collection with various features such as data entry module to facilitate recording the data on tablets, web-based work application, local government directory codes etc.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The Livestock Census is the main source of such data in the country. The livestock census is conducted across the country periodically since 1919. The census usually covers all domesticated animals and head counts of these animals are taken. So far, 19 Livestock Censuses were conducted in participation with State Governments and UT Administrations. The 20th Livestock Census was launched during the month of October, 2018. The enumeration was done in both rural and urban areas. Various species of animals (cattle, buffalo, mithun, yak, sheep, goat, pig, horse, pony, mule, donkey, camel, dog, rabbit and elephant)/poultry birds (fowl, duck and other poultry birds) possessed by the households, household enterprises/non-household enterprises were counted at that site. Another important feature of 20th Livestock Census is it has been designed to capture Breed-wise number of animals and poultry birds.
For the first time, livestock data were collected online in 20th Livestock Census. Advance technology has been adopted to collect data through tablet computers. The National Informatics Centre, Ministry of Electronics & IT has developed Android based mobile application for data collection with various features such as data entry module to facilitate recording the data on tablets, web-based work application, local government directory codes etc.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Participatory Guarantee Scheme (PGS)
- Participatory Guarantee System of India (PGS-India) is an internationally accredited and locally focused organic quality assurance measure that certifies producers based on the active participation of stakeholders.
- The APEDA, Ministry of Commerce & Industries, Government of India is implementing the Participatory Guarantee System of India (PGS-India).
- It operates outside the peripheries of third-party certification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
The APEDA, Ministry of Commerce & Industries, Government of India is implementing the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP).
Participatory Guarantee System for India
Participatory Guarantee System of India (PGS-India) is an internationally accredited and locally focused organic quality assurance measure that certifies producers based on the active participation of stakeholders and operates outside the peripheries of third-party certification.
It is designed on the basis of trust, social networks and knowledge exchange and is implemented and controlled by the committed organic farmer-producers through active participation, under the aegis of the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation, Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India.
The National Centre of Organic Farming would be the custodian of data.
Incorrect
Solution: C
The APEDA, Ministry of Commerce & Industries, Government of India is implementing the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP).
Participatory Guarantee System for India
Participatory Guarantee System of India (PGS-India) is an internationally accredited and locally focused organic quality assurance measure that certifies producers based on the active participation of stakeholders and operates outside the peripheries of third-party certification.
It is designed on the basis of trust, social networks and knowledge exchange and is implemented and controlled by the committed organic farmer-producers through active participation, under the aegis of the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation, Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India.
The National Centre of Organic Farming would be the custodian of data.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are the macro nutrients for plant growth?
- Calcium
- Magnesium
- Sulfur
- Iron
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
What are the mineral elements
There are actually 20 mineral elements necessary or beneficial for plant growth.
- Carbon (C), hydrogen (H), and oxygen (O) are supplied by air and water.
- The six macronutrients, nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), potassium (K), calcium (Ca), magnesium (Mg), and sulfur (S) are required by plants in large amounts.
- The rest of the elements are required in trace amounts (micronutrients). Essential trace elements include boron (B), chlorine (Cl), copper (Cu), iron (Fe), manganese (Mn), sodium (Na), zinc (Zn), molybdenum (Mo), and nickel (Ni). Beneficial mineral elements include silicon (Si) and cobalt (Co).
Incorrect
Solution: A
What are the mineral elements
There are actually 20 mineral elements necessary or beneficial for plant growth.
- Carbon (C), hydrogen (H), and oxygen (O) are supplied by air and water.
- The six macronutrients, nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), potassium (K), calcium (Ca), magnesium (Mg), and sulfur (S) are required by plants in large amounts.
- The rest of the elements are required in trace amounts (micronutrients). Essential trace elements include boron (B), chlorine (Cl), copper (Cu), iron (Fe), manganese (Mn), sodium (Na), zinc (Zn), molybdenum (Mo), and nickel (Ni). Beneficial mineral elements include silicon (Si) and cobalt (Co).
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs)
- The first KVK was established in 1974 in Uttar Pradesh.
- The KVK scheme is 100% financed by Govt. of India.
- KVK, is an integral part of the National Agricultural Research System (NARS), aims at assessment of location specific technology modules in agriculture and allied enterprises, through technology assessment, refinement and demonstrations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs)
The first KVK was established in 1974 at Puducherry. The number of KVKs has risen to 731. The KVK scheme is 100% financed by Govt. of India and the KVKs are sanctioned to Agricultural Universities, ICAR institutes, related Government Departments and Non-Government Organizations (NGOs) working in Agriculture.
KVK, is an integral part of the National Agricultural Research System (NARS), aims at assessment of location specific technology modules in agriculture and allied enterprises, through technology assessment, refinement and demonstrations. KVKs have been functioning as Knowledge and Resource Centre of agricultural technology supporting initiatives of public, private and voluntary sector for improving the agricultural economy of the district and are linking the NARS with extension system and farmers.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs)
The first KVK was established in 1974 at Puducherry. The number of KVKs has risen to 731. The KVK scheme is 100% financed by Govt. of India and the KVKs are sanctioned to Agricultural Universities, ICAR institutes, related Government Departments and Non-Government Organizations (NGOs) working in Agriculture.
KVK, is an integral part of the National Agricultural Research System (NARS), aims at assessment of location specific technology modules in agriculture and allied enterprises, through technology assessment, refinement and demonstrations. KVKs have been functioning as Knowledge and Resource Centre of agricultural technology supporting initiatives of public, private and voluntary sector for improving the agricultural economy of the district and are linking the NARS with extension system and farmers.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding KRITAGYA
- KRITAGYA is an initiative planned by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) under National Agricultural Higher Education Project (NAHEP).
- It is a hackathon to promote potential technology solutions for enhancing farm mechanization with special emphasis on women friendly equipment.
- Participating students can collaborate with local start-ups, students from technology institutes, and can win a maximum prize of Rs. 5 lakhs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
About KRITAGYA
KRI-TA-GYA explains, KRI for Krishi (Agriculture), TA for Taknik (Technology) and GYA for Gyan (Knowledge). This event will give an opportunity to the students / faculties / entrepreneurs / innovators and others to showcase their innovative approaches & technology solutions to promote speed breeding for crop improvement to ensure overall sustainability and resilience in crop production in India. Such initiatives under NAHEP along with Crop Science Division of ICAR will also help in enhancing the learning capabilities, innovations and disruptive solutions, employability and entrepreneurial drive in the crop science sector.
In order to promote potential technology solutions for enhancing farm mechanization with special emphasis on women friendly equipment, a hackathon named “KRITAGYA” has been planned by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) under National Agricultural Higher Education Project (NAHEP). Students, faculties and innovators/entrepreneurs from any university / technical institution across the country can apply and participate in the event in the form of a group.
Participating students can collaborate with local start-ups, students from technology institutes, and can win Rs. 5 lakhs, Rs 3 lakhs and Rs. 1 lakh as first, second and third prize.
Incorrect
Solution: D
About KRITAGYA
KRI-TA-GYA explains, KRI for Krishi (Agriculture), TA for Taknik (Technology) and GYA for Gyan (Knowledge). This event will give an opportunity to the students / faculties / entrepreneurs / innovators and others to showcase their innovative approaches & technology solutions to promote speed breeding for crop improvement to ensure overall sustainability and resilience in crop production in India. Such initiatives under NAHEP along with Crop Science Division of ICAR will also help in enhancing the learning capabilities, innovations and disruptive solutions, employability and entrepreneurial drive in the crop science sector.
In order to promote potential technology solutions for enhancing farm mechanization with special emphasis on women friendly equipment, a hackathon named “KRITAGYA” has been planned by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) under National Agricultural Higher Education Project (NAHEP). Students, faculties and innovators/entrepreneurs from any university / technical institution across the country can apply and participate in the event in the form of a group.
Participating students can collaborate with local start-ups, students from technology institutes, and can win Rs. 5 lakhs, Rs 3 lakhs and Rs. 1 lakh as first, second and third prize.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
1 pointsFood is declared adulterated if
- A substance is added which depreciates or injuriously affects it,
- Cheaper or inferior substances are substituted wholly or in part.
- Any valuable or necessary constituent has been wholly or in part abstracted.
- It is an imitation.
- It is coloured or otherwise treated, to improve its appearance or if it contains any added substance injurious to health.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: D
Food is declared adulterated if:
- A substance is added which depreciates or injuriously affects it,
- Cheaper or inferior substances are substituted wholly or in part.
- Any valuable or necessary constituent has been wholly or in part abstracted.
- It is an imitation.
- It is coloured or otherwise treated, to improve its appearance or if it contains any added substance injurious to health.
- For whatever reasons its quality is below the Standard
Adulterated food is dangerous because it may be toxic and can affect health and it could deprive nutrients essential for proper growth and development.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Food is declared adulterated if:
- A substance is added which depreciates or injuriously affects it,
- Cheaper or inferior substances are substituted wholly or in part.
- Any valuable or necessary constituent has been wholly or in part abstracted.
- It is an imitation.
- It is coloured or otherwise treated, to improve its appearance or if it contains any added substance injurious to health.
- For whatever reasons its quality is below the Standard
Adulterated food is dangerous because it may be toxic and can affect health and it could deprive nutrients essential for proper growth and development.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Artificial Ripening
- Unsaturated hydrocarbons such as acetylene, ethylene etc. can promote ripening and induce colour changes effectively.
- The most commonly used chemical for artificial ripening is Calcium Carbide (CaC2) and is allowed to be used under Prevention of Food Adulteration Rules, 1955 and under Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restrictions on Sales) Regulations, 2011.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: A
What is Artificial Ripening?
Unsaturated hydrocarbons such as acetylene, ethylene etc. can promote ripening and induce colour changes effectively. Although the cosmetic quality of such artificially ripened fruits was found to improve, organoleptic quality was impaired especially when harvested fruits are subjected to treatment without considering their maturity status. Besides, the quantity of ripening agent required to induce ripening for better cosmetic quality, including appearance will be much more than conventional dose, when properly mature fruits are not used for such purposes.
What is Calcium Carbide?
With the development of fruit trade, the fruits are sent to distant places, requiring several days in ordinary or refrigerated transportation and only firm and mature fruits are least damaged during marketing. The fruits are ripened at the destination markets before retailing and hence artificial ripening has become essential. The most commonly used chemical for artificial ripening is Calcium Carbide (CaC2) and is popularly known as ‘Masala”, though banned under Prevention of Food Adulteration Rules, 1955 and also under Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restrictions on Sales) Regulations, 2011 made thereunder. Calcium Carbide is colourless when pure, but greyish-white to black in colour otherwise, with garlic like odour. When it reacts with water, it produces acetylene gas (popularly referred to as carbide gas) which is an analogue to ethylene and quickens the ripening process. It is said to have the same effect as ethylene the natural ripening hormone.
Incorrect
Solution: A
What is Artificial Ripening?
Unsaturated hydrocarbons such as acetylene, ethylene etc. can promote ripening and induce colour changes effectively. Although the cosmetic quality of such artificially ripened fruits was found to improve, organoleptic quality was impaired especially when harvested fruits are subjected to treatment without considering their maturity status. Besides, the quantity of ripening agent required to induce ripening for better cosmetic quality, including appearance will be much more than conventional dose, when properly mature fruits are not used for such purposes.
What is Calcium Carbide?
With the development of fruit trade, the fruits are sent to distant places, requiring several days in ordinary or refrigerated transportation and only firm and mature fruits are least damaged during marketing. The fruits are ripened at the destination markets before retailing and hence artificial ripening has become essential. The most commonly used chemical for artificial ripening is Calcium Carbide (CaC2) and is popularly known as ‘Masala”, though banned under Prevention of Food Adulteration Rules, 1955 and also under Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restrictions on Sales) Regulations, 2011 made thereunder. Calcium Carbide is colourless when pure, but greyish-white to black in colour otherwise, with garlic like odour. When it reacts with water, it produces acetylene gas (popularly referred to as carbide gas) which is an analogue to ethylene and quickens the ripening process. It is said to have the same effect as ethylene the natural ripening hormone.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Indian horticulture sector
- Indian horticulture sector contributes about 52% to the agriculture Gross Value Added (GVA).
- India is the largest producer of fruits and vegetables.
- India is currently producing about 320.48 million tons of horticulture produce which has surpassed the food grain production, that too from much less area.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Indian horticulture sector contributes about 33% to the agriculture Gross Value Added (GVA) making very significant contribution to the Indian economy. Apart from ensuring nutritional security of the nation, it provides alternate rural employment opportunities, diversification in farm activities, and enhanced income to farmers. India is currently producing about 320.48 million tons of horticulture produce which has surpassed the food grain production, that too from much less area (25.66 million Ha. for horticulture against 127.6 M. ha. for food grains). Productivity of horticulture crops is much higher compared to productivity of food grains (12.49 tones/ha against 2.23 tones/ha.). India has emerged as world leader in the production of a variety of fruits like mango, banana, guava, papaya, sapota, pomegranate, Lime & aonla and is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables. Besides, India has maintained its dominance in the production of spices, coconut and cashewnut.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Indian horticulture sector contributes about 33% to the agriculture Gross Value Added (GVA) making very significant contribution to the Indian economy. Apart from ensuring nutritional security of the nation, it provides alternate rural employment opportunities, diversification in farm activities, and enhanced income to farmers. India is currently producing about 320.48 million tons of horticulture produce which has surpassed the food grain production, that too from much less area (25.66 million Ha. for horticulture against 127.6 M. ha. for food grains). Productivity of horticulture crops is much higher compared to productivity of food grains (12.49 tones/ha against 2.23 tones/ha.). India has emerged as world leader in the production of a variety of fruits like mango, banana, guava, papaya, sapota, pomegranate, Lime & aonla and is the second largest producer of fruits and vegetables. Besides, India has maintained its dominance in the production of spices, coconut and cashewnut.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Coconut Development Board (CDB)
- The Coconut Development Board is a statutory body established under the Coconut Development Act, 1979.
- One of its thrust areas is expansion of area under coconut cultivation especially in potential and non-traditional areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
Coconut Development Board (CDB)
The Coconut Development Board was formed under the Coconut Development Act, 1979 and came into existence on 12th January, 1981 to look after the Integrated Development of Coconut. The thrust areas identified by the CDB programmes under Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture are: production and distribution of quality planting material, expansion of area under coconut cultivation especially in potential and non-traditional areas, improving the productivity of coconut in major coconut producing states, developing technology in post-harvest processing and marketing activities, product diversification and by-product utilization of coconut for value addition.
Coconut Development Board is a statutory body established by the Government of India for the integrated development of coconut production and utilization in the country with focus on productivity increase and product diversification. The Board which came into existence on 12th January 1981, functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India, with its Headquarters at Kochi in Kerala and Regional Offices at Bangalore in Karnataka, Chennai in Tamil Nadu, Guwahati in Assam and Patna in Bihar.
Incorrect
Solution: C
Coconut Development Board (CDB)
The Coconut Development Board was formed under the Coconut Development Act, 1979 and came into existence on 12th January, 1981 to look after the Integrated Development of Coconut. The thrust areas identified by the CDB programmes under Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture are: production and distribution of quality planting material, expansion of area under coconut cultivation especially in potential and non-traditional areas, improving the productivity of coconut in major coconut producing states, developing technology in post-harvest processing and marketing activities, product diversification and by-product utilization of coconut for value addition.
Coconut Development Board is a statutory body established by the Government of India for the integrated development of coconut production and utilization in the country with focus on productivity increase and product diversification. The Board which came into existence on 12th January 1981, functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India, with its Headquarters at Kochi in Kerala and Regional Offices at Bangalore in Karnataka, Chennai in Tamil Nadu, Guwahati in Assam and Patna in Bihar.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Seed
- It is estimated that the direct contribution of quality seed alone to the total production is about 75 – 80% depending upon the crop.
- Introduction of New Seed Development Policy (1988 – 1989) gave access to Indian farmers of the best of seed and planting material available anywhere on the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Seed is the basic and most critical input for sustainable agriculture. The response of all other inputs depends on quality of seeds to a large extent. It is estimated that the direct contribution of quality seed alone to the total production is about 15 – 20% depending upon the crop and it can be further raised up to 45% with efficient management of other inputs.
Introduction of New Seed Development Policy (1988 – 1989) was a significant mile stone in the Indian Seed Industry, which transformed the very character of the seed industry. The policy gave access to Indian farmers of the best of seed and planting material available anywhere on the world. The policy stimulated appreciable investments by private individuals, Indian Corporate and MNCs in the Indian seed sector with strong R&D base for product development in each of the seed companies with more emphasis on high value hybrids of cereals and vegetables and hi-tech products such as Bt. Cotton. As a result, farmer has a wide product choice and seed industry today is set to work with a ‘farmer centric’ approach and is market driven. However, there is an urgent need for the State Seed Corporations also to transform themselves in tune with the industry in terms of infrastructure, technologies, approach and the management culture to be able to survive in the competitive market and to enhance their contribution in the national endeavour of increasing food production to attain food & nutritional security.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Seed is the basic and most critical input for sustainable agriculture. The response of all other inputs depends on quality of seeds to a large extent. It is estimated that the direct contribution of quality seed alone to the total production is about 15 – 20% depending upon the crop and it can be further raised up to 45% with efficient management of other inputs.
Introduction of New Seed Development Policy (1988 – 1989) was a significant mile stone in the Indian Seed Industry, which transformed the very character of the seed industry. The policy gave access to Indian farmers of the best of seed and planting material available anywhere on the world. The policy stimulated appreciable investments by private individuals, Indian Corporate and MNCs in the Indian seed sector with strong R&D base for product development in each of the seed companies with more emphasis on high value hybrids of cereals and vegetables and hi-tech products such as Bt. Cotton. As a result, farmer has a wide product choice and seed industry today is set to work with a ‘farmer centric’ approach and is market driven. However, there is an urgent need for the State Seed Corporations also to transform themselves in tune with the industry in terms of infrastructure, technologies, approach and the management culture to be able to survive in the competitive market and to enhance their contribution in the national endeavour of increasing food production to attain food & nutritional security.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Pusa Hydrogel
- It has been developed by CSIR- Central Food Technological Research Institute.
- Natural polymer backbone-based water absorber based on cross-linked Potassium polyacrylate polymer.
- It absorbs water 400 times its dry weight and gradually releases the same.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Pusa Hydrogel
The Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi has developed an absorbent polymer called “Pusa Hydrogel” to meet the requirements of water productivity in Agriculture.
Salient features of Pusa Hydrogel
- Natural polymer backbone-based water absorber based on cross-linked Potassium polyacrylate polymer
- Exhibits maximum absorbency at temperatures (40- 50 0 C) characteristic of semi-arid and arid soils.
- Absorbs water 400 times its dry weight and gradually releases the same.
- Stable in soil for a minimum period of one year
- Less affected by salts
- Low rates of soil application – 1-2 kg / ha for nursery horticultural crops; 2.5-5 kg/ ha for field crops
- Reduces leaching of herbicides and fertilizers
- Improves physical properties of soils and the soil less media
- Improves seed germination and the rate of seedling emergence
- Improves root growth and density
- Helps plants withstand prolonged moisture stress
- Reduces nursery establishment period
- Reduces irrigation and fertilization requirements of crops with improved input use efficiency
- No undesirable effect on crops and soil as reported by experimenters and farmers.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Pusa Hydrogel
The Indian Agricultural Research Institute, New Delhi has developed an absorbent polymer called “Pusa Hydrogel” to meet the requirements of water productivity in Agriculture.
Salient features of Pusa Hydrogel
- Natural polymer backbone-based water absorber based on cross-linked Potassium polyacrylate polymer
- Exhibits maximum absorbency at temperatures (40- 50 0 C) characteristic of semi-arid and arid soils.
- Absorbs water 400 times its dry weight and gradually releases the same.
- Stable in soil for a minimum period of one year
- Less affected by salts
- Low rates of soil application – 1-2 kg / ha for nursery horticultural crops; 2.5-5 kg/ ha for field crops
- Reduces leaching of herbicides and fertilizers
- Improves physical properties of soils and the soil less media
- Improves seed germination and the rate of seedling emergence
- Improves root growth and density
- Helps plants withstand prolonged moisture stress
- Reduces nursery establishment period
- Reduces irrigation and fertilization requirements of crops with improved input use efficiency
- No undesirable effect on crops and soil as reported by experimenters and farmers.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding National Food Security Mission’ (NFSM)
- It is a central sector scheme.
- The mission aims to increase the annual production of rice by 10 million tonnes, wheat by 8 million tonnes and pulses by 2 million tonnes by the end of the Eleventh Plan (2011-12).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The National Development Council (NDC) in its 53rd meeting held on 29th May, 2007 adopted a resolution to launch a Food Security Mission comprising rice, wheat and pulses to increase the annual production of rice by 10 million tonnes, wheat by 8 million tonnes and pulses by 2 million tonnes by the end of the Eleventh Plan (2011-12). Accordingly, a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, ‘National Food Security Mission’ (NFSM), was launched in October 2007.
The Mission met with an overwhelming success and achieved the targeted additional production of rice, wheat and pulses. The Mission continued during 12th Five Year Plan with new targets of additional production of food grains of 25 million tonnes of food grains comprising of 10 million tonnes rice, 8 million tonnes of wheat, 4 million tonnes of pulses and 3 million tonnes of coarse cereals by the end of 12th Five Year Plan. Considering the experience and feedback received from the States major changes were made in approach, norms of financial assistance and programme implementation strategy which are reflected in the revised operational guidelines.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The National Development Council (NDC) in its 53rd meeting held on 29th May, 2007 adopted a resolution to launch a Food Security Mission comprising rice, wheat and pulses to increase the annual production of rice by 10 million tonnes, wheat by 8 million tonnes and pulses by 2 million tonnes by the end of the Eleventh Plan (2011-12). Accordingly, a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, ‘National Food Security Mission’ (NFSM), was launched in October 2007.
The Mission met with an overwhelming success and achieved the targeted additional production of rice, wheat and pulses. The Mission continued during 12th Five Year Plan with new targets of additional production of food grains of 25 million tonnes of food grains comprising of 10 million tonnes rice, 8 million tonnes of wheat, 4 million tonnes of pulses and 3 million tonnes of coarse cereals by the end of 12th Five Year Plan. Considering the experience and feedback received from the States major changes were made in approach, norms of financial assistance and programme implementation strategy which are reflected in the revised operational guidelines.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM)
- Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has launched SMAM, with the objectives of increasing the reach of farm mechanization to small and marginal farmers and to the regions & difficult area where farm power availability is low.
- Custom Hiring Centers and Hi-tech Hubs of High-Value Machines will be promoted under this mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
About Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM)
Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has launched a Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) in 2014-15 with the objectives of increasing the reach of farm mechanization to small and marginal farmers and to the regions & difficult area where farm power availability is low. To boost up mechanization in the agriculture sector improved agricultural implements and machinery are essential inputs for modern agriculture that enhance the productivity of crops besides reducing human drudgery and cost of cultivation. Mechanization also helps in improving the utilization efficiency of other inputs therefore considered to be one of the most important segments of the agriculture sector to boost the income of farmers and growth of the agricultural economy. For strengthening of agricultural mechanization in the country and to bring more inclusiveness Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) has been introduced with the main objectives of are to promote ‘Custom Hiring Centers’ and ‘Hi-tech Hubs of High-Value Machines’ to offset the adverse economies of scale arising due to small and fragmented landholding and high cost of individual ownership; Creating awareness among stakeholders through demonstration and capacity building activities and ensuring performance testing and certification of agricultural machines at designated testing centers located all over the country.
Incorrect
Solution: C
About Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM)
Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has launched a Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) in 2014-15 with the objectives of increasing the reach of farm mechanization to small and marginal farmers and to the regions & difficult area where farm power availability is low. To boost up mechanization in the agriculture sector improved agricultural implements and machinery are essential inputs for modern agriculture that enhance the productivity of crops besides reducing human drudgery and cost of cultivation. Mechanization also helps in improving the utilization efficiency of other inputs therefore considered to be one of the most important segments of the agriculture sector to boost the income of farmers and growth of the agricultural economy. For strengthening of agricultural mechanization in the country and to bring more inclusiveness Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) has been introduced with the main objectives of are to promote ‘Custom Hiring Centers’ and ‘Hi-tech Hubs of High-Value Machines’ to offset the adverse economies of scale arising due to small and fragmented landholding and high cost of individual ownership; Creating awareness among stakeholders through demonstration and capacity building activities and ensuring performance testing and certification of agricultural machines at designated testing centers located all over the country.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding food processing sector
- During the last five years ending FY21, the food processing industries sector has been growing at an average annual growth rate of over 15 per cent.
- About 12 per cent of persons in the registered manufacturing sector were employed in the food processing sector.
- The value of agri-food exports, including processed food exports, was about 10.9 per cent of India’s total exports during 2021-22.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The food processing sector is of enormous significance for India’s development because of the strong connections and interactions it promotes between industry and agriculture. During the last five years ending FY21, the food processing industries sector has been growing at an average annual growth rate of around 8.3 per cent. As per the latest Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) 2019-20, 12.2 per cent of persons in the registered manufacturing sector were employed in the food processing sector. The value of agri-food exports, including processed food exports, was about 10.9 per cent of India’s total exports during 2021-22
Incorrect
Solution: B
The food processing sector is of enormous significance for India’s development because of the strong connections and interactions it promotes between industry and agriculture. During the last five years ending FY21, the food processing industries sector has been growing at an average annual growth rate of around 8.3 per cent. As per the latest Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) 2019-20, 12.2 per cent of persons in the registered manufacturing sector were employed in the food processing sector. The value of agri-food exports, including processed food exports, was about 10.9 per cent of India’s total exports during 2021-22
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding India’s agricultural export
- India’s agricultural products export crossed $ 50 billion for the financial year FY22.
- Wheat has recorded an unprecedented growth of more than 273%, between 2020-21 and 2021-22.
- India has captured nearly 50% of the world’s market for rice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
India’s agricultural products export touched a new milestone by crossing $ 50 billion for the financial year FY22.
The provisional data of DGCI&S showed that the agricultural exports have grown by 19.92% during 2021-22 to touch $ 50.21 billion. The growth rate is remarkable as it is over and above the growth of 17.66%, at $41.87 billion, achieved in 2020-21 and has been achieved in spite of unprecedented logistical challenges in the form of high freight rates, container shortages, etc.
As per the data, the highest ever exports have been achieved for staples like rice (% 9.65 billion), wheat ($ 2.19 billion), sugar ($ 4.6 billion), and other cereals ($ 1.08 billion). Wheat has recorded an unprecedented growth of more than 273%, jumping nearly four-fold from $ 568 million in 2020-21 to touch close to $ 2119 million in 2021-22. An increase in exports of these products has benefitted farmers in states like Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, etc. India has captured nearly 50% of the world’s market for rice.
Incorrect
Solution: D
India’s agricultural products export touched a new milestone by crossing $ 50 billion for the financial year FY22.
The provisional data of DGCI&S showed that the agricultural exports have grown by 19.92% during 2021-22 to touch $ 50.21 billion. The growth rate is remarkable as it is over and above the growth of 17.66%, at $41.87 billion, achieved in 2020-21 and has been achieved in spite of unprecedented logistical challenges in the form of high freight rates, container shortages, etc.
As per the data, the highest ever exports have been achieved for staples like rice (% 9.65 billion), wheat ($ 2.19 billion), sugar ($ 4.6 billion), and other cereals ($ 1.08 billion). Wheat has recorded an unprecedented growth of more than 273%, jumping nearly four-fold from $ 568 million in 2020-21 to touch close to $ 2119 million in 2021-22. An increase in exports of these products has benefitted farmers in states like Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, etc. India has captured nearly 50% of the world’s market for rice.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
1 pointsMatch the following iconic heritage textile crafts of the country with the region they belong
- Mashru weaves and Patola: Gujarat
- Toda embroidery and Sungadi: Tamil Nadu
- Thigma or wool tie and dye: Sikkim
- Sikalnayakanpet Kalamkari: Andhra Pradesh
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: B
UNESCO released a list of 50 exclusive and iconic heritage textile crafts of the country. Handmade for the 21st Century: Safeguarding Traditional Indian Textile lists the histories and legends behind the textiles, describes the complicated and secret processes behind their making, mentions the causes for their dwindling popularity, and provides strategies for their preservation.
Toda embroidery and Sungadi from Tamil Nadu, Himroo weaves from Hyderabad and Bandha tie and dye weaving from Sambalpur in Odisha were some of the textiles that made the cut.
Some of the iconic handcrafted textiles documented from north India are Khes from Panipat, Chamba rumals from Himachal Pradesh, Thigma or wool tie and dye from Ladakh and Awadh Jamdani from Varanasi.
From the south, Ilkal and Lambadi or Banjara embroidery from Karnataka, Sikalnayakanpet Kalamkari from Thanjavur have been included.
Kunbi weaves from Goa, Mashru weaves and Patola from Gujarat, Himroo from Maharashtra and Garad-Koirial from West Bengal also find a place among the 50 iconic textiles.
Incorrect
Solution: B
UNESCO released a list of 50 exclusive and iconic heritage textile crafts of the country. Handmade for the 21st Century: Safeguarding Traditional Indian Textile lists the histories and legends behind the textiles, describes the complicated and secret processes behind their making, mentions the causes for their dwindling popularity, and provides strategies for their preservation.
Toda embroidery and Sungadi from Tamil Nadu, Himroo weaves from Hyderabad and Bandha tie and dye weaving from Sambalpur in Odisha were some of the textiles that made the cut.
Some of the iconic handcrafted textiles documented from north India are Khes from Panipat, Chamba rumals from Himachal Pradesh, Thigma or wool tie and dye from Ladakh and Awadh Jamdani from Varanasi.
From the south, Ilkal and Lambadi or Banjara embroidery from Karnataka, Sikalnayakanpet Kalamkari from Thanjavur have been included.
Kunbi weaves from Goa, Mashru weaves and Patola from Gujarat, Himroo from Maharashtra and Garad-Koirial from West Bengal also find a place among the 50 iconic textiles.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding YUVA 2.0
- It was launched by Sahitya Akademi, an autonomous body under Ministry of Culture.
- It is an Author Mentorship programmed to train young and budding authors in order to promote reading, writing and book culture in the country, and project India and Indian writings globally.
- Young and budding authors should be below 30 years of age.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
The Ministry of Education, Department of Higher Education launched YUVA 2.0 – Prime Minister’s Scheme for Mentoring Young Authors, an Author Mentorship programme to train young and budding authors (below 30 years of age) in order to promote reading, writing and book culture in the country, and project India and Indian writings globally. In view of the significant impact of the first edition of YUVA with large scale participation from young and budding authors in 22 different Indian languages and English, YUVA 2.0 is now being launched.
Incorrect
Solution: D
The Ministry of Education, Department of Higher Education launched YUVA 2.0 – Prime Minister’s Scheme for Mentoring Young Authors, an Author Mentorship programme to train young and budding authors (below 30 years of age) in order to promote reading, writing and book culture in the country, and project India and Indian writings globally. In view of the significant impact of the first edition of YUVA with large scale participation from young and budding authors in 22 different Indian languages and English, YUVA 2.0 is now being launched.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Bharat skills Forum
- It was launched by National Skill Development Corporation.
- It shall act as a digital warehouse for the skilling community by allowing sharing of contents in various forms like handwritten trainers’ or trainees’ notes, PDFs, scanned copies, or recorded videos in any language.
- It is a digital knowledge-sharing platform for the ITIs’ trainees, trainers and industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
Directorate General of Training (DGT) launches Bharat skills Forum, a digital knowledge-sharing platform for the ITIs’ trainees, trainers and industry
A new feature called the Bharat skills Forum has been added to the Bharatskills learning platform developed by DGT that allows sharing of books, notes, videos, question bank, etc., and other relevant skill-related content for learners. This facility shall act as a digital warehouse for the skilling community by allowing sharing of contents in various forms like handwritten trainers’ or trainees’ notes, PDFs, scanned copies, or recorded videos in any language.
The Directorate General of Training (DGT) in the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) is the apex organisation for development and coordination at national level for the programmes relating to vocational training. DGT in Oct 2019 had launched an online learning platform called the Bharatskills (https://bharatskills.gov.in ), a Central Digital Repository for the trainees and trainers of the ITI ecosystem, providing easy access to updated curriculum, e-books, Question Banks, mock/practice papers, learning videos, etc., for courses under the Craftsmen Training Scheme (CTS), Craft Instructor Training Scheme (CITS) and the Apprenticeship Training Scheme (ATS), thus enabling anytime, anywhere learning outside the classrooms. This platform presents unique access to a centralized, scalable, and thriving support ecosystem through its industrial partners for the students and teachers who can now learn the new age (Industrial Revolution 4.0) skills to meet the demands of the industry.
Incorrect
Solution: B
Directorate General of Training (DGT) launches Bharat skills Forum, a digital knowledge-sharing platform for the ITIs’ trainees, trainers and industry
A new feature called the Bharat skills Forum has been added to the Bharatskills learning platform developed by DGT that allows sharing of books, notes, videos, question bank, etc., and other relevant skill-related content for learners. This facility shall act as a digital warehouse for the skilling community by allowing sharing of contents in various forms like handwritten trainers’ or trainees’ notes, PDFs, scanned copies, or recorded videos in any language.
The Directorate General of Training (DGT) in the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) is the apex organisation for development and coordination at national level for the programmes relating to vocational training. DGT in Oct 2019 had launched an online learning platform called the Bharatskills (https://bharatskills.gov.in ), a Central Digital Repository for the trainees and trainers of the ITI ecosystem, providing easy access to updated curriculum, e-books, Question Banks, mock/practice papers, learning videos, etc., for courses under the Craftsmen Training Scheme (CTS), Craft Instructor Training Scheme (CITS) and the Apprenticeship Training Scheme (ATS), thus enabling anytime, anywhere learning outside the classrooms. This platform presents unique access to a centralized, scalable, and thriving support ecosystem through its industrial partners for the students and teachers who can now learn the new age (Industrial Revolution 4.0) skills to meet the demands of the industry.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following situation create Mundell-Fleming trilemma?
- Setting a fixed currency exchange rate
- Allowing capital to flow freely with no fixed currency exchange rate agreement
- Autonomous monetary policy
- Setting a fixed range of inflation rate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: A
The trilemma is an economic theory, which posits that countries may choose from three options when making fundamental decisions about their international monetary policy agreements.
However, only one option of the trilemma is achievable at a given time, as the three options of the trilemma are mutually exclusive.
Trilemma Explained
When making fundamental decisions about managing international monetary policy, a trilemma suggests that countries have three possible options from which to choose. According to the Mundell-Fleming trilemma model, these options include:
- Setting a fixed currency exchange rate
- Allowing capital to flow freely with no fixed currency exchange rate agreement
- Autonomous monetary policy
Incorrect
Solution: A
The trilemma is an economic theory, which posits that countries may choose from three options when making fundamental decisions about their international monetary policy agreements.
However, only one option of the trilemma is achievable at a given time, as the three options of the trilemma are mutually exclusive.
Trilemma Explained
When making fundamental decisions about managing international monetary policy, a trilemma suggests that countries have three possible options from which to choose. According to the Mundell-Fleming trilemma model, these options include:
- Setting a fixed currency exchange rate
- Allowing capital to flow freely with no fixed currency exchange rate agreement
- Autonomous monetary policy
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding e-RUPI
- e-RUPI was launched by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) in association with Department of Financial Services (DFS), National Health Authority (NHA), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), and partner banks.
- e-RUPI is a one-time use digital solution to facilitate cashless payment which is person & purpose specific solutions for various services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: C
What is e-RUPI?
e-RUPI is a one-time use digital solution to facilitate cashless payment which is person & purpose specific solutions for various services like COVID Vaccine, donations, corporate gift vouchers, etc.
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) in association with Department of Financial Services (DFS), National Health Authority (NHA), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), and partner banks, has launched an innovative digital solution – ‘e-RUPI’.
The users of this seamless one-time payment mechanism will be able to redeem the voucher without a card, digital payments app or internet banking access, at the merchants accepting e-RUPI. e-RUPI would be shared with the beneficiaries for a specific purpose or activity by organizations or Government via SMS or QR code.
Incorrect
Solution: C
What is e-RUPI?
e-RUPI is a one-time use digital solution to facilitate cashless payment which is person & purpose specific solutions for various services like COVID Vaccine, donations, corporate gift vouchers, etc.
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) in association with Department of Financial Services (DFS), National Health Authority (NHA), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW), and partner banks, has launched an innovative digital solution – ‘e-RUPI’.
The users of this seamless one-time payment mechanism will be able to redeem the voucher without a card, digital payments app or internet banking access, at the merchants accepting e-RUPI. e-RUPI would be shared with the beneficiaries for a specific purpose or activity by organizations or Government via SMS or QR code.
Sickle cell disease is a genetic condition that affects haemoglobin — responsible for carrying oxygen in the body– in red blood cells.
- It is inherited when a child receives two genes—one from each parent—that code for abnormal haemoglobin
- It is prevalent among the tribal population in India
- It can lead to problems such as Anaemia, debilitating acute and chronic pain, infection, acute chest syndrome, stroke, and renal failure are among the problems it can lead to.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statements is incorrect regarding Dirty Bomb?
Correct
Solution: A
A “dirty bomb” is a type of “radiological dispersal device” that combines a conventional explosive, such as dynamite, with radioactive material. It doesn’t need to contain highly refined radioactive material, as is used in a nuclear bomb. Instead, it uses radioactive materials from hospitals, nuclear power stations or
research laboratories.
Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
A dirty bomb is not a nuclear bomb. A nuclear bomb creates an explosion that is millions of times more powerful than a dirty bomb. The cloud of radiation from a nuclear bomb could spread thousands of square miles, whereas a dirty bomb’s radiation could be dispersed within a few blocks or miles of the explosion.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
A dirty bomb is not a “weapon of mass destruction” but a “weapon of mass disruption,” where contamination and anxiety are the major objectives.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: A
A “dirty bomb” is a type of “radiological dispersal device” that combines a conventional explosive, such as dynamite, with radioactive material. It doesn’t need to contain highly refined radioactive material, as is used in a nuclear bomb. Instead, it uses radioactive materials from hospitals, nuclear power stations or
research laboratories.
Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
A dirty bomb is not a nuclear bomb. A nuclear bomb creates an explosion that is millions of times more powerful than a dirty bomb. The cloud of radiation from a nuclear bomb could spread thousands of square miles, whereas a dirty bomb’s radiation could be dispersed within a few blocks or miles of the explosion.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
A dirty bomb is not a “weapon of mass destruction” but a “weapon of mass disruption,” where contamination and anxiety are the major objectives.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding Ramappa Temple
- It was constructed in the honour of Rama, an incarnation of Vishnu, who was the chief deity of the Kakatiya dynasty.
- The temple features a red sandstone base and granite pillars with a Vimana made of light and porous bricks.
- The use of sandbox technique in the temple architecture protects it from earthquakes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution : B
- The Ramappa Temple or the Kakatiya Rudreshwar temple is located in Telangana
- It is dedicated to Ramalingashwara Swamy, a form of Lord Shiva
- It is also known as Ramappa Temple after the sculpture who executed the work in the temple for 40 years.
- The temple has been inscribed on the World Heritage list of the UNESCO.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Construction of the temple started in 1213 CE and is believed to have continued for approximately 40 years
- the base of the temple is red sandstone.
- The building features decorated beams and pillars of carved granite and Dolerite with a pyramidal vimana made of lightweight porous bricks, so called floating bricks that help in reduction of the weight of the roof structure.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The temple has been following the sandbox technique.
- The technique involved filling the pit dug up for laying the foundation of a structure with a mixture of sand lime, jaggery and karakkaya before the buildings were constructed on the sandboxes
- The sandbox in the foundation act as a protection measure in case of earthquakes
- most of the vibrations caused by earthquakes lose their strength while passing through the sand and by time they reach the actual foundation of the building, they become very weak.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution : B
- The Ramappa Temple or the Kakatiya Rudreshwar temple is located in Telangana
- It is dedicated to Ramalingashwara Swamy, a form of Lord Shiva
- It is also known as Ramappa Temple after the sculpture who executed the work in the temple for 40 years.
- The temple has been inscribed on the World Heritage list of the UNESCO.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Construction of the temple started in 1213 CE and is believed to have continued for approximately 40 years
- the base of the temple is red sandstone.
- The building features decorated beams and pillars of carved granite and Dolerite with a pyramidal vimana made of lightweight porous bricks, so called floating bricks that help in reduction of the weight of the roof structure.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The temple has been following the sandbox technique.
- The technique involved filling the pit dug up for laying the foundation of a structure with a mixture of sand lime, jaggery and karakkaya before the buildings were constructed on the sandboxes
- The sandbox in the foundation act as a protection measure in case of earthquakes
- most of the vibrations caused by earthquakes lose their strength while passing through the sand and by time they reach the actual foundation of the building, they become very weak.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- IP spoofing occurs when cybercriminals need to disguise executable malware files.
- Extension spoofing is used when someone wants to hide or disguise the location from which they’re sending or requesting data online.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
Spoofing, as it pertains to cybersecurity, is when someone or something pretends to be something else in an attempt to gain our confidence, get access to our systems, steal data, steal money, or spread malware.
Types of Spoofing:-
Email spoofing is the act of sending emails with false sender addresses, usually as part of a phishing attack designed to steal your information, infect your computer with malware or just ask for money. Typical payloads for malicious emails include ransomware, adware, crypto jackers, Trojans (like Emotet), or malware that enslaves your computer in a botnet.
Website spoofing is all about making a malicious website look like a legitimate one. The spoofed site will look like the login page for a website you frequent—down to the branding, user interface, and even a spoofed domain name that looks the same at first glance. Cybercriminals use spoofed websites to capture your username and password (aka login spoofing) or drop malware onto your computer.
Caller ID spoofing happens when scammers fool your caller ID by making the call appear to be coming from somewhere it isn’t. Scammers have learned that you’re more likely to answer the phone if the caller ID shows an area code the same or near your own.
Text message spoofing or SMS spoofing is sending a text message with someone else’s phone number or sender ID. If you’ve ever sent a text message from your laptop, you’ve spoofed your own phone number in order to send the text, because the text did not actually originate from your phone. Companies frequently spoof their own numbers, for the purposes of marketing and convenience to the consumer, by replacing the long number with a short and easy to remember alphanumeric sender ID.
GPS spoofing occurs when you trick your device’s GPS into thinking you’re in one location, when you’re actually in another location.
Extension spoofing occurs when cybercriminals need to disguise executable malware files. One common extension spoofing trick criminals like to use is to name the file something along the lines of “filename.txt.exe.” The criminals know file extensions are hidden by default in Windows so to the average Windows user this executable file will appear as “filename.txt.”
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
IP spoofing is used when someone wants to hide or disguise the location from which they’re sending or requesting data online. As it applies to cyberthreats, IP address spoofing is used in distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks to prevent malicious traffic from being filtered out and to hide the attacker’s location.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Facial spoofing might be the most personal, because of the implications it carries for the future of technology and our personal lives. As it stands, facial ID technology is fairly limited. We use our faces to unlock our mobile devices and laptops, and not much else.
Incorrect
Solution: D
Spoofing, as it pertains to cybersecurity, is when someone or something pretends to be something else in an attempt to gain our confidence, get access to our systems, steal data, steal money, or spread malware.
Types of Spoofing:-
Email spoofing is the act of sending emails with false sender addresses, usually as part of a phishing attack designed to steal your information, infect your computer with malware or just ask for money. Typical payloads for malicious emails include ransomware, adware, crypto jackers, Trojans (like Emotet), or malware that enslaves your computer in a botnet.
Website spoofing is all about making a malicious website look like a legitimate one. The spoofed site will look like the login page for a website you frequent—down to the branding, user interface, and even a spoofed domain name that looks the same at first glance. Cybercriminals use spoofed websites to capture your username and password (aka login spoofing) or drop malware onto your computer.
Caller ID spoofing happens when scammers fool your caller ID by making the call appear to be coming from somewhere it isn’t. Scammers have learned that you’re more likely to answer the phone if the caller ID shows an area code the same or near your own.
Text message spoofing or SMS spoofing is sending a text message with someone else’s phone number or sender ID. If you’ve ever sent a text message from your laptop, you’ve spoofed your own phone number in order to send the text, because the text did not actually originate from your phone. Companies frequently spoof their own numbers, for the purposes of marketing and convenience to the consumer, by replacing the long number with a short and easy to remember alphanumeric sender ID.
GPS spoofing occurs when you trick your device’s GPS into thinking you’re in one location, when you’re actually in another location.
Extension spoofing occurs when cybercriminals need to disguise executable malware files. One common extension spoofing trick criminals like to use is to name the file something along the lines of “filename.txt.exe.” The criminals know file extensions are hidden by default in Windows so to the average Windows user this executable file will appear as “filename.txt.”
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
IP spoofing is used when someone wants to hide or disguise the location from which they’re sending or requesting data online. As it applies to cyberthreats, IP address spoofing is used in distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks to prevent malicious traffic from being filtered out and to hide the attacker’s location.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Facial spoofing might be the most personal, because of the implications it carries for the future of technology and our personal lives. As it stands, facial ID technology is fairly limited. We use our faces to unlock our mobile devices and laptops, and not much else.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the National Geospatial Policy- 2022, consider the following statements:
- The government will establish an Integrated Data and Information Framework by 2025 to develop Geospatial Knowledge Infrastructure.
- The policy is aimed to set up high resolution topographical survey and mapping, with a high-accuracy Digital Elevation Model (DEM) by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: B
The National Geospatial Policy, 2022
It is a citizen-centric policy that seeks to strengthen the geospatial sector to support national development, economic prosperity and a thriving information economy.
Aim: The 13-year guideline promote the country’s geospatial data industry and develops a national framework to use such data for improving citizen services, and more.
Themes: The policy has divided 14 Geospatial Data Themes to support the development of commercial geospatial applications in various sectors e.g., disaster management, mining, forestry etc.
Technology Infrastructure:
The government will establish an Integrated Data and Information Framework by 2030 to develop Geospatial Knowledge Infrastructure (GKI).
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The government will also establish National Digital Twin (for high-resolution topographical survey and mapping by 2035)
Institutional Infrastructure:
Geospatial Data Promotion and Development Committee(‘GDPDC’) will be constituted for formulating and implementing guidelines, strategies, and programs for the promotion of activities related to the Geospatial sector.
Will put in place a legal framework (by 2025) that supports the liberalization of the geospatial sector, and democratization of data for enhanced commercialization with value-added services.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: B
The National Geospatial Policy, 2022
It is a citizen-centric policy that seeks to strengthen the geospatial sector to support national development, economic prosperity and a thriving information economy.
Aim: The 13-year guideline promote the country’s geospatial data industry and develops a national framework to use such data for improving citizen services, and more.
Themes: The policy has divided 14 Geospatial Data Themes to support the development of commercial geospatial applications in various sectors e.g., disaster management, mining, forestry etc.
Technology Infrastructure:
The government will establish an Integrated Data and Information Framework by 2030 to develop Geospatial Knowledge Infrastructure (GKI).
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The government will also establish National Digital Twin (for high-resolution topographical survey and mapping by 2035)
Institutional Infrastructure:
Geospatial Data Promotion and Development Committee(‘GDPDC’) will be constituted for formulating and implementing guidelines, strategies, and programs for the promotion of activities related to the Geospatial sector.
Will put in place a legal framework (by 2025) that supports the liberalization of the geospatial sector, and democratization of data for enhanced commercialization with value-added services.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
1 pointsWhich of the followings is/are the application/s of National Supercomputing Mission?
- NSM Platform for Genomics and Drug Discovery.
- Flood Early Warning and Prediction System for River Basins of India.
- HPC Software Suite for Seismic Imaging to aid Oil and Gas Exploration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: D
National Supercomputing Mission was introduced by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in 2015 to install 73 supercomputers in India by 2022.
The National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) which is being steered jointly by Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeiTY) and the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and implemented by Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) and Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore, has progressed significantly. The four major pillars of the NSM, namely, Infrastructure, Applications, R&D, HRD, have been functioning efficiently to realize the goal of developing indigenous supercomputing eco system of the nation.
C-DAC has been entrusted the responsibility to design, development, deployment and commissioning of the supercomputing systems under the build approach of Mission. The Mission plans to build and deploy 24 facilities with cumulative compute power of more than 64 Petaflops. Till now C-DAC has deployed 11 systems at IISc, IITs, IISER Pune, JNCASR, NABI-Mohali and C-DAC under NSM Phase-1 and Phase-2 with a cumulative compute power of more than 20 Petaflops.
Some of the large-scale applications which are being developed under NSM include the following:-
- NSM Platform for Genomics and Drug Discovery.
- Urban Modelling: Science Based Decision Support Framework to Address Urban Environment Issues (Meteorology, Hydrology, Air Quality).
- Flood Early Warning and Prediction System for River Basins of India.
- HPC Software Suite for Seismic Imaging to aid Oil and Gas Exploration.
- MPPLAB: Telecom Network Optimization.
Hence, all the statements are correct.
Incorrect
Solution: D
National Supercomputing Mission was introduced by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in 2015 to install 73 supercomputers in India by 2022.
The National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) which is being steered jointly by Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeiTY) and the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and implemented by Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) and Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore, has progressed significantly. The four major pillars of the NSM, namely, Infrastructure, Applications, R&D, HRD, have been functioning efficiently to realize the goal of developing indigenous supercomputing eco system of the nation.
C-DAC has been entrusted the responsibility to design, development, deployment and commissioning of the supercomputing systems under the build approach of Mission. The Mission plans to build and deploy 24 facilities with cumulative compute power of more than 64 Petaflops. Till now C-DAC has deployed 11 systems at IISc, IITs, IISER Pune, JNCASR, NABI-Mohali and C-DAC under NSM Phase-1 and Phase-2 with a cumulative compute power of more than 20 Petaflops.
Some of the large-scale applications which are being developed under NSM include the following:-
- NSM Platform for Genomics and Drug Discovery.
- Urban Modelling: Science Based Decision Support Framework to Address Urban Environment Issues (Meteorology, Hydrology, Air Quality).
- Flood Early Warning and Prediction System for River Basins of India.
- HPC Software Suite for Seismic Imaging to aid Oil and Gas Exploration.
- MPPLAB: Telecom Network Optimization.
Hence, all the statements are correct.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
1 pointsBy selling 45 lemons for Rs 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs 24 to gain 20% in the transaction ?
Correct
Answer: B) 18
Explanation:
Let S.P. of 45 lemons be Rs. x.
Then, 80 : 40 = 120 : x or x = (40×120)/80
= 60
For Rs.60, lemons sold = 45
For Rs.24, lemons sold =(45/60)×24
= 18.
Incorrect
Answer: B) 18
Explanation:
Let S.P. of 45 lemons be Rs. x.
Then, 80 : 40 = 120 : x or x = (40×120)/80
= 60
For Rs.60, lemons sold = 45
For Rs.24, lemons sold =(45/60)×24
= 18.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
1 pointsThe cost of an article including the sales tax is Rs. 616. The rate of sales tax is 10%, if the shopkeeper has made a profit of 12%, then the cost price of the article is?
Correct
Answer: B) 500rs
Explanation:
110% of SP = 616 (Rate of sales tax = 10%)
SP = 616*100/110 = 560
CP = 100*SP/100 + gain%
CP = 100*560/100+12 = 500 Rs
Incorrect
Answer: B) 500rs
Explanation:
110% of SP = 616 (Rate of sales tax = 10%)
SP = 616*100/110 = 560
CP = 100*SP/100 + gain%
CP = 100*560/100+12 = 500 Rs
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
1 pointsAnup, Kamalesh and Vinay invested Rs. 16000, Rs. 8000 and Rs. 16000 respectively to open a business. Anup left after 6 months. If after 8 months, there was a gain of Rs. 8010, then What will be the share of Kamalesh?
Correct
Answer: A) 1780
Explanation:
Anup: Kamalesh: Vinay = (16000 x 6): (8000 x 8): (16000 x 8) = 48: 32: 64 = 3: 2: 4.
Kamalesh’s share = Rs.8010 x 2/9
= Rs. 1780.Incorrect
Answer: A) 1780
Explanation:
Anup: Kamalesh: Vinay = (16000 x 6): (8000 x 8): (16000 x 8) = 48: 32: 64 = 3: 2: 4.
Kamalesh’s share = Rs.8010 x 2/9
= Rs. 1780. -
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
1 pointsSchool safety’ has been defined as the creation of a safe environment for children, starting from their homes to their schools and back. This includes safety from large-scale ‘natural’ hazards of geological/climatic origin, human-made risks, pandemics, violence as well as more frequent and smaller-scale fires, transportation and other related emergencies and threats that can adversely affect the lives of children. The concept of ‘safe school’ has evolved over the last couple of decades as the threat to the physical well-being of children has risen both globally and in India. International attention was drawn to the safety of school children in ‘The Hyogo Framework for Action: Building the Resilience of Nations and Communities to Disasters’, adopted by the United Nations in 2005.
In light of the above passage, which of the following statement(s) is/are true about school safety?
- School safety concerns itself with safety of children inside school premises
- School safety as an issue has also been raised at disaster management conferences
Correct
Answer. B) 2 only
School safety includes safety also from school to home. Hence 1 is wrong. School safety has been talked about at Hyogo Conference, hence 2 is correct. Hence B
Incorrect
Answer. B) 2 only
School safety includes safety also from school to home. Hence 1 is wrong. School safety has been talked about at Hyogo Conference, hence 2 is correct. Hence B
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
1 pointsFortunately, the modern trend in today’s world is towards less secrecy and more information. The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations way back in 1966, specifically includes the right to freedom of expression, defined as “the freedom to seek, receive and impart the information and ideas of all kinds”.
Which among the following option is in sync with the central theme of the passage?
Correct
Answer. A) Official Secrets Act is an anachronistic piece of legislature
The passage highlights the importance of freedom of speech in general and the freedom to seek information in particular which is at odds with Official Secrets Act. Hence A.
Incorrect
Answer. A) Official Secrets Act is an anachronistic piece of legislature
The passage highlights the importance of freedom of speech in general and the freedom to seek information in particular which is at odds with Official Secrets Act. Hence A.
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